Nutrition Flashcards

1
Q

How long does food remain in the stomach?

A

Two hours 

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2
Q

What organ is responsible for producing bile?

A

The liver

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3
Q

What organ is responsible for filtering toxins from the blood

A

The liver

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4
Q

What does the pancreas do?

A

Produces insulin to regulate sugar metabolism

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5
Q

According to the USDA, how much fruit and vegetables should adults consume

A

2 cups of fruit and 2 1/2 cups of vegetables

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6
Q

According to the USDA, how much grains proteins and dairy products should an adult consume a day

A

6 ounces of grain
5 1/2 ounces of protein
3 cups of dairy products

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7
Q

How many calories should be in 2 to 8 year old be consuming

A

1000 2000 depending on gender and activity level

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8
Q

How many calories should an adolescent from 9 to 14 years of age be eating a day?

A

16 to 2804 males depending on their activity level
1800 to 2400 for females, depending on their activity level as well

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9
Q

How many calories should a 15 230 year old be eating a day

A

2200 to 2400 for males
1800 to 2400 for females

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10
Q

How many calories should people 31 years and older be eating?

A

2000 to 3000 for males
1600 to 2200 for females

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11
Q

Where are saturated fats found?

A

Milk, cheese, butter, and other full fat dairy products

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12
Q

What is another name for vitamin B one

A

Thiamine

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13
Q

What vitamin converts nutrients to energy

A

Vitamin B1

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14
Q

What kind of vitamin can be found in whole grains, pork seed, and trout?

A

Vitamin B-1

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15
Q

What is another name for a vitamin D2?

A

Riboflavin

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16
Q

What is another name for vitamin B five?

A

Pantothenic

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17
Q

What is another name for vitamin B3?

A

Niacin

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18
Q

What vitamin can be found in yogurt, milk, Organ meats, and almonds

A

Vitamin B two

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19
Q

What is a vitamin that can help with energy production and fat metabolism

A

Vitamin B2

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20
Q

What foods can vitamin B three be found in

A

Meat, fish, nuts, green, and legumes

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21
Q

What is the role of vitamin B5?

A

Help produce energy from food

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22
Q

 What vitamins can be found in mushroom tuna, avocado, and chicken?

A

Vitamin B five

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23
Q

What is the name for vitamin B six?

A

Pyridoxine

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24
Q

What is another name for vitamin B seven?

A

Bio tin

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25
Q

what vitamin helps fatty acids synthesis?

A

Vitamin B five

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26
Q

What vitamin helps the body release sugar for energy and immune function?

A

Vitamin B6

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27
Q

What foods can you find vitamin B6?

A

Organ meats, salmon, tuna, and potatoes

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28
Q

What is another name for vitamin B9?

A

Folate

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29
Q

In which vitamin can you find in organ, meats, egg, salmon, and sunflower seeds

A

Vitamin B seven or biotin

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30
Q

What function do you need vitamin B 9

A

FOr necessary, proper cell division

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31
Q

Where would you find bnine vitamins?

A

Leafy, green vegetables, orange juice, eggs, beans, and avocados

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32
Q

What is another name for vitamin B 12?

A

Cobalamin

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33
Q

What is the function of vitamin B 12?

A

 To aid in red blood cell formation, and nervous system and brain function

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34
Q

Where would you find vitamin C

A

Brussels sprouts, citrus, fruit, spinach, berries, tomatoes, potatoes

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35
Q

What is the purpose of vitamin C?

A

To promote iron absorption, wound healing, bone formation, and immune function

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36
Q

Where would you find vitamin?

A

Fish, liver oil, beef, liver dairy products, leafy greens, and sweet potatoes

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37
Q

What is the function of vitamin a

A

Bone formation, vision tooth, formation, immune function, and cellular function

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38
Q

What is the purpose of vitamin D?

A

Bones and teeth, development, absorption, and metabolism of calcium and phosphorus

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39
Q

What type of vitamin is included in fish oil milk eggs dairy products?

A

Fish liver oil
Beef liver
Dairy products
Green, leafy vegetables
Sunlight

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40
Q

What vitamin works with calcium and phosphorus to build bones and teeth?

A

Vitamin D

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41
Q

What is the function of Vitamin E

A

To fight infection and have healthy red blood cells

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42
Q

Where would you find vitamin e?

A

Almonds, wheat germ, sunflower, seeds, and spinach

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43
Q

What vitamin is prevalent in vitamin E k butter, kale, and parsley?

A

Vitamin K 

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44
Q

Important functions of Vitamin K

A

Blood clotting and bone health

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45
Q

Function of Calcium

A

Proper function and structure of teeth and bones, muscle function, blood pressure regulation

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46
Q

Function of Phosphorus

A

Healthy bones and teeth, assists with acid–base balance

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47
Q

Phosphorus source

A

Eggs, fish, poultry, milk

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48
Q

Magnesium function

A

Muscle contraction, immune system health, nerve transmission

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49
Q

Magnesium sources

A

Legumes, green vegetables, seafood

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50
Q

vitamin responsible for fluid balance, nerve transmission, muscle contraction

A

Sodium

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51
Q

Sources of Sodium

A

Salt, soy sauce, processed foods, meats

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52
Q

funciton of Chloride

A

Salt, meats, soy sauce, processed foods

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53
Q

Chloride sources

A

Bananas, fruit, legumes, whole grains

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54
Q

Sulfur location

A

Located in protein molecules

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55
Q

Sulfur source

A

Eggs, meat, fish, legumes

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56
Q

Iron Function

A

Vital to the transport of oxygen throughout the body

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57
Q

Iron sources

A

Organ meats, red meats, leafy green vegetables, iron-fortified foods

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58
Q

Magnesium importance

A

Part of several enzymes

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59
Q

Magnesium sources

A

Nuts, some fish, brown rice, avocado, spinach, and bananas

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60
Q

Copper function

A

Iron metabolism

61
Q

Copper sources

A

Legumes, whole grains, organ meats, water

62
Q

zinc function

A

Normal growth, wound healing, and immune function

63
Q

Zinc sources

A

Meats, fish, whole grains, vegetables

64
Q

iodine function

A

Thyroid regulation

65
Q

iodine source

A

Seafood, iodized salt, dairy products

66
Q

fluoride source

A

Fluorinated water, foods and beverages prepared with fluorinated water

67
Q

fluoride function

A

Bone and teeth development

68
Q

vitamin that Defends against oxidative damage

A

Selenium

69
Q

Selenium source

A

Grains, meats, seafood

70
Q

how are net carbs calculated?

A

the amount of carbohydrates in a product minus either the fiber or the sugar alcohols and fiber. Fiber and sugar alcohols essentially cancel out carbohydrates

71
Q

What is the information that must be listed ion a food label?

A

calories, fats, cholesterol, sodium, carbohydrates, fiber, sugar, protein, and some vitamins and minerals in each serving size

72
Q

how is BMI calculated?

A
  1. client’s weight (lbs) divided by their height (in)
  2. that answer divided by height (in)
  3. that answer times 703
73
Q

BMI of 18.5 is considered what?

A

underweight

74
Q

What is a healthy BMI?

A

18.5 to 24.9

75
Q

What is an obese BMI?

A

25 to 29.9

76
Q

What is it called when there is a BMI of 30 or greater?

A

obese

77
Q

What vitamins can help with skin health?

A

Consuming a diet rich in vitamins A, C, D, and E

78
Q

What vitamins and minerals help prevent hair loss?

A

C, zinc, iron, and essential fatty acids

79
Q

To support brain health, clients should consume a diet with adequate what?

A

omega-3 fatty acids. Eating flax seed, walnuts, fish oil, and wild salmon

80
Q

how much fiber should people be getting daily?

A

Females should eat 25 g of fiber per day, while men should get 38 g of fiber daily.

81
Q

What minerals and vitamins help the body heal faster and prevent infection?

A

A, C, and E, iron, zinc, and folic acid

82
Q

What is 24-hour recall?

A

Assessment tool used to help a client recall what they have eaten over the last 24 hours.

83
Q

what is a food frequency questionnaire

A

aims to determine the client’s typical food consumption based on a list of foods

84
Q

what can PNs do when documenting nutrition?

A

Gather data for the client to note findings of adequate or inadequate nutrition. Also note new, worsening, or improving findings. Notify the RN or provider of these changes.

85
Q

When might people be under an NPO diet?

A

dysphagia,
pre-op

86
Q

Why might be people be placed on a soft diet?

A

recovering from surgeries on particular areas of the body, such as the jaw, mouth, or abdomen

87
Q

Examples of soft diet food?

A

bland
well-cooked vegetables
low-fiber cereals
and easy-to-chew proteins
plain cake
fruit juices without pulp
tender cuts of beef, creamy nut butters
cooked fruit without the skin or seeds

88
Q

What kind of people might be placed on a pureed diet?

A

difficulty chewing or swallowing/dsyphasgia
has had recent oral surgery
experiencing numbness in the mouth

89
Q

What is a pureed diet?

A

consists of foods that are soft and smooth and do not need to be chewed

90
Q

examples of pureed diet food

A

pudding
mashed potatoes
yogurt
juices without pulp
baby food
pureed meats
broths
ice cream

91
Q

What is full liquid diet?

A

a diet that contains only fluids, foods that are liquids, and foods that are liquids at room temperature,

92
Q

examples of full liquid diet foods?

A

ice cream
juices
pudding
milkshakes
tea
strained soups
protein shakes
gelatin
yogurt

93
Q

who might be on a full liquid diet?

A

postoperative from abdominal surgery
experiencing dysphagia
prior to undergoing certain procedures.

94
Q

What is a clear liquid diet?

A

Diet consisting of only liquids that are clear and offers little daily calories and nutrients.

95
Q

What is in a clear liquid diet?

A

broth
gelatin/clear jello
water
tea
fruit juices without pulp
sports drinks
clear soda

96
Q

What is the purpose of a clear liquid diet?

A

don’t leave undigested residue in the intestinal tract
decrease strain on digestive system
keep the body adequately hydrated

97
Q

Why do foods on a clear liquid diet need to be clear?

A

colon precedures and tonsillectomies to avoid any confusion with possible bleeding

98
Q

When might people be placed on a full liquid diet?

A

clients who are experiencing nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
undergoing certain procedures

99
Q

What are diets that are designed to improve or maintain the cardiovascular health

A

heart-healthy diet

100
Q

What are components of a heart- healthy diet

A

Consuming more fruits and vegetables
increasing whole grains
limiting unhealthy fats like trans ats
eating low-fat protein sources
decreasing sodium intake
portion control

101
Q

how much sodium should a healthy adult consume a day?

A

2,300 mg

102
Q

What is the renal diet method?

A

Avoiding table salt
Not adding salt to foods while cooking them
Avoiding processed meats such as lunch meats, hot dogs, bacon, and sausage
Consuming “no salt added” foods
Avoiding soups unless they are low sodium and eating only one serving
Reading food labels to determine the amount of sodium per serving

103
Q

What are goals of the renal diet?

A

monitor and limit intake of minerals such as potassium, phosphorus, and sodium

104
Q

What happens to people with kidney disease who consume too much potassium?

A

can lead to heart dysrhythmias and increase the risk of myocardial infarction

105
Q

What are foods with too much potassium?

A

Bananas
Grapefruit juice
Honeydew/Cantaloupe
Dried beans
Prune juice
Tomatoes/ sauce/ juice
Oranges/juice
Greens such as spinach, collards, kale, and Swiss chard
potatoes/sweet potatoes
cereal brain, molasses

106
Q

What role does phosphorus play in kidney disease?

A

excess P can accumulate in the blood without proper kidney function. too much P can increase the risk for bone disease and fractures

107
Q

What are things to limit to control phosphorus

A

Dairy
beans
mushrooms
broccoli/brussels sprouts
whole grain bread
bran, granola, oatmeal
bear
soft drinks

108
Q

St. John’s wort can decrease the effectiveness of what medications

A

birth control, cardiac medications, and antidepressants.

109
Q

Vitamin K reduces the effectiveness of what type of medication?

A

warfarin and some other anticoagulants

110
Q

What supplements can reduce the effectiveness of chemotherapy?

A

Antioxidant supplements, including vitamin C and E

111
Q

Excess vitamin A can cause what?

A

headaches, lead to birth defects, and decrease bone strength

112
Q

too much iron can lead to what?

A

nausea and vomiting while risking damage to the liver

113
Q

How much should you flush an NG tube with before removing? Why?

A

to clear the tube of any gastric contents, and reduce the risk of aspiration
flush the tube with 10 mL of water or 0.9% sodium chloride to 30-50mL of air through tube.

114
Q

How warm should a PN bag be? why?

A

room temp, so leave out for 30 to60 minutes
decreases incidence of hypothermia, vasospasm, venous constriction, and pain at the intravenous site.

115
Q

What position and for how long should a patient be after eneral feeding?

A

right side, slightly upright, or in Fowler’s position for 30 minutes after the feeding.

116
Q

Nausea, vomiting, and/or abdominal cramping could indicate what in an NG tube?

A

an alteration in gastrointestinal function or that the tube has become displaced.

117
Q

What is the difference between ovet aspiration and silent aspiration?

A

over has symptoms such as sudden cough, wheezing, trouble breathing, congestion, heartburn, throat clearing or chest discomfort

118
Q

What are some kinds of thickened liquids ?

A

mildly thick, like nectar; moderately thick, like honey; or extremely thick, with a pudding consistency

119
Q

What should the nurse do if a patient aspirated during meal or shows signs?

A

stop,
NPO status
notify the provider

120
Q

What are vital signs that could indicate aspiration from enteral feeding?

A

decreased oxygen saturation
increased heart rate
blood pressure
respiratory rate
audible wheezing

121
Q

Steps to prevent aspiration from tube feeding

A

Verify the initial tube placement with an x-ray before initial use.
Check the tube placement every 4 hours by checking the pH of the gastric contents.
Check tube feeding tolerance every 4 hours by measuring the residual.
Maintain head of bed at 30° to 45° during feeding.
Maintain position at 30° to 45° for at least 1 hour following bolus feedings.

122
Q

What are questions to ask to address issues

A

Do they need to use the restroom?
Have they washed their hands?
Are their dentures in place?
Are their hearing aids in place and turned on?
Are the surroundings free of clutter?

123
Q

Chin-tuck position

(2)

A

Client holds the chin down to the chest while swallowing

Narrows the airway’s entrance to decrease aspiration risk

124
Q

Rotation of the head to the affected side

A

Client turns the head to the affected side, which directs the food to the strong side

125
Q

name of method to Tilting of the head to the strong side

A

Client tilts the head to the strong side to push food down that side

126
Q

Supraglottic swallow (2)

A

Client swallows food/liquid while holding the breath, which protects the airway, and then coughs immediately after to remove any residual food

Steps include holding the breath, putting food/liquid in the mouth, swallowing up to three times while holding the breath until the food/liquid is mostly cleared, then coughing any residual out

127
Q

Mendelsohn maneuver

A

A form of the supraglottic swallow

Client swallows, holds the swallow for 2–3 seconds, completes the swallow, and then relaxes

128
Q

How long after eating should a patient get their fasting blood glucose test?

A

NPO after eight hours

129
Q

What should a normal fasting blood glucose level be for someone without diabetes?

A

less than 100 mg/dL

130
Q

What is the blood glucose level of hypoglycemia?

A

level is less than 70 mg/dL

131
Q

Where is insulin created in the pancreas?

A

made in beta cells in the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the pancreas.

132
Q

What do alpha cells do?

A

located in the islets of Langerhans are responsible for making glucagon, an antagonist to insulin that raises the blood glucose.

133
Q

What is the most common strength of insulin?

A

U-100 or 100 units of insulin per milliliter of fluid

134
Q

Rapid-acting insulin starts to work in how much time?

A

15 to 30 minutes, peaks in 30 minutes to 3 hours, and has effects that last 3 to 5 hours.

135
Q

Regular or short-acting insulin starts to work in in how long?

A

30 minutes to 1 hour, peaks in 1 to 5 hours, and has effects that last 6 to 10 hours.

136
Q

Intermediate-acting insulin starts to work in how long?

A

1 to 2 hours, peaks in 4 to 14 hours, and has effects that last 14 to 24 hours.

137
Q

Long-acting insulin reaches the bloodstream several hours after injection and has effects that last up to how long?

A

24 hours without a peak.

138
Q

how often should a nurse check the glucose level I abnormal lab results for diabetes?

A

every 15 minutes uuntil normal

139
Q

Enteral nutrition has been associated with what outcomes?

A

improved nutrition
lower incidence of infection,
decreased days in the hospital.

140
Q

contraindications for enteral feeding

A

gastrointestinal bleeding
small or large bowel obstruction
bowel ischemia

141
Q

What is the difference between partial parenteral nutrition and total parenteral nutrition?

A

total has all the nutritional supplement and usually given to people without a functioning GI tract

142
Q

abnormalities in glucose, including high blood glucose can occur in what type of feeding?

A

total parenteral nutrition

143
Q

why should the glucose level be monitored when giving regular total parenteral nutrition?

A

There could be total parenteral nutrition

144
Q

What is protein important for?

A

growth
healing
overall body maintenance

145
Q

What is mechanical soft diets?

A

clear and full liquid plus diced or ground foods

146
Q

What are some signs of aspiration of an NG tube?

A

cyanosis
coughing
hoarse voice

147
Q

people at risk for aspiration?

A

CVA
dementia
tube feeding

148
Q

What is an indication of whole blood

A

low platelet count

149
Q

What is an indication of frozen plasma?

A

anemia