Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

E-175; Operations > Weather > Flashcards

Weather Flashcards

1
Q

CQ QUESTION! When is a runway service considered to be contaminated?

A

When more than 25% of the length and width of the runway to be used is covered in visual contamination greater than 1/8”.

(FOM CH 7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

CQ QUESTION! What is a runway surface considered to be wet?

A

When more than 25% of the length and width of the runway to be used is covered in visual dampness 1/8” or less.

(FOM CH 7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a compacted snow runway?

A

When the runway to be used is covered by snow which is strong enough to prevent aircraft tires from penetrating and breaking up the surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Minimum cleared runway width?

A

80’ (100’ for normal operations)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When is T/O and landing, regarding runway conditions, prohibited? (3)

A

Crosswind limitations, NIL BA is reported, runway contaminated by wet ice, slush over ice, water over compacted snow or dry snow/wet snow over ice with runway CCs less than 1 or BA NIL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

To what do we apply temp comp on an approach? (3)

A

Intermediate fixes, MDA/DA/DH, missed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In what weather may we NOT take off or land in? (5)

A

Severe ice, +FZDZ, FZRA, +FZRA, GR (hail 1/4” and greater in size)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When is a destination alternate required, regarding precipitation? (6)

A

Regardless of intensity! FZDZ, FZRA, +SN, GR, FZFG, UP (unknown precipitation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When does HOT begin and end?

A

Begins when the final application of fluid commences, expires when the fluid loses its effectiveness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is a flex T/O not allowed? (3)

A

Contaminated runway, wind shear, special DP required full thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When must the aircraft be inspected for cold soak ice/frost? (2)

A

When frost is detected below the wing tank area. When aircraft was exposed to low temperatures during inbound leg and aircraft returns to flight with little delay on the ground, when the surface temperature is near freezing with high humidity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Is T/O permitted with frost adhering to the underside of the wing fuel tank area that is caused by soaked fuel?

A

Yes, maximum of 1/8”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For what conditions do HOT not exist? (4)

A

+SN, ice pellets, mod and heavy frz rain, hail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe type I and IV fluid.

A

Type I: deicing, orange to off-orange. Type IV: anti-icing, green.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the standard take off minimums?

A

5000 RVR/1SM. TDZ is controlling; MID may be subsituted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the lower than standard take off minimums?

A

1600 RVR/ 1/4 SM (TDZ is controlling, MID may be substituted. HIRL/CL/RCLM/adequate visual reference required). Lower than that? Minimum of 2 RVR required. All that are operational are controlling, except for far end). 1200, 1200, 1000: daytime: HIRL/CL/RCLM and night time: HIRL/CL. 1000, 1000, 1000: CL / HIRL&RCLM. 600, 600, 600: HIRL&CL. NOTE: baby captains add 1/2m for T/O alternate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is considered the main body of a TAF?

A

First Line of the TAF. All FM Groups (at the specified time). BCMG (after the END of the period specified).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is considered conditional language in a TAF?

A

TEMPO and PROB. Not BCMNG!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which weather report is controlling on flights less than an hour long?

A

Prior to the point of dispatch, when a flight is less than 60 minutes (planned taxi out time + enroute time), the flight crew must compare the current METAR to the latest TAF; the lowest weather is considered controlling for dispatch.

20
Q

What are atmospheric conditions that require a cold weather preflight inspection?

A

OAT is 5* or less. Wing fuel temperature is 0*C or less. Conditions conducive to icing exist. RON and may have frozen contaminants. Through flight with residual ice from inbound flight. Cold soaked ice suspected in fuel tank.

(ERJ 175 SOPM SP 3700 Ch. 4)

21
Q

CQ QUESTION! What checklist must be complete prior to starting the deice/anti-ice process?

A

The Before Start Checklist.

ERJ FLIGHT DECK DEICE/ANTI-ICE CHECKLIST

22
Q

CQ QUESTION! What is the guidance the checklist provides regarding running the APU during deicing procedures?

A

Should remain off.

ERJ FLIGHT DECK DEICE/ANTI-ICE CHECKLIST

23
Q

CQ QUESTION! Are there different deice procedures for engines off vs engines running?

A

Yes.

24
Q

CQ QUESTION! Are the Deice/Anti-Ice Communication Elements required? Where are they found?

A

Yes.

Communication Elements Table, GDPM.

25
Q

CQ QUESTION! List the required deice/anti-ice elements from the COMMUNICATION ELEMENTS TABLE. GDPM.

A

Type of fluid to be used.
Percentage of fluid.
Time of beginning of final deice step.
Deicing complete.

26
Q

CQ QUESTION! When does the HOT begin? What does the HOT represent?

A

Final application of fluid commences. (GDPM DEFINITIONS)
A range of time in which the fluid provides acceptable protection for the varying precipitation intensities. (GDPM HOT guidelines)

27
Q

CQ QUESTION! In a HOT table what do the longer and shorter times represent?

A

Heavier vs Lighter precipitation.

GDPM HOT guidelines

28
Q

CQ QUESTION! Wat should a crew use to determine precipitation intensities in order to accurately establish a HOT?

A

Official weather observations, tables from the GDPM should only be used in the absence of intensities listed in the official observations. GDPM Precipitation intensities and types.

29
Q

CQ QUESTION! Can the HOT be used as the sole determinant that aircraft critical surfaces are free of frozen contaminants?

A

No, several pre-takeoff checks may be required to determine the condition of the aircraft prior to takeoff.

(GDPM HOT Guidelines)

30
Q

CQ QUESTION! What are factors that influence the effectiveness of deicing/anti-icing fluid?

A

Change in precipitation type, intensity, and moisture content.
Change in ambient and aircraft skin temperature.
Position of aircraft relative to the exhaust or prop wash of other aircraft.
Change in wind direction or velocity.

31
Q

CQ QUESTION! Can parking in the proximity of another aircraft’s jet wash blow the deice/anti-ice fluid off the wings rendering the HOT invalid or the fluid ineffective?

A

Yes.

GDPM HOT Guidelines

32
Q

CQ QUESTION! List precipitation types that HOTs do not exist for.

A

Heavy snow.
Ice pellets.
Moderate and heavy freezing rain.
Hail.

33
Q

CQ QUESTION! When is a pre-takeoff check conducted?

A

Within the holdover time and just prior to takeoff.

GDPM DEFINITIONS

34
Q

CQ QUESTION! What is checked as part of the pre-takeoff check?

A

The representative surface from a vantage point in the aircraft that the PIC determines will give an accurate indication of the condition of the aircraft.

(GDPM DEFINITIONS)

35
Q

CQ QUESTION! What should the crew do if they are unable to determine that the representative surface is free from contaminants?

A

The aircraft must be deiced again.

GDPM Pre-takeoff Procedure

36
Q

CQ QUESTION! When is a pre-takeoff contamination check conducted?

A

After the HOT has been exceeded or the HOT is no longer valid due to changing weather conditions, or in heavy snow - to ensure the wings, control surface and other critical surfaces are free of all frozen contaminants.

(GDPM DEFINITIONS and HOT Exceeded)

37
Q

CQ QUESTION! Can the pre-takeoff contamination check be performed if the deiced process was initiated at a location other than the wings, say the tail perhaps?

A

No.

GDPM HOT Exceeded

38
Q

CQ QUESTION! Is there ever a case where the aircraft can depart with frozen contaminants on any of the critical surfaces?

A

No.

GDPM

39
Q

What do you do, after landing, when operating in conditions conducive to icing?

A

Turn the anti-ice ON!

40
Q

CQ QUESTION! What does TALPA stand for?

A

Takeoff and Landing Performance Assessment.

FOM CH 7

41
Q

CQ QUESTION! What is RCAM?

A

Runway Condition Assessment Matrix is the tool used to assess and report surface conditions when contaminants are present via field condition (FICON). The RCAM maps contamination type and depth to a Runway Condition Code (RwyCC).

(FOM CH 7)

42
Q

CQ QUESTION! What does the RwyCC represent?

A

The Braking Action (BA) expected for a particular contaminant level.

(FOM CH 7)

43
Q

CQ QUESTION! What are RwyCCs used for?

A

To determine landing distance.
Used for departures to identify the runway third with the most limiting contaminant.
Used to determine operating limitations such as crosswind limits with low runway friction.

(FOM CH 7)

44
Q

CQ QUESTION! A RwyCC value of 0 represents what type of BA?

A

NIL, and results in immediate runway closure.

FOM CH 7

45
Q

CQ QUESTION! How long can a FICON NOTAM be in effect?

A

24 hours, and may not reflect actual condition and breaking action.

(FOM CH 7)

46
Q

CQ QUESTION! What should a pilot do when they believe a NOTAM does not accurately reflect current conditions?

A

Consult the dispatcher, airport, or ATC to ascertain current runway information.

(FOM CH 7)

E-175; Operations (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions