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Pathophysiology > Week 13 - Ch 38, 39, 40 > Flashcards

Week 13 - Ch 38, 39, 40 Flashcards

1
Q

Dacrocystitis is an infection in the lacrimal sac. What symptoms indicate dacryocystitis?

a. Purulent discharge
b. Swelling
c. Inflamed conjunctiva
d. Lack of tears

A

b. Swelling

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2
Q

Ophthalmia neonatorum is a conjunctivitis that develops in newborns. It is caused by the agents that cause sexually transmitted diseases. When should ophthalmia neonatorum be suspected?

a. When a conjunctivitis develops 24 hours after birth
b. When a conjunctivitis develops 12 hours after birth
c. When a conjunctivitis develops 48 hours after birth
d. When a conjunctivitis develops 36 hours after birth

A

c. When a conjunctivitis develops 48 hours after birth

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3
Q

Keratitis can be caused by different infectious agents. What is the treatment goal with herpes simplex virus keratitis?

a. Minimizing pain
b. Cure for the disease
c. Eliminating viral replication within the cornea
d. Minimizing spread of virus to other parts of the eye

A

c. Eliminating viral replication within the cornea

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4
Q

Corneal transplants are done everyday in hospitals around the world. All of these transplanted corneas come from cadavers. Why do corneal transplants have such a low rejection rate? (Mark all that apply.)

a. Cornea is very vascular
b. Antigen-presenting cells are not present in great numbers
c. The cornea secretes immunosuppressive factors
d. The cornea has no lymphatics
e. Corneal cells secrete substances that protect against keratitis.

A

b, c, d (Antigen-presenting cells are not present in great numbers; cornea secretes immunosuppressive factors; the cornea has no lymphatics)

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5
Q

Pharmacologic agents can affect dilation of the pupil and the papillary response. What types of drugs produce papillary constriction?

a. Sympathomimetic agents
b. Antihistamine agents
c. Cycloplegic agents
d. Miotic agents

A

d. Miotic agents

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6
Q

In open-angle glaucoma, there is an increased pressure within the globe of the eye without obstruction at the iridocorneal angle. Usually, this is caused by an abnormality in the trabecular meshwork, which controls the flow or aqueous humor. Where is aqueous humor in a normal eye?

a. Canal of Schlemm
b. Ocular canal
c. Ductus lacrimalis
d. Behind the pupil

A

a. Canal of Schlemm

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7
Q

Age-related cataracts are characterized by what?

a. Everything looking grey
b. Visual distortion
c. Narrowing visual field
d. Blind spots in visual field

A

b. Visual distortion

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8
Q

Vitreous humor occupies the posterior portion of the eyeball. It is an amorphous biologic gel. When liquefaction of the gel occurs, as in aging, what can be seen during head movement?

a. Blind spots
b. Meshlike structures
c. Floaters
d. Red spots

A

c. Floaters

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9
Q

When conditions occur that impair retinal blood flow, such as hyperviscosity of the blood or a sickle cell crisis, what can occur in the eye?

a. Microaneurysms
b. Hypertensive retinopathy
c. Microinfarcts
d. Neovascularization

A

d. Neovascularization

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10
Q

Age-related macular degeneration that is dry is characterized by what?

a. Atrophy of the Bruch membrane
b. Leakage of serous of hemorrhage fluid
c. New blood vessels in the eye
d. Formation of a choroidal neovascular membrane

A

a. Atrophy of the Bruch membrane

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11
Q

Cortical blindness is the bilateral loss of the primary visual cortex. What is retained in cortical blindness?

a. Red spots seen behind the eyelids
b. Pupillary reflexes
c. Ptosis
d. Myopia

A

b. Pupillary reflexes

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12
Q

Adult strabismus is almost always of the paralytic variety. What is a cause of adult strabismus?

a. Huntington disease
b. Parkinson disease
c. Graves disease
d. Addison disease

A

c. Graves disease

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13
Q

Amblyopia, or lazy eye, occurs at a time when visual deprivation or abnormal binocular interactions occur in visual infancy. Whether or not amblyopia is reversible depends on what?

a. The child has to be older than 5
b. The maturity of the visual system at time of onset
c. The child has to have bilateral congenital cataracts
d. The child has to be able to wear contact lenses

A

b. The maturity of the visual system at time of onset

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14
Q

Otitis externa is an inflammation of the outer ear. What fungi cause otitis externa?

a. Aspergillus
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Escherichia coli

A

a. Aspergillus

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15
Q

The eustachian tube connects the nasopharynx and the middle ear. In infants and children with abnormally patent tubes, what are let into the eustachian tube when the infant or child cries or blows the nose?

a. Air and cerumen
b. Air and secretions
c. Secretions and saliva
d. Cerumen and saliva

A

a. Air and cerumen

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16
Q

Acute otitis media is the disorder in children for which antibiotics are most prescribed. What are the risk factors for acute otitis media? (Mark all that apply.)

a. Ethnicity
b. Premature birth
c. Only child in household
d. Genetic syndromes
e. Female gender

A

a, b, d (Ethnicity, premature birth, genetic syndromes)

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17
Q

Otosclerosis is a condition in which spongy, pathologic bone grows around the stapes and oval window. It can be treated either medically or surgically. What is the surgical treatment for otosclerosis?

a. Otosclerotomy
b. Ovalectomy
c. Stapedectomy
d. Amplification surgery

A

c. Stapedectomy

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18
Q

What separates the scala vestibule and the scala media?

a. Corti membrane
b. Tympani membrane
c. Modiolus membrane
d. Reissner membrane

A

d. Reissner membrane

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19
Q

Objective tinnitus is tinnitus that someone else can hear. What does tinnitus that is caused by vascular disorders sound like?

a. Pulses
b. Rings
c. Hums
d. Roars

A

a. Pulses

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20
Q

Conductive hearing loss can occur for a variety of reasons, including foreign bodies in the ear canal, damage to the ear drum, or disease. What disease is associated with conductive hearing loss?

a. Huntington disease
b. Paget disease
c. Alzheimer disease
d. Parkinson disease

A

b. Paget disease

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21
Q

Tumors affecting cranial nerve VIII are acoustic neuromas. What are these tumors of?

a. Inner ear
b. Organ of Corti
c. Schwann cells
d. Labyrinth

A

c. Schwann cells

22
Q

It is important to differentiate between the kinds of hearing loss so they can be appropriately treated. What is used to test between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss?

a. Audioscope
b. Audiometer
c. Tone analysis
d. Tuning fork

A

d. Tuning fork

23
Q

Hearing loss in children can be either conductive or sensorineural, as it is in adults. What is the major cause of sensorineural hearing loss in children?

a. Genetic causes
b. Acute otitis media
c. Paget disease
d. Ototoxicity

A

a. Genetic causes

24
Q

Presbycusis is degenerative hearing loss associated with aging. What is the first symptom of this disorder?

a. Inability to localize sounds
b. Reduction in ability to understand speech
c. Inability to detect sound
d. Reduction in ability to identify sounds

A

b. Reduction in ability to understand speech

25
Q

In hypospasdias, the treatment of choice is surgery to repair the defect. What influences the timing of the surgical repair? (Mark all that apply.)

a. Penile size
b. Testicular involvement
c. Psychological effects on the child
d. Presence of an abdominal hernia
e. Anasthetic risk

A

a, c, e (penile size, psychological effects on the child, anasthetic risk)

26
Q

A 75-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining of pain during intercourse and an upward bowing of his penis during erection. The clients’ history mentions an inflammation of the penis that was treated 3 months ago. The physician’s physical examination of the client notes beads of scar tissue along the dorsal midline of the penile shaft. What would be the suspected diagnosis of this client?

a. Peyronie disease
b. Cavernosa disease
c. Balanitic disease
d. Paraphimosis disease

A

a. Peyronie disease

27
Q

Priapism (a prolonged painful erection not associated with sexual excitement) can occur at any age. In boys, ages 5 to 10, what are the most common causes of priapism?

a. Neoplasms or hemophilia
b. Sickle cell disease or neoplasms
c. Hemophilia or sickle cell disease
d. Hypospadias or neoplasms

A

b. Sickle cell disease or neoplasms

28
Q

Cryptorchidism, left untreated, is a high risk for testicular cancer and infertility. What are the treatment goals for boys with cryptorchidism?

a. Prevention of testicular cancer
b. Prevention of an associated inguinal hernia
c. Easier cancer detection
d. Decreased infertility

A

c. Easier cancer detection

29
Q

The mother of a 5-year-old boy brings him into the clinic because there is a firm feeling swelling around one of his testes. What would be the suspected diagnosis be?

a. Peyronie disease
b. Cryptorchism
c. Priapism
d. Hydrocele

A

d. Hydrocele

30
Q

In the neonatal and pediatric population, there can be many physiologic problems with the male genitourinary system. What is the most common acute scrotal disorder in the pediatric population?

a. Testicular torsion
b. Hypospadias
c. Balantis
d. Paraphimosis

A

a. Testicular torsion

31
Q

Epididymitis can be sexually transmitted, or it can be caused by a variety of other reasons, including abnormalities in the genitourinary tract. What are the most common causes of epididymitis in young men without underlying genitourinary disease?

a. Chlamydia trachomatis and Candida albicans
b. Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c. Escherichia coli and Neisseria gonorrhoeae
d. Candida albicans and Escherichia coli

A

b. Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae

32
Q

Testicular cancer is highly curable if found and treated early in the disease. What are signs of metastatic spread of testicular cancer? (Mark all that apply.)

a. Hemoptysis
b. Back pain
c. Neck mass
d. Chest mass
e. Hoarse voice

A

a, b, c (hemoptysis, back pain, neck pain)

33
Q

A 40-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining of painful urination and rectal pain. His vital signs are temperature, 101.7F; blood pressure, 105/74; pulse, 98; respiration, 22. While taking a history, the nurse notes the client has had chills, malaise, and myalgia. What would the nurse suspect as a diagnosis?

a. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
d. Epididymitis
c. Acute bacterial prostatitis
d. Orchitis

A

c. Acute bacterial prostatitis

34
Q

While the cause of BPH is unknown, we do know that the incidence of BPH increases with age. What ethnic group is BPH highest in?

a. Japanese
b. White
c. Native American
d. African American

A

d. African American

35
Q

Bartholin gland obstruction of the ductal system will cause a cyst. Sometimes the cyst becomes infected and an abcess occurs. What is the surgical removal of a Bartholin cyst or abscess when a wedge of vulvar skin is removed along the cyst wall?

a. Marsupialization
b. Vulvectomy
c. Bartholectomy
d. Incision and drainage

A

a. Marsupialization

36
Q

There are two types of vulvar cancer. One type is found in older women, and one type is found in older women, and one type is found in younger women, generally less than 40 years of age. What is the type found in younger women thought to be caused by?

a. Multiple sexual partners
b. Human papilloma virus
c. Nonsquamous cell lesions
d. Lichen sclerotic lesions

A

b. Human papilloma virus

37
Q

Vaginal infections can occur in young girls prior to menarche. These infections generally have nonspecific causes. What are some of the causes of vaginal infections in premenarchal girls? (Mark all that apply.)

a. Presence of foreign bodies
b. Intestinal parasites
c. Poor hygiene
d. Vaginal deodorants
e. Tampax

A

a, b, c (presence of foreign bodies, intestinal parasites, poor hygiene)

38
Q

The endocervix is covered with large-branched mucous-secreting glands. During the menstrual cycle, they undergo functional changes, and the amount and properties of the mucous that they secrete varies as to the stage of the cycle. When one of these glands gets blocked, what kind of cyst forms within the cervix?

a. Bartholin cysts
b. Bulbourethral cysts
c. Nabothian cysts
d. Metaplastic cysts

A

c. Nabothian cysts

39
Q

Endometriosis is the condition in which endometrial tissue is found growing outside the uterus in the pelvic cavity. What are the risk factors for endometriosis?

a. Late menarche and regular periods with longer cycles than 27 days
b. Early menarche and lighter flow
c. Increased menstrual pain and periods of shorter duration than 7 days
d. Periods longer than 7 days and increased menstrual pain

A

d. Periods longer than 7 days and increased menstrual pain

40
Q

Leiomyomas, or intrauterine fibroids, are the most common form of pelvic tumor. Approximately half the time leiomyomas are asymptomatic. What are the symptoms of leiomyomas that are not asymptomatic?

a. Anemia and urinary frequency
b. Diarrhea and rectal pressure
c. Menorrhagia and urinary retention
d. Abdominal distention and diarrhea

A

a. Anemia and urinary frequency

41
Q

An 18-year-old woman presents at the clinic complaining new-onset breakthrough bleeding, even though she is taking contraceptives. What contraceptive use, along with new-onset breakthrough bleeding, has been associated with pelvic inflammatory disease?

a. Intrauterine device
b. Depo-Provera
c. Spermicidal foam
d. Diaphragm

A

b. Depo-Provera

42
Q

Ectopic pregnancies are true gynecologic emergencies and are considered the leading cause of maternal death in the first trimester. What diagnostic test would you expect to have ordered for a suspected ectopic pregnancy?

a. Transvaginal ultrasound is pregnancy is less than 5 weeks gestation
b. Serial B-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) with higher than normal hCG production
c. Ultrasonography followed by serial hCG tests
d. Amniocentesis

A

c. Ultrasonography followed by serial hCG tests

43
Q

Polycystic ovary syndrome is an endocrine disorder and a common cause of chronic anovulation. In addition to the clinical manifestations of PCOS, long-term health problems including cardiovascular disease and diabetes have been linked to PCOS. What drug has emerged as an important part of PCOS treatment?

a. DHEAS
b. Methotrexate
c. Mineralocorticoids
d. Metformin

A

d. Metformin

44
Q

Ovarian cancer, once thought to be asymptomatic, has now been shown to produce nonspecific symptoms, which makes the diagnosis of ovarian cancer difficult. What symptoms are believed to have a strong association with ovarian cancer? (Mark all that apply.)

a. Difficulty eating
b. Increased intestinal gas
c. Bloating
d. Increased appetite
e. Abdominal or pelvic pain

A

a, c, e (difficulty eating, bloating, abdominal or pelvic pain)

45
Q

Uterine prolapse is a disorder of pelvic support and uterine position. It can range in severity from a slight descent of the uterus into the vagina, all the way to the entire uterus protruding through the vaginal opening. In women who want to have children, or in older women who are at significant risk if surgery is performed, what device is inserted to hold the uterus in place?

a. A pessary
b. A Colpexin sphere
c. A vesicourethral suspender
d. A retroversion inducer

A

a. A pessary

46
Q

In primary dysmenorrheal when contraception is not desired, what is the treatment of choice?

a. Aspirin
b. Ibruprofen
c. Acetaminophen
d. Metformic acid

A

b. Ibuprofen

47
Q

Mastitis is an inflammation of the breast that can occur at any time. What is the treatment for mastitis?

a. Opoid analgesics
b. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
c. Application of heat or cold
d. Tylenol 3

A

c. Application of heat or cold

48
Q

Fibrocystic changes in the breast are not uncommon. How is the diagnosis of fibrocystic changes made?

a. Physical examination and client history
b. Galactography and biopsy
c. Mammography and galactography
d. Ultrasonography and mammography

A

d. Ultrasonography and mammography

49
Q

Cancer of the breast is the most common cancer in women. Many breast cancers are found by women themselves while doing breast self-examination. When should postmenopausal women do breast self-examination?

a. Any day of the month
b. 2 days following menses
c. On the first day of every month
d. On the 15th of every month

A

a. Any day of the month

50
Q

The causes of infertility can be in either the male or the female. Male tests for infertility require a specimen of ejaculate that is collected when?

a. Any time
b. After 3 days of abstinence
c. After 3 consecutive days of intercourse
d. After 3 weeks of abstinence

A

b. After 3 days of abstinence

51
Q

Couples who are being treated for infertility often choose to try in vitro fertilization. When using this technique, the female’s eggs are inseminated with the male’s sperm in a culture dish. After a period of time, the ova are evaluated for signs of fertilization. If signs of fertilization are present, when are the fertilized eggs placed in the woman’s uterus?

a. 12 to 24 hours after egg retrieval
b. 36 to 48 hours after egg retrieval
c. 48 to 72 hours after egg retrieval
d. 24 to 36 hours after egg retrieval

A

c. 48 to 72 hours after egg retrieval

Pathophysiology (23 decks)

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