Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Paramedic Class > Vocabulary 46-52 > Flashcards

Vocabulary 46-52 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NREMT® EMT flashcards NREMT® Paramedic flashcards
1
Q

Belt noise

A

A chirping or squealing sound, synchronous with engine speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Brake fade

A

A sensation that an emergency vehicle has lost its power brakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Brake pull

A

A sensation that when an operator depresses the brake pedal, the steering wheel is being pulled to the left or the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Disinfection

A

The killing of pathogenic agents by direct application of chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

DOT KKK 1822

A

Federal standards that regulate the design and manufacturing guidelines of emergency medical vehicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Drift

A

A finding that when the operator lets go of the steering wheel, a vehicle consistently wanders left or right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Medevac

A

Medical or trauma evacuation of a patient by helicopter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Peak load

A

A time or day or week in which the call volume is at its highest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Posting

A

The placement of an emergency vehicle at a specific geographic location to cover larger areas of territory and reduce response times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Steering play

A

A sensation of looseness or sloppiness in a vehicle’s steering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Steering pull

A

A drift that is persistent enough that an operator can feel a tug on the steering wheel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Sterilization

A

A process, such as heating, that removes microbial contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Type I emergency medical vehicle

A

Conventional, truck-cab chassis with a modular body that can be transferred to a new chassis as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Type II emergency medical vehicle

A

Standard van, forward-control integral cab-body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Type III emergency medical vehicle

A

Specialty van, forward-control integral cab-body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Wheel bounce

A

A vibration, synchronous with road speed, that can be felt in the steering wheel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Wheel wobble

A

A common finding at low speeds when a vehicle has a bent wheel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Closed incident

A

A contained incident in which patients are found in one focal location and the situation is not expected to produce more patients than are initially present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Demobilization

A

The process of directing responders to return to their facilities when work at a disaster or MCI has finished, at least for the particular responders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Disaster

A

A situation declared by local, county, state, or federal government for the purposes of providing additional resources and funds to those in need

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hospital surge capacity

A

The capabilities of a receiving hospital to handle a large number of unexpected emergency patients, such as those seen in a MCI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

IAP

A

Incident Action Plan

An oral or written plan stating general objectives reflecting the overall strategy for managing an incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ICS

A

Incident Command System

A system implemented to manage disasters and MCIs in which section chiefs, including operations, finance, logistics, and planning, report to the incident commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

JIC

A

Joint Information Center

An area designated by the incident commander, or a designee, in which public information officers from multiple agencies disseminate information about the incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Medical incident command

A

A group of operations in a unified command system, whose three designated sector positions are triage, treatment, and transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Multiple-casualty incident

A

As opposed to a mass-casualty incident, a situation with more than one patient but which will not overwhelm available resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Mutual aid response

A

An agreement between neighboring EMS systems to respond to mass-casualty incidents or disasters in each other’s region when local resources are insufficient to handle the response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Open incident

A

An ongoing or uncontained incident in which rescuers will have to search for patients and then triage or treat them; the situation may produce more patients (ex. school shootings, tornadoes, hazmat release, floods)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Primary triage

A

A type of patient sorting used to rapidly categorize patients; the focus is on speed in locating all patients and determining an initial priority as their condition warrants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Secondary triage

A

A type of patient sorting used in the treatment sector that involves retriage of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Single command system

A

A command system in which one person is in charge, generally used with small incidents that involve only one responding agency or one jurisdiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Span of control

A

In incident command, the subordinate positions under the commander’s direction to which the workload is distributed; the supervisor-to-worker ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

START

A

Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment

A patient sorting process that uses a limited assessment of the patient’s ability to walk, respiratory status, hemodynamic status, and neurologic status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Unified command system

A

A command system used in larger incidents in which there is a multiagency or multijurisdictional response to coordinate decision making and cooperation among the agencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Accountability system

A

A method of accounting for all personnel at an emergency incident and ensuring only those with specific assignments are permitted to work within the various zones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Belay

A

A technique used to control a rope as it is fed out to climbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Box crib

A

A pallet-like framework used to shore up a heavy load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cold-protective response

A

A phenomenon associated with cold-water immersion in which the body reflexively lowers its metabolic rate in an effort to preserve basic bodily functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Cold zone

A

A safe area for agencies involved in a rescue operation; the IC, command post, EMS providers, and other necessary support functions should be located in the cold zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Complex access

A

Complicated entry requiring special tools, advanced training, and the use of force, such as breaking windows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cribbing

A

A type of basic physical support, such as blocks or short lengths of wood, used to stabilize a vehicle during a rescue operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Hand tool

A

Any tool or piece of equipment operated by human power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

High-angle operation

A

A rope rescue operation in which the angle of the slope is greater than 45°; rescuers depend on life safety rope rather than working from a fixed support surface, such as the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Hot zone

A

The area that directly surrounds an incident site and is considered immediately dangerous to life and health; all personnel working in the hot zone must wear all appropriate protective clothing and equipment; entry requires approval by the IC or a designated sector officer; complete backup, rescue, and decontamination teams must be in place at the perimeter before operations begin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

IDLH

A

Immediately dangerous to life and health

An atmospheric concentration of any toxic, corrosive, or asphyxiant substance that poses an immediate threat to life or could cause irreversible or delayed adverse health effects; there are three general IDLH atmospheres: toxic, flammable, and oxygen-deficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Low-angle operation

A

A rope rescue operation carried out on a mildly sloping surface (less than 45°) or on level ground; the ground is the rescuer’s primary means of support, and the rope system is the secondary means of support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Operations level

A

The technical rescue training level geared toward working in the warm zone of an incident; training at this level allows responders to directly assist those conducting the rescue operation and to use certain rescue skills and procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Scrambling

A

A cross between hill climbing and rock climbing used to ascend rocky surfaces and ridges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Self-rescue position

A

A position used by a swift-water rescuer to avoid objects below the surface; the rescuer rolls into a face-up arched position, with the lower back higher than the feet (which are held together and face in the direction of travel) and the arms at the sides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Shim

A

A slim, low-profile, wedgelike object used to snug loose cribbing under a load or to fill a void

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Shoring

A

A hydraulic, pneumatic, or wood system to support a trench wall or reinforce building components such as walls, floors, or ceilings to prevent collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Simple access

A

Access easily achieved with the use of simple hand tools or application of force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

SWAT

A

Special Weapons And Tactics

A specialized law enforcement tactical unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Spoil pile

A

The pile of dirt unearthed from an excavation; may be unstable and prone to collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Step chock

A

A specialized cribbing assembly of wood or plastic blocks arranged in a step configuration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Technician

A

The level of training necessary for a rescuer directly involved in a rescue operation; indicates a high level of competency in technical or hazardous materials rescue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

TIM

A

Traffic Incident Management

The process of coordinating different partner agencies to detect, respond to, and clear traffic incidents as quickly as possible to reduce the impacts of incidents on safety and congestion, while protecting the safety of on-scene responders and the traveling public

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Warm zone

A

The area located between the hot and cold zones at an incident; decontamination stations are located in the warm zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Wedge

A

A tapered shaft of wood or other material used to snug loose cribbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Absorption

A

A type of decontamination that is done with large pads that the hazardous materials team uses to soak up liquid and remove it from the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Asphyxiant

A

Any gas that displaces oxygen from the atmosphere; can be deadly if exposure occurs in a confined space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

AHJ

A

Authority Having Jurisdiction

An organization, office, or person responsible for enforcing the requirements of a code or standard, or for approving equipment, materials, an installation, or a procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Bill of lading

A

A document carried by drivers of commercial vehicles that should provide specific information about what is carried on the vehicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

CAMEO

A

Computer-Aided Management of Emergency Operations

A tool to help predict downwind concentrations of hazardous materials based on the input of environmental factors into a computer model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Carboy

A

A glass, plastic, or steel nonbulk storage container, ranging in volume from 5 to 15 gallons

66
Q

Chemical asphyxiant

A

A substance that interferes with the use of oxygen at the cellular level

67
Q

CHEMTREC

A

Chemical Transportation Emergency Center

A resource available to emergency responders via telephone on a 24-hour basis

68
Q

Corrosives

A

A class of chemicals with either high or low pH levels; exposure can cause severe soft-tissue damage

69
Q

Dilution

A

A type of decontamination method that uses copious amounts of water to flush the contaminant from the skin or eyes

70
Q

Disposal

A

A type of decontamination in which as much clothing and equipment as possible is disposed of to reduce the magnitude of the problem

71
Q

Dose effect

A

The principle that the longer a hazardous material is in contact with the body or the greater the concentration, the greater the effect will most likely be

72
Q

DUMBBELS

A

A mnemonic that stands for the signs and symptoms that can be produced by exposure to organophosphate and carbamate pesticides or other nerve-stimulating agents

Diarrhea, Urination, Miosis/Muscle weakness, Bronchorrhea/Bronchospasm, Bradycardia, Emesis, Lacrimation, Salivation/Sweating/Seizures

73
Q

Flammable range

A

An expression of fuel-air mixture, defined by upper and lower limits, that reflects an amount of flammable vapor mixed with a given volume of air

74
Q

Flash point

A

The minimum temperature at which a liquid or solid releases sufficient vapor to form an ignitable mixture with air

75
Q

Hazardous material

A

Any substance that is toxic, poisonous, radioactive, flammable, or explosive and causes injury or death with exposure

76
Q

HAZWOPER

A

HAZardous Waste OPerations and Emergency Response

The federal OSHA regulation that governs hazardous materials waste site and response training

77
Q

Ignition temperature

A

The minimum temperature at which a fuel, when heated, will ignite in air and continue to burn; also called the autoignition temperature

78
Q

Label

A

A type of signage at least 3.9 inches on each side that is often required on all four sides of individual packages and boxes that are being transported

79
Q

LD50

A

A dose that would be lethal to 50% of the test population

80
Q

Lethal concentration (LC)

A

The concentration of a material in air that, on the basis of laboratory tests (inhalation route), is expected to kill a specified number of the group of test animals when administered over a specified period

81
Q

Lethal dose (LD)

A

A single dose that causes the death of a specified number of the group of test animals exposed by any route other than inhalation

82
Q

Level A ensemble

A

The highest level of protective suit worn by hazardous materials personnel; may also be referred to as fully encapsulating because the suit covers everything, including the breathing apparatus

83
Q

Level B ensemble

A

Personal protective equipment that is one step less protective than level A, but provides for a high level of respiratory protection

84
Q

Level C ensemble

A

A level of personal protective equipment that provides splash protection

85
Q

Level D ensemble

A

The level of protection that firefighter turnout gear provides

86
Q

Lower flammable limit (LFL)

A

The minimum amount of gaseous fuel that must be present in the air for the air-fuel mixture to be flammable or explosive

87
Q

Neutralization

A

A type of decontamination that uses one chemical to change the hazardous material into two less harmful substances; rarely used by hazardous materials teams

88
Q

Permissible exposure limit (PEL)

A

The maximum concentration of a chemical that a person may be exposed to under OSHA regulations

89
Q

Placard

A

A type of signage at least 10.8 inches on each side that is often required to be on all four sides of transport vehicles identifying the hazardous contents of the vehicle

90
Q

Primary contamination

A

An exposure that occurs with direct contact with the hazardous material

91
Q

Secondary contamination

A

Exposure to a hazardous material by contact with a contaminated person or object

92
Q

Solvent

A

A substance that is capable of dissolving other substances

93
Q

Specific gravity

A

The measure that indicates whether a hazardous material will sink or float in water

94
Q

Threshold limit value (TLV)

A

The concentration of a substance that is supposed to be safe for exposure no more than 8 hours per day and 40 hours per week

95
Q

Threshold limit value/ceiling (TLV/C)

A

The maximum concentration of hazardous material to which a worker should not be exposed, even for an instant

96
Q

Threshold limit value/short-term exposure limit (TLV-STEL)

A

The concentration of a substance that a worker can be exposed to for up to 15 minutes but no more than 4 times per day with at least 1 hour between each exposure

97
Q

Threshold limit value/skin

A

The concentration at which direct or airborne contact with a material could result in possible and significant exposure from absorption through the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes

98
Q

Upper flammable limit (UFL)

A

The maximum amount of gaseous fuel that can be present in the air if the air-fuel mixture is to be flammable or explosive

99
Q

Vapor density

A

The weight of an airborne concentration (vapor or gas) as compared with an equal volume of dry air

100
Q

Vapor pressure

A

The pressure associated with liquids held inside any type of closed container

101
Q

Waybill

A

A cargo document kept by the conductor of a train; also referred to as a consist

102
Q

Ammonium nitrate

A

A commonly used industrial-grade fertilizer that is not in itself dangerous to handle or transport, but when mixed with fuel and other components, forms an extremely explosive compound

103
Q

Anthrax

A

A deadly bacterium (Bacillus anthracis) that lies dormant in a spore, or protective shell; the germ is released from the spore when exposed to the optimal temperature and moisture; the route of entry is inhalation, cutaneous, or gastrointestinal

104
Q

Apocalyptic violence

A

A type of violence sought by some terrorists, such as violent religious groups and doomsday cults, in which they wish to bring about the end of the world

105
Q

Botulinum

A

A very potent neurotoxin produced by bacteria; when introduced into the body, this neurotoxin affects the nervous system’s ability to function and causes muscle paralysis

106
Q

Buboes

A

Enlarged lymph nodes (up to the size of tennis balls) that are characteristic of people infected with the bubonic plague

107
Q

Chlorine

A

The first chemical agent ever used in warfare; it has a distinct odor of bleach and creates a green haze when released as a gas; initially, it produces upper airway irritation and a choking sensation

108
Q

Contact hazard

A

A hazardous agent that gives off little or no vapors and typically enters the body through the skin; also called a skin hazard

109
Q

Cyanide

A

An agent that affects the body’s ability to use oxygen; it is a colorless gas that has an odor similar to almonds; the effects begin on the cellular level and are very rapidly seen at the organ system level

110
Q

Decay

A

A natural process in which a material that is unstable attempts to stabilize itself by changing its structure

111
Q

Disease vector

A

An infected animal (or human) that spreads a disease to another animal

112
Q

DuoDote

A

A nerve agent antidote kit that contains a single injection of both atropine (2 mg) and 2-PAM chloride (pralidoxime chloride, 600 mg)

113
Q

Elevated

A

A threat level in which a terrorist event is suspected, but there is no specific information about its timing or location

114
Q

G agents

A

Early nerve agents that were developed by German scientists in the period after WW1 and into WW2; there are three such agents: sarin, soman, and tabun

115
Q

Imminent

A

A threat level in which a terrorist event is known to be impending or will occur very soon

116
Q

IED

A

Improvised Explosive Device

An explosive device built from unrestricted and often common equipment

117
Q

Incubation

A

The period between the person’s exposure to the agent and the onset of symptoms

118
Q

Ionizing radiation

A

Energy that is emitted in the form of rays or particles

119
Q

Lewisite

A

A blistering agent that has a rapid onset of symptoms and produces immediate intense pain and discomfort on contact

120
Q

MARK 1

A

A nerve agent antidote kit containing two auto-injector medications, atropine and 2-PAM chloride (pralidoxime chloride)

121
Q

NTAS

A

National Terrorism Advisory System

The US system for informing citizens of a potential terrorist threat; replaced the color-coded Homeland Security Advisory System

122
Q

Nerve agents

A

A class of chemicals called organophosphates that function by blocking an essential enzyme in the nervous system, which causes the body’s organs to become overstimulated and burn out

123
Q

Neurotoxins

A

Biologic agents that are the most deadly substances known to humans; they include botulinum toxin and ricin

124
Q

Organophosphates

A

A class of chemical found in many insecticides used in agriculture and in the home; nerve agents fall into this class of chemicals

125
Q

Patient collection point

A

A location to which responders move patients to allow for safe assessment and treatment; also known as a casualty collection point

126
Q

Patient generator

A

The source that is causing people to become sick or injured

127
Q

Phosgene

A

A pulmonary agent that is a product of combustion, such as might be produced in a fire at a textile factory or house or at the site of metalwork or burning Freon; a very potent agent that has a delayed onset of symptoms, usually hours

128
Q

Phosgene oxime

A

A blistering agent that has a rapid onset of symptoms and produces immediate intense pain and discomfort on contact

129
Q

Pneumonic plague

A

A lung infection, also known as plague pneumonia, that is the result of inhalation of plague bacteria

130
Q

RDD

A

Radiologic Dispersal Device

Any container that is designed to disperse radioactive material (like a dirty bomb)

131
Q

Ricin

A

A neurotoxin derived from mash that is left from pressing oil from a castor bean; causes pulmonary edema and respiratory and circulatory failure, leading to death

132
Q

Sarin

A

A nerve agent that is one of the G agents; a highly volatile colorless and odorless liquid that turns from liquid to gas within seconds to minutes at room temperature

133
Q

Smallpox

A

A highly contagious disease that may be spread in an aerosolized form as an act of warfare or terrorism; it is most contagious when blisters begin to form

134
Q

Soman

A

A nerve agent that is one of the G agents; twice as persistent as sarin and five times as lethal; it has a fruity odor as a result of the type of alcohol used in the agent and is both a contact and an inhalation hazard

135
Q

SADM

A

Special atomic demolition munition

A small suitcase-sized nuclear weapon that was designed to destroy individual targets, such as important buildings, bridges, tunnels, or large ships

136
Q

Sulfur mustard

A

A vesicant that is generally considered very persistent; it is a yellow-brown oily substance that has the distinct smell of garlic or mustard and, when released, is quickly absorbed into the skin and/or mucous membranes and begins an irreversible process of damaging the cells

137
Q

Tabun

A

A nerve agent that is one of the G agents; 36 times more persistent than sarin and approximately half as lethal; it has a fruity smell and is unique because the components used to manufacture the agent are easy to acquire and the agent is easy to manufacture

138
Q

VX nerve agent

A

A nerve agent that is one of the G agents; over 100 times more lethal than sarin and extremely persistent; it is a clear, oily agent that has no odor and looks like baby oil

139
Q

Vapor hazard

A

An agent that enters the body through the respiratory tract

140
Q

Vesicant

A

A blister agent; the primary route of entry is through the skin

141
Q

VHFs

A

Viral Hemorrhagic Fevers

A group of diseases that include the Ebola, Rift Valley, and yellow fever viruses, among others; this group of viruses causes blood in the body to seep out from the tissues and blood vessels

142
Q

Weaponization

A

The creation of a weapon from a biologic agent generally found in nature and that causes disease; the agent is cultivated, synthesized, and/or mutated to maximize the target population’s exposure to the germ

143
Q

AAR

A

After-action report

The official internal report of the entire event, such as a disaster, which should contain the facts of the incident reflected in a chronologic, accurate manner

144
Q

All-hazards approach

A

The act of conducting comprehensive preplanning that will apply to any disaster

145
Q

Cold stress

A

A psychological condition that can develop in people who are exposed to cold weather for long periods of time, even if sheltered

146
Q

COOP

A

Continuity of operations plan

The detailed plan describing the functioning of the agency in situations that disrupt normal operations

147
Q

Directed area

A

An area away from the command post or emergency operations center, considered by engineering expertise to be a safe place to stage until directed otherwise

148
Q

Dust suffocation

A

A phenomenon that can occur during an earthquake, in which particles of dust and debris are loosened and released into the air, producing a toxic and hypoxic atmosphere

149
Q

EOC

A

Emergency operations center

A central command and control facility, found at all government levels, responsible for strategic overview; tactical decisions are left to incident commanders

150
Q

Forward surgical team

A

A team, usually staffed with physicians, nurses, and EMS providers, that performs minor surgical procedures and debridements in the field, taking some load from the hospital facility

151
Q

Lister bags

A

Heavy canvas bags that can be hung from trees containing water in amounts from 40 to 100 gallons

152
Q

Overtopping

A

A situation in which a reservoir overflows its borders

153
Q

Pyroclastic explosions

A

Blasts from flowing or standing lava that can have a wide dispersal circumference, spewing ash and magma

154
Q

Space junk

A

Debris from satellites and other man-made objects that reenter the earth’s atmosphere

155
Q

Tag lines

A

Rope or cord tied to a person who is entering a dangerous environment; used for quick retrieval, usually in conjunction with a harness

156
Q

Thermals

A

Differing temperatures and swirling patterns of moving air with changes in wind speed

157
Q

Water buffalo trailers

A

Portable trailers that contain 500 to 3,000 gallons of water

158
Q

Concealment

A

Protection from being seen

159
Q

Contact and cover

A

A technique that involves one paramedic making contact with the patient to provide care, while the second paramedic obtains patient information, gauges the level of tension, and warns his or her partner at the first sign of trouble

160
Q

Cover

A

Obstacles that are difficult or impossible for bullets to penetrate

Paramedic Class (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions