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Anesthesia > VTNE questions > Flashcards

VTNE questions Flashcards

1
Q

The drug xylazine is best described as an?

A

analgesic and sedative

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2
Q

Detomidine is approved for use in?

A

horses

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3
Q

butorphanol is best described as a/an?

A

analgesic

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4
Q

diazepam is considered to be a good choice in patients when which body system is compromised?

A

cardiovascular

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5
Q

in the US, xylazine is not approved for?

A

cattle

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6
Q

Guaifenesin is most often used in horses and cattle to provide?

A

muscle relaxation

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7
Q

the combination of xylazine and butorphanol is used to?

A

provide greater analgesia and muscle relaxation that either drug can alone

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8
Q

which drug has the most potent sedative?

diazepam, acepromazine, xylazine or detomidine

A

detomidine

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9
Q

the combination drug telazol contains?

A

zolazepam and tiletamine

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10
Q

epidural techniques are used in many species, but the primary disadvantage in animals is?

A

movement of the patient

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11
Q

Which inhalant anesthetic drug is most likely to cause arrhythmias in dogs?

A

halothane

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12
Q

which drug is most likely to cause hypotension in normal doses?
diazepam, butorphanol, acepromazine, or flunixin meglumine

A

acepromazine

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13
Q

which inhalant anesthetic drug is biotransformed to the greatest extent in the animal body?

A

nitrous oxide

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14
Q

all of the following cross the placental barrier in significant amounts except?
acepromazine, diazepam, isoflurane, or neuromuscular blocking agents

A

neuromuscular blocking agents

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15
Q

which drug is not classified as a barbiturate?

phenobarbital, thiopental, pentobarbital or propofol

A

propofol

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16
Q

glycopyrrolate is an anticholinergic with all of the following advantages except?
longer duration of action, crosses the placental barrier, less likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias or smaller dose volume

A

crosses the placental barrier

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17
Q

at normal doses, what effect does atropine have on the heart rate?

A

prevents a decrease

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18
Q

opioid drugs are used in anesthetic protocols primarily as?

A

analgesics

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19
Q

the advantages of xylazine over acepromazine is?

A

produces a short period of analgesia

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20
Q

routine use of atropine in horses should be avoided because it may?

A

cause colic

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21
Q

which drug should be avoided in the stallion because it may cause permanent prolapse of the penis?

A

acepromazine

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22
Q

which drug is a narcotic antagonist?

naloxone, atropine, pancuronium, or droperidol

A

naloxone

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23
Q

a 10% solution of thiopental sodium for anesthetic induction contains? mg/mL

A

100 mg/mL

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24
Q

depressant preanesthetic medication may have what effect on the anesthetic procedure?

A

prolonged recovery time

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25
Q

which drug is an antagonist of xylazine?

butorphanol, detomidine, yohimbine, or pentazocine

A

yohimbine

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26
Q

diazepam is used to produce?

A

muscle relaxation

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27
Q

epinephrine ?

increases the heart rate, decreases the HR, decreases the BP, should be used to reverse the effects of acepromazine

A

increases the HR

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28
Q

Use of nitrous oxide in anesthesia?
increases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required, decreases the amount of inhalant anesthetic required, slows the induction process, or has no effect on the time or amount if anesthetic required

A

decreases the amount of inhalant anesthetic required

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29
Q

a disadvantage of breathing 50% nitrous oxide is that it?

A

decreases the arterial PaO2

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30
Q

How many milligrams per milliliter dose a 2% lidocaine solution contain?

A

30

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31
Q

What volume of thiopental sodium should be given IV to 500 kg horse for induction of anesthesia? Dosage is 8mg/kg and you are using a 10% solution

A

40 mL

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32
Q

Apneustic breathing patterns are frequently seen in cats with use of?

A

Ketamine

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33
Q

Which of the following is not a good reason to use a preanesthetic?
Calms the patient, smoothes induction, or increases vagal activity

A

Increased Vaal activity

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34
Q

If 180 mL of a 5% solution of guaifenesin is administered to a 150 kg foal, how many mg/kg would be administered?

A

60

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35
Q

Caudal epidural administration of lidocaine in the dog is?

Useful to prevent movement, not to be used for c-sections or al excellent caudal analgesic

A

An excellent caudal analgesic

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36
Q

Mask inductions are?
Best used in dogs and cats with airway obstruction, best used in aggressive dogs and cats or more appropriately used in calm dogs and cats

A

More appropriately used in calm dogs and cats

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37
Q

Which of the following is not an effect associated with atropine administration?
Tachycardia, excess salivation, or mydriasis

A

Excessive salivation

38
Q

The dosage of acepromazine is 0.1 mg/kg, and the maximum dose is 4 mg. how many mg would you administer to a 60 kg dog?

A

4

39
Q

Halothane concentrations of 1% to 2% may produce any of the following except?

Hypotension, hypo ventilation, hypothermia or increased cardiac output

A

Increased cardiac output

40
Q

The adverse effects of anesthetic compounds are?

A

Dose dependent

41
Q

The most reliable sign of inadequate anesthetic depth is

A

Responsive movement

42
Q

Propofol is a/an

A

Non barbiturate, IV anesthetic with hypotension potential

43
Q

Acepromazine should be avoided in?

A

Patients with a history of seizures

44
Q

In dogs, normal doses of opioids generally produce all of the following except?
Decreased HR, analgesia, or excitement

A

Excitement

45
Q

When comparing inhalation anesthetics, you should use the MIC as a guideline in assessing ?

A

Potency of the agent

46
Q

Which drug is a dissociative anesthetic?

Thiopental, ketamine, xylazine, or acepromazine

A

Ketamine

47
Q

Which inhalant anesthetic is associated with the longest induction and recovery times?

A

Halothane

48
Q

In rabbits, IV anesthetics should be injected into what vein?

A

Auricular

49
Q

The oxygen flow rate necessary to prevent re breathing of exhaled gases with an Ayre’s T piece is?

A

Greater than 1.5 times the minute ventilation

50
Q

A half full tank of nitrous oxide gas has a pressure of?

A

750 psi

51
Q

When inflating lungs with the thoracic cavity open to the atmosphere, be sure that the pressure reached on the manometer is?

A

20 cm H2O

52
Q

Precision vaporizers, such as those used for isoflurane, work correctly when placed?

A

Out of the circle

53
Q

If the unidirectional valves are missing from an anesthetic machine is it okay to use the machine?

A

No

54
Q

What does the oxygen flush valve do?

A

Allows oxygen to flow into the breathing system without going through the vaporizer

55
Q

The advantages of a non breathing system, as compared with a circle breathing system, include all of the following except?
Reduce resistance to breathing, greater potential for hypothermia caused by high flows needed, no soda lime required

A

Greater potential for hypothermia caused by high flows needed

56
Q

The minimum fresh gas flow in a semi closed system is correctly determined by?

A

Patients metabolic rate

57
Q

All inhalant anesthetic machines should have?

A

An anesthetic waste gas system

58
Q

Vaporizers may be classified according to all of the following except?
Method of vaporization, location in the anesthetic circuit, or type of breathing circuit with which they can be used

A

Type of breathing circuit with which they can be used

59
Q

The volume of the re breathing bag on an anesthetic machine should be at least ?

A

3 times the patients tidal volume

60
Q

Pulse oximetry monitoring devices give an estimate of?

A

Percentage of hemoglobin saturation with oxygen in arterial blood

61
Q

If the re breathing bag is empty during anesthesia all of the following may be the cause except?
Oxygen flow too high, oxygen flow too low, or there may be a leak

A

Oxygen flow too high

62
Q

Nitrous oxide cylinders are painted what color?

A

Blue

63
Q

The appropriate volume of oxygen in an E cylinder is?

A

700 L

64
Q

The approximate volume of oxygen in an H cylinder is?

A

7000 L

65
Q

The pressure of gas that enters the flow meter of an inhalant anesthetic machine is?

A

50 to 60 psi

66
Q

Activated charcoal devices absorb all inhalation agents except?

A

Nitrous oxide

67
Q

When inflating a cuff on an ET tube, you should change to a larger diameter tube if the cuff inflation requires injection of more than what volume of air?

A

5 mL

68
Q

Ideally the ET tube should be inserted so that?

A

It’s tip is midway between the thoracic inlet and the larynx

69
Q

When ET tubing a horse, the animal should be placed in?

A

Lateral recumbency with its head, neck, and back extended

70
Q

What animal is most likely to experience laryngospams during tubation?

A

Cat

71
Q

The best method for determining the proper inflation of an ET tube cuff is?

A

Inject air while applying pressure from the reservoir bag until no air escapes around the tube

72
Q

The preferred method for treating a cat with laryngospams is to?

A

Place a drop of topical anesthetic in the laryngeal area, wait a few minuets, and then intubate

73
Q

In a Siamese cat, the ET tube should be removed?

A

As soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough

74
Q

In a pug, the ET tube should be removed?

A

Only after the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway

75
Q

What is the best technique to secure an ET tube to an animal?

A

It should be secured by gauze strips around the head in cats, and brachycephalic dogs and caudal to the upper canines in other breeds of dogs

76
Q

When monitoring the vital signs of an anesthetized patient, you must observe and record all of the following except?
MM color and CRT, HR and RR and depth, reflexes, or pulse quality and strength

A

Reflexes

77
Q

The responsibilities of the anesthetist during a surgical procedure include continuous monitoring of the patients vital signs and recording observations at approximately?

A

5 minuet intervals

78
Q

Adequate oxygen may be evaluated subjectively during anesthesia by the?

A

MM color and CRT

79
Q

Hypo ventilation that occurs in the anesthetized patient is characterized by?

A

Decreased oxygen levels and increased carbon dioxide levels

80
Q

Once extubated, all animals should be placed in?

A

Sternal recumbency with the neck extended

81
Q

Following discontinuation of the anesthetic gas, periodic bagging of the patient with pure oxygen is advisable, because it?

A

Helps reinflate collapsed alveoli

82
Q

It is cause for concern if an anesthetized cats HR falls below?

A

100 bpm

83
Q

A capillary refill time that is over 2 seconds indicates?

A

Decreased peripheral blood perfusion

84
Q

Use of an indwelling catheter in an artery to monitor blood pressure is termed?

A

Direct monitoring

85
Q

During the maintenance period of anesthesia in a cat or dog, respiratory rates lower than how many breaths/min may indicate excessive anesthetic depth that should be reported to the vet?

A

8

86
Q

Some anesthetists routinely bag the patient under inhalation anesthesia once every 5 mins to help prevent?

A

Atelectasis

87
Q

If the rectum of the patient is covered by a surgical drape or is otherwise inaccessible to the anesthetist, a rough estimate of body temp can be obtained by?

A

Touching the patients feet or ears

88
Q

Which species is most prone to malignant hyperthermia?

A

Pigs

89
Q

What measure would be of no use in monitoring patients given succinylcholine?

A

Jaw muscle tone

90
Q

Using ketamine as an anesthetic agent diminishes the value of what measure in assessing anesthetic depth?

A

Eye position

Anesthesia (9 decks)

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