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E-175; Operations > CQ QUESTIONS (2022) *incomplete* > Flashcards

CQ QUESTIONS (2022) *incomplete* Flashcards

1
Q

When the CCs are unavailable, what should be used to determine landing performance?

A

Contaminant type and Braking Action reports.

FOM CH 7

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2
Q

If RwyCC values for the same runway are different, i.e 5/4/3, which RwyCC value is used when performing a landing assessment?

A

3, the most restrictive.

FOM CH 7

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3
Q

Are RwyCCs bidirectional?

A

Yes, runways are evaluated to include displaced thresholds, and are measured equally in either direction.

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4
Q

In the FOM’s landing performance hierarchy - when reported, what should be used to determine landing performance?

A

Rwy CC values.

FOM CH 7

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5
Q

When the CCs are unavailable, what should be used to determine landing performance?

A

Contaminant type and Braking Action reports.

FOM CH 7

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6
Q

Why does the Emergency/Parking Brake need to be on prior to starting the external inspection?

A

To check break wear indicators. (SOPM Preflight)

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7
Q

Just because the parking break is on, does this guarantee that there is sufficient hydraulic pressure to check the Brake wear indicators?

A

No. (AOM Vol. 2 Landing Gear and Brakes)

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8
Q

If the hydraulic pressure is depleted for the brakes, how can it be restored prior to the external walk around?

A

Activation of system 1 and system 2 electric hydraulic pumps.

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9
Q

On the external inspection, you notice that the Air Data Smart Probes are covered in frost. What would be an appropriate action by the pilot?

A

Turn the ADSP Heater Switch to ON to remove frozen contaminants.

(SOPM Ch. 4)

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10
Q

When are you required to apply heat to the ADSP’s during the pre-flight?

A

OAT is at or below freezing and water/ice/snow is present or suspected. On the FFOD with temperatures below -18*C. Smart probes frozen. Erroneous airspeed indications present on the PFD with any or all of the following messages displayed on EICAS: AFCS FAULT, AT FAIL, AP FAIL, FD FAIL, YD FAIL, APPR2 NOT AVAIL, any other ADS messages displayed on the EICAS.

(SOPM Ch. 4)

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11
Q

Describe the preflight action for the Nose Landing Gear.

A 
Wheels and tires - condition.
Clear of ice.
Up lock hook - unlocked.
Down-lock springs - condition.
Strut/wheel well/doors - condition and no leaks.
Ground locking pin - removed.
Landing gear and taxi lights - condition.
Clean and undamaged.

(SOPM Preflight)

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12
Q

What unique piece of equipment resides in the right forward fuselage? Describe the SOPM external preflight of this equipment.

A

RAT.
RAT safety lock pin - removed.

(SOPM Preflight)

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13
Q

What does the Oxygen Discharge Indicator look like in its normal condition?

A

Green disc.

SOPM Preflight

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14
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Engine Inlet according to the SOPM?

A

Check for FOD and leaks inside air inlet. Ensure there is no damage to the T12 sensor and the FADEC cooling inlet is clear.

(SOPM Preflight)

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15
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Fan Blades according to the SOPM?

A

Check for damaged blades and ensure fan is free to rotate. Check for damage on spinner.

(SOPM Preflight)

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16
Q

Are there Nacelle Strakes on both sides of the engine?

A

Yes.

(SOPM Preflight)

This is for engine separation, it will aid in rotating the engines away from the aircraft.

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17
Q

How many magnetic level indicators do we have to inspect on each wing? Where are they?

A
  1. On the wings; two on the leading edge and one in the center.

(SOPM Preflight)

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18
Q

Describe the Main Landing Gear inspection.

A 
Wheels and tires - condition.
Up Lock Hook - unlocked.
Down-lock Springs - condition.
Strut/wheel Wells - condition and no leaks.
Ground locking pin - removed.
Brakes Wear Indicators - check.

(SOPM Preflight)

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19
Q

What document would you refer to regarding missing static dischargers? Where is that located?

A

CDL. Back of the AFM.

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20
Q

What are atmospheric conditions that require a cold weather preflight inspection?

A

OAT is 5* or less. Wing fuel temperature is 0*C or less. Conditions conducive to icing exist. RON and may have frozen contaminants. Through flight with residual ice from inbound flight. Cold soaked ice suspected in fuel tank.

(ERJ 175 SOPM SP 3700 Ch. 4)

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21
Q

When is a runway service considered to be contaminated?

A

When more than 25% of the length and width of the runway to be used is covered in visual contamination greater than 1/8”.

(FOM CH 7)

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22
Q

What is a runway surface considered to be wet?

A

When more than 25% of the length and width of the runway to be used is covered in visual dampness 1/8” or less.

(FOM CH 7)

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23
Q

What checklist must be complete prior to starting the deice/anti-ice process?

A

The Before Start Checklist.

ERJ FLIGHT DECK DEICE/ANTI-ICE CHECKLIST

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24
Q

What is the guidance the checklist provides regarding running the APU during deicing procedures?

A

Should remain off.

ERJ FLIGHT DECK DEICE/ANTI-ICE CHECKLIST

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25
Q

Are there different deice procedures for engines off vs engines running?

A

Yes.

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26
Q

Are the Deice/Anti-Ice Communication Elements required? Where are they found?

A

Yes.

Communication Elements Table, GDPM.

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27
Q

List the required deice/anti-ice elements from the COMMUNICATION ELEMENTS TABLE. GDPM.

A

Type of fluid to be used.
Percentage of fluid.
Time of beginning of final deice step.
Deicing complete.

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28
Q

When does the HOT begin? What does the HOT represent?

A

Final application of fluid commences. (GDPM DEFINITIONS)
A range of time in which the fluid provides acceptable protection for the varying precipitation intensities. (GDPM HOT guidelines)

29
Q

In a HOT table what do the longer and shorter times represent?

A

Heavier vs Lighter precipitation.

GDPM HOT guidelines

30
Q

Wat should a crew use to determine precipitation intensities in order to accurately establish a HOT?

A

Official weather observations, tables from the GDPM should only be used in the absence of intensities listed in the official observations.

GDPM Precipitation intensities and types.

31
Q

Can the HOT be used as the sole determinant that aircraft critical surfaces are free of frozen contaminants?

A

No, several pre-takeoff checks may be required to determine the condition of the aircraft prior to takeoff.

(GDPM HOT Guidelines)

32
Q

What are factors that influence the effectiveness of deicing/anti-icing fluid?

A

Change in precipitation type, intensity, and moisture content.
Change in ambient and aircraft skin temperature.
Position of aircraft relative to the exhaust or prop wash of other aircraft.
Change in wind direction or velocity.

33
Q

Can parking in the proximity of another aircraft’s jet wash blow the deice/anti-ice fluid off the wings rendering the HOT invalid or the fluid ineffective?

A

Yes.

GDPM HOT Guidelines

34
Q

List precipitation types that HOTs do not exist for.

A

Heavy snow.
Ice pellets.
Moderate and heavy freezing rain.
Hail.

35
Q

When is a pre-takeoff check conducted?

A

Within the holdover time and just prior to takeoff.

GDPM DEFINITIONS

36
Q

What is checked as part of the pre-takeoff check?

A

The representative surface from a vantage point in the aircraft that the PIC determines will give an accurate indication of the condition of the aircraft.

(GDPM DEFINITIONS)

37
Q

What should the crew do if they are unable to determine that the representative surface is free from contaminants?

A

The aircraft must be deiced again.

GDPM Pre-takeoff Procedure

38
Q

When is a pre-takeoff contamination check conducted?

A

After the HOT has been exceeded or the HOT is no longer valid due to changing weather conditions, or in heavy snow - to ensure the wings, control surface and other critical surfaces are free of all frozen contaminants.

(GDPM DEFINITIONS and HOT Exceeded)

39
Q

Can the pre-takeoff contamination check be performed if the deiced process was initiated at a location other than the wings, say the tail perhaps?

A

No.

GDPM HOT Exceeded

40
Q

Is there ever a case where the aircraft can depart with frozen contaminants on any of the critical surfaces?

A

No.

GDPM

41
Q

What does TALPA stand for?

A

Takeoff and Landing Performance Assessment.

FOM CH 7

42
Q

What is RCAM?

A

Runway Condition Assessment Matrix is the tool used to assess and report surface conditions when contaminants are present via field condition (FICON). The RCAM maps contamination type and depth to a Runway Condition Code (RwyCC).

(FOM CH 7)

43
Q

What does the RwyCC represent?

A

The Braking Action (BA) expected for a particular contaminant level.

(FOM CH 7)

44
Q

What are RwyCCs used for?

A

To determine landing distance.
Used for departures to identify the runway third with the most limiting contaminant.
Used to determine operating limitations such as crosswind limits with low runway friction.

(FOM CH 7)

45
Q

A RwyCC value of 0 represents what type of BA?

A

NIL, and results in immediate runway closure.

FOM CH 7

46
Q

How long can a FICON NOTAM be in effect?

A

24 hours, and may not reflect actual condition and breaking action.

(FOM CH 7)

47
Q

What should a pilot do when they believe a NOTAM does not accurately reflect current conditions?

A

Consult the dispatcher, airport, or ATC to ascertain current runway information.

(FOM CH 7)

48
Q

When powering-up the aircraft, what minimum voltage is
required? When would you need to perform the SOPM
charging procedure?

A

22.5 Volts, if voltage is between 21V-22V.

AOM1 3-05,50PM CH4.Saftey and Power up

49
Q

After the EICAS is powered, how long must we wait before APU start?

A

After verifying there are no fire protection fail
messages. (AOM1 3-05, SOPM CH4.Saftey and
Power up)
30 seconds after EICAS is energized. (SOPM
CH2.APU LIMITS)

50
Q

Can takeoff/landing occur with the “FUEL IMBALANCE” EICAS message?

A

Yes, as long as it’s less than 794 Ibs.

SOPM CH2.FUEL

51
Q

What’s the minimum fuel tank temperature?

A

-37*C

SOPM CH2.FUEL

52
Q

What is the starter cranking limit for start attempts 1 and 2?

A

90 Seconds

SOPM CH2 ENGINES-POWERPLANT

53
Q

Minimum time between starts 1 and 2?

A

10 Seconds

(SOPM CH2 ENGINES-
POWERPLANT)

54
Q

How do the starter cranking limits change in flight?

A

For in-flight starts, the maximum cumulative
starter run time per start attempt is 120 seconds
(motoring plus start time).

(SOPM CH2 ENGINES POWERPLANT)

55
Q

During an engine start, we must see N1 rotation by what N2?

A

POSITIVE N1 BY (50% N2)

SOPM CH2 ENGINES-POWERPLANT

56
Q

A taxiway is NOTAM’d closed to aircraft with wingspan over 100’. What is the wingspan of the ERJ-175?

A

Wingspan of 93ft 11 in

SOPM CH2 STRUCTURAL DIMENSIONS

57
Q

For takeoff, what is the maximum brake temperature?

A

MUST BE GREEN

SOPM CH2 HYDRAULIC PRESSURE AND TEMPERATURE

58
Q

What is maximum tailwind component allowed for takeoff?

A

15KTS

SOPM CH2 MAX ALTITUDE AND TEMPERATURE LIMITS

59
Q

Are static takeoffs recommended with a crosswind component greater than 25 kts. Why?

A

No, due to engine compressor stall possibility,

(SOPM CH2 MAXIMUM RECOMMENDED
CROSSWIND)

60
Q

After takeoff, when can the autopilot be engaged?

A

400 ft AFE

SOPM CH2 AUTO FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM

61
Q

What is the minimum runway width allowable?

A

100FT

SOPM CH2 STRUCTURAL LIMITATIONS

62
Q

ATC reports moderate and possibly greater turbulence ahead. What’s the turbulent air penetration speed? Is it a target or a maximum speed?

A

Vb 270/.76M (whichever is lower) target speed.

SOPM CH2 SPEED LIMITS

63
Q

An IDG fails in flight, and the QRH instruct you to start the Apu. What is the maximum start altitude?

A

30,000FT

(SOPM CH2 APU OPERATIONAL
LIMITS)

64
Q

Minimum OAT for APU start and operation?

A

-54°C

SOPM CH2 APU OPERATIONAL LIMITS

65
Q

Maximum APU operation altitude (after start)?

A

33,000 ft

SOPM CH2 APU OPERATIONAL LIMITS

66
Q

What is the maximum crosswind (crew limit) for a dry runway?

A

38 kt

SOPM CH2 MAXIMUM CROSSWIND

67
Q

What is the maximum crosswind (crew limit) for a wet runway?

A

31 kt

SOPM CH2 MAXIMUM CROSSWIND

68
Q

What is the maximum gear extension/retraction/operation speed?

A

VLOEXT/RET=250

SOPM CH2 SPEED LIMITS

69
Q

If flying a CAT Il approach, what flap setting is required?

A

Flaps 5 mandatory

SOPM CH2 FLIGHT CONTROLS

E-175; Operations (10 decks)

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