Week 2, Chapter 2 & 3 Flashcards
What are the 2 pairs of nucleotide bases that make up DNA?
Adenine-thymine and guanin-cytosine
T or F: the order of nucleotide pairs is the code that causes the cell to create specific amino acids
T
What are the first 22 chromosomes, and what is the 23rd pair?
Autosomes; sex chromosomes
What are the reproductive cells called, and how many chromosomes does it contain?
Gametes; 23
What is the fertilized egg called?
Zygote
What is a genotype vs. phenotype?
Complete genetic makeup; genotype + environment = phenotype
T or F: pairs of alleles can either be homozygous (same) or heterozygous (different)
T
What are the 2 kinds of alleles?
Dominant, recessive
T or F: for every gene, you can have the same allele or 2 different alleles
T
What are recessive traits (9)?
Straight hair, blond hair, thin lips, type O, RH-negative blood, red-green color blindness, tongue rolling, attached earlobes, blue eyes, cilantro tastes like soap
What disorders are due to recessive homozygous genes (4)?
Cystic fibrosis, PKU, albinism, Tay-Sachs disease
What is an example of a sex-linked disorder?
Hemophilia
What kind of allele is huntington’s disease caused by?
Dominant
What disorders are caused by too many, too few, or damaged chromosomes (4)?
Turner’s sydrome, klinefelter’s syndrome, XYY complement, XXX syndrome
What is Turner’s syndrome characterized by, and what gender is it more common in?
Motor cognitive delays, females
What is Kinefelter’s syndrome characterized by, and what gender is it more common in?
Sterile, micro penis, cognitive delays in language, males
What causes downsyndrome?
Extra 21st chromosome
What is polygenic inheritance?
Involves many genes
T or F: monozygotic twins come from 2 separate eggs and 2 sperm, and dizygotic twins come from 1 egg and 1 sperm
F; reverse - 1 egg, 1 sperm and 2 eggs 2 sperm
What does reaction range mean?
The same genotype can produce a range of phenotypes in reaction to environment
What do heritability coefficients estimate?
Extent to which differences between people reflect heritability
What does methylation mean and what does it do?
One of several epigenetic mechanisms that cells use to control gene expression; chemical reaction in the body in which a small molecule called methyl group gets added to DNA
What is this phenomenon called and what is an example of it: deliberately seeking environments that fit one’s heredity
Niche-picking; shy kid playing alone
In prenatal development, what are the stages and what are their timelines?
Germinal/zygote (conception-2 weeks), embryonic (3-8 week), fetal (9 weeks-birth aka 38-40 weeks)
What is a zygote called after 4 days?
Blastocyst
T or F: the period of the zygote begins when egg is fertilized
T
What part of development is known as the period of rapid cell division?
Zygote
What happens at the end of 2 weeks in prenatal development?
Egg implanted in wall of uterus
What does the placenta provide to the fetus?
Oxygen, removes carbon dioxide, filters waste, nutrients
What are the 3 layers of body and internal structures formed during the embryonic stage?
Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
What are the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm layers?
Hair, outer layer of skin, and nervous system; muscles, bones, circulatory system; digestive system and lungs
What is metaphor to think of when considering the 3 layers of the embryonic stage?
Cake; EN as INterior (cake itself), ME as in MIddle (frosting), and ECTO as in OUTer (decorations)
What defect is this (develops during embryonic stage): spine doesn’t fully develop; neural tube doesn’t close completely, some bones do not close in the back
Spina bifida
What is one of the main causes of spina bifida?
Lack of sufficient folic acid
When are the genital organs developed?
3 months
What is vernix and what does it do?
Thick greasy substance; protects skin from water
T or F: in the period of the fetus, all regions of the brain grown, particularly the cerebral cortex (CNS)
T
When is the age of viability?
22-28 weeks
T or F: the better fetal heart rate variability, the more advanced motor, mental, and language development at 2 months
T
At what time do fetuses show variations in heart rate and changes in heart rate in response to physiological stress?
6 months
At what time have most movements, that will be present at birth, appeared?
12 weeks
At what time does the fetus respond to sound?
6 months
How does prolonged stress affect the fetus, and what kind of consequences are there after birth (5)?
Decreases oxygen to fetus, weaken’s mother’s immune system; lower birth weight, premature, newborn irritability, feeding and sleeping problems, behavior issues by 4 years
What is preeclampsia?
High maternal blood pressure and high protein content in urine
What are 5 types of teratogens?
Cocaine, nicotine, alcohol, caffeine (200 mg safe), and asprin (small dose safer)
Which drug was promoted for anxiety, trouble sleeping, tension, and morning sickness and led to harm to at least 10k children?
Thalidomide
What kind of defects is nicotine linked to (5)?
Delayed growth and low birth weight, constricted blood vessels in placenta, SIDS (sudden infant death syndrome), ADHD
What are the influences of alcohol on prenatal development (7)?
Under developed livers, abnormal physical development, interference in CNS development, restricted nutrient supply, risk of miscarriage, premature, low birth weight
What are consequences (6) of fetal alcohol spectrum (FASD)?
Impulsivity, difficulties handling money, keeping up with classroom learning, health issues, abnormal facial features (small head, low weight), abnormalities of brain development
What are the 3 stages of labour?
- Muscles of uterus contract and ends when cervix fully enlarged 2. baby pushed through birth canal 3. placenta expelled
What is hypoxia?
If umbilical cord is pinched or squeezed shut, cuts off flow of blood to baby
What are 6 reasons for a c-section?
Breech, shoulder, STD (syphilis, herpes, AIDS), previous c-section, multiple births, fetal distress
What timeline is considered a premature birth?
28-36 weeks
What is the apgar test?
Assesses wellbeing of newborn
Appearance (skin tone)
Pulse (heart rate)
Grimace (presence of reflexes)
Activity (muscle tone)
Respiration (breathing)
What is alert inactivity vs. waking activity?
Calm and attentive eyes, eyes open; eyes open but unfocused, arms and legs are moving uncoordinated
What is SUID and what are risk factors?
Sudden unexpected infant death - when a healthy baby dies for no apparent reason; premature, low birth weight, parental smoking, overheating, face down when sleeping
What is the sickle cell trait?
One dominant allele and one recessive
What is amniocentesis?
Needle is inserted through mother’s abdomen to obtain a sample of amniotic fluid
What is chronic villus sampling (CVS)?
Sample of tissue obtained from chorion (part of placenta) and analyzed
Why is non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) useful?
New forms of DNA testing that allows for prenatal diagnostic tests for chromosomal abnormalities
What is genetic engineering?
Replacing genes with synthetic normal genes
What percentage of new mothers experience PPD?
10-15%
What is cephalopelvic disproportion?
Infants head larger than pelvis
What is the neonatal behavioral assessment scale (NBAS)?
Autonomic (ability to control bodily functions such as breathing and temp regulation), motor (ability to control body movements and activity level), state. ability to maintain state; sleep, alertness), social (ability to interact with people)
What is the babinski, moro, and palmar reflex?
Toes fan when foot touched, throws arms out in response to loud noise or when head falls, grasp reflex
