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Paramedic Class > Vocabulary 1-7 > Flashcards

Vocabulary 1-7 Flashcards

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1
Q

Alternative time sampling

A

Time parameters that are set during a research project

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2
Q

Blinding

A

The method of not giving the specifics of a project to the people participating in a research or study

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3
Q

Case study

A

A type of research in which a single case is investigated and documented over a period of time

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4
Q

Certification

A

A process in which a person, institution, or program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical care

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5
Q

Cohort research

A

A type of research that examines patterns of change, a sequence of events, or trends over time within a certain population of study subjects

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6
Q

CAPCE

A

Commission on Accreditation for Pre-Hospital Continuing Education

An organization that develops continuing education standards and is involved in setting accreditation standards for prehospital providers

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7
Q

CQI

A

Continuous Quality Improvement

A system of internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system

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8
Q

Convenience sampling

A

A type of research in which subjects are manually assigned to a specific person or crew, rather than being randomly assigned; the least preferred component of research

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9
Q

Cross-sectional design

A

A data collection method in which all data at one point in time is collected, essentially serving as a “snapshot” of events and information

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10
Q

Descriptive research

A

A research format in which an observation of an event is made, but without attempts to alter or change it

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11
Q

EMS

A

Emergency medical services

A health care system designed to bring immediate on-scene care to those in need along with transport to a definitive medical care facility

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12
Q

Ethical

A

A behavior expected by a person or group following a set of rules

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13
Q

Evidence-based practice

A

The use of practices that have been proven to be effective in improving patient outcomes

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14
Q

Health care professional

A

A person who follows specific professional attributes that are outlined in this profession

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15
Q

Inferential research

A

A research format that uses a hypothesis to prove one finding from another

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16
Q

IRB

A

Institutional Review Board

A group or institution that follows a set of requirements for review that were devised by the US Public Health Service

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17
Q

Licensure

A

The process whereby a state allows qualified people to perform a regulated act

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18
Q

Literature review

A

A form of research in which the existing literature is reviewed, and the researcher analyzes the collection of research to draw a conclusion

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19
Q

Longitudinal design

A

A data collection method in which information is collected at various set time intervals, and not just at one time

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20
Q

Medical direction

A

Direction given to an EMS system or provider by a physician

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21
Q

MICUs

A

Mobile Intensive Care Units

An early title given to an ambulance-style unit

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22
Q

Off-line medical control

A

Indirect; patient care orders in the form of protocols, policies, or standing orders that do not require direct contact with the medical control physician

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23
Q

Online medical control

A

Direct; medical direction given in real time to an EMS service or provider by radio or telephone

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24
Q

Parameters

A

Outlined measures that may be difficult to obtain in a research project

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25
Q

Peer review

A

The process used by medical magazines, journals, and other publications to ensure the quality and validity of an article before it is published, and which involves sending the article to subject matter experts for review of the content and research methods

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26
Q

Profession

A

A specialized set of knowledge, skills, and/or expertise

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27
Q

Prospective research

A

A type of research that gathers information as events occur in real time

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28
Q

Protocol

A

A treatment plan developed for a specific illness or injury

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29
Q

Qualitative

A

A type of descriptive statistic in research that does not use numeric information

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30
Q

Quality control

A

The responsibility of the medical director to ensure the appropriate medical care standards are met by EMS personnel on each call

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31
Q

Quantitative

A

A type of measurement in research that uses a mean, median, and mode

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32
Q

Reciprocity

A

The process of granting licensure or certification to a provider from another state or agency

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33
Q

Registration

A

Providing information to an entity that stores it in some form of record book; records of your education, state, or local licensure and recertification are held by a recognized board

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34
Q

Research agenda

A

The specific questions that a study aims to answer, and the precise methods in which the data will be gathered

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35
Q

Research consortium

A

A group of agencies working together to study a particular topic

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36
Q

Research domain

A

The area (clinical, basic science, systems, or education) that will be impacted by a study

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37
Q

Retrospective research

A

Research performed from current available information

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38
Q

Safety culture

A

In an EMS organization, a system of beliefs and practices that:
1) acknowledge that organizations engage in high-risk activities
2) determine the importance of consistent safe operations to counteract these activities
3) support a blame-free environment where errors can be reported without fear or punishment
4) maintain organizational commitment to address reported errors and safety concerns

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39
Q

Sampling errors

A

Expected errors that occur in the sampling phase of research

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40
Q

Standard deviation

A

A measure of the range of scores in a set of data relative to the mean score

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41
Q

Standing order

A

A type of protocol that is a written document signed by the EMS system’s medical director that outlines specific directions, permissions, and sometimes prohibitions regarding patient care that is rendered prior to contacting medical control

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42
Q

Systematic sampling

A

A computer-generated list of subjects or groups for research

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43
Q

Trauma systems

A

The collaboration of prehospital and in-hospital medicine that focuses on optimizing the use of resources and assets of each with a primary goal of reducing the mortality and morbidity of trauma patients

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44
Q

Unblinded study

A

A type of study in which the subjects are advised of all aspects of the study

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45
Q

Epidemiologist

A

Public health professional who investigates patterns and causes of disease and injury in a given population, and seeks to reduce the risk, occurrence, and negative impacts of these threats through research, public education, and legislative change

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46
Q

Epidemiology

A

The study of causes, patterns, prevalence, and control of disease in groups of people

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47
Q

Evaluation

A

Collection of the methods, skills, and activities necessary to determine whether a service or program is needed, likely to be used, conducted as planned, and actually helps people

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48
Q

Haddon matrix

A

A framework developed by William Haddon Jr., MD, as a method to generate ideas about injury prevention that address the host, agent, and environment and their impact in the pre-event, event, and post-event phases of the injury process

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49
Q

Intentional injuries

A

Injuries that are purposefully inflicted by a person on himself or herself or on another person

Ex. Suicide, attempted suicide, homicide, rape, assault, domestic abuse, child abuse

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50
Q

Interventions

A

In the context of prevention, specific measures or activities designed to meet a program objective

Education, Enforcement, Engineering/Environment, Economic incentives

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51
Q

Morbidity

A

Number of non-fatally injured or disabled people; usually expressed as a rate

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52
Q

Mortality

A

Deaths caused by injury and disease; usually expressed as a rate

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53
Q

Outcome (impact) objectives

A

State the intended effect of the program on participants or on the community in such terms as the participants’ increased knowledge, changed behaviors or attitudes, or decreased injury rates

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54
Q

Passive interventions

A

Something that offers automatic protection from injury or illness, often without requiring any conscious change of behavior by the person

Ex. Child-resistant bottles, airbags

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55
Q

Primary prevention

A

Keeping an injury or illness from occurring

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56
Q

Process objectives

A

State how a program will be implemented, describing the service to be provided, the nature of the service, and to whom it will be directed

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57
Q

Public health

A

An industry whose mission is to prevent disease and promote good health within groups of people

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58
Q

Risk

A

A potentially hazardous situation that puts people in a position in which they could be harmed

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59
Q

Risk factors

A

Characteristics of people, behaviors, or environments that increase the chances of disease or injury

Ex. Alcohol use, poverty, smoking, gender

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60
Q

Secondary prevention

A

Reducing the effects of an injury or illness that has already happened

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61
Q

Surveillance

A

The ongoing systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of injury data essential to the planning, implementation, and evaluation of public health practice

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62
Q

Syndromic surveillance

A

Monitoring and comparing the current number and nature of medical cases against the expected volume of these cases at a given time and place in the community

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63
Q

Unintentional injuries

A

Injuries that occur without intent to harm; commonly called accidents

Ex. MVC, poisonings, drownings, falls, burns

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64
Q

YPLL

A

Years of Potential Life Lost

A way of measuring and comparing the overall impact of deaths resulting from different causes; calculated based on a fixed age minus the age at death

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65
Q

Ethnocentrism

A

Viewing other cultures based solely upon the standards and values of one’s own culture; a belief in the inherent superiority of one’s own cultural or ethnic group

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66
Q

Culture

A

The system of beliefs, attitudes, and behaviors that are learned and shared by members of a group

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67
Q

Cultural competence

A

An understanding of the predominant cultures that exist in the geographic area in which the paramedic provides patient care

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68
Q

Acute stress reaction

A

Reaction to stress that occurs during a stressful situation

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69
Q

Airborne transmission

A

The spread of an organism in aerosol form, such as droplets or dust

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70
Q

Blind panic

A

A fear reaction in which a person’s judgment seems to disappear entirely; it is particularly dangerous because it may cause mass panic among others

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71
Q

Bloodborne pathogens

A

Pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans

Ex. Hepatitis B virus, HIV

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72
Q

Burnout

A

The exhaustion of physical or emotional strength

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73
Q

Communicable disease

A

Any disease that can be spread from person to person or from animal to person

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74
Q

Conversion hysteria

A

A reaction in which a person subconsciously transforms his or her anxiety into a bodily dysfunction; the person may be unable to see or hear or may become partially paralyzed

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75
Q

Critical incident

A

An event that overwhelms the ability to cope with the experience, either at the scene or later

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76
Q

CISM

A

Critical Incident Stress Management

A process which utilizes trained counselors who confront responses to critical incidents and help to defuse them, directing emergency services personnel toward physical and emotional equilibrium

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77
Q

Cumulative stress reaction

A

Prolonged or excessive stress

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78
Q

Defense mechanisms

A

Psychological ways to relieve stress; they are usually automatic or subconscious

Ex. Denial, regression, projection, displacement

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79
Q

Delayed stress reaction

A

Reaction to stress that occurs after a stressful situation

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80
Q

Denial

A

An early response to a serious medical emergency, in which the severity of the emergency is diminished or minimized; the first coping mechanism for people who believe they are going to die

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81
Q

Direct contact

A

Exposure to or transmission of a communicable disease from one person to another by physical contact

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82
Q

Displacement

A

A defense mechanism characterized by the redirection of an emotion from one person to another

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83
Q

EAP

A

Employee Assistance Program

A counseling program to help with situations that may affect the health and well-being of emergency medical services professionals

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84
Q

Fight-or-flight response

A

A physiologic response to a profound stressor that helps a person deal with the situation at hand; features increased sympathetic tone and results in dilation of the pupils, increased heart rate, dilation of the bronchi, mobilization of glucose, shunting of blood away from the GI tract and cerebrum, and increased blood flow to the skeletal muscles

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85
Q

Indirect contact

A

Exposure or transmission of disease from one person to another by contact with a contaminated, inanimate object

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86
Q

Infection

A

The invasion of a host or host tissues by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites, with or without signs or symptoms of disease

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87
Q

Infection control

A

Procedures to reduce transmission of infection among patients and health care personnel

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88
Q

Infectious disease

A

A disease that is caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body, or one that is capable of being transmitted with or without direct contact

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89
Q

PTSD

A

Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder

A delayed stress reaction to a previous incident, often the result of one or more unresolved issues concerning the incident

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90
Q

Projection

A

A defense mechanism characterized by blaming unacceptable feelings, motives, or desires on others

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91
Q

Regression

A

A defense mechanism characterized by a return to more childlike behavior while under stress

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92
Q

Standard precautions

A

Protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the CDC for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, or other potential exposure risks of communicable disease

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93
Q

Stress

A

A reaction of the body to any agent or situation that requires the person to adapt

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94
Q

Stressor

A

Any agent or situation that causes stress, whether good or bad

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95
Q

Transmission

A

The way in which an infectious agent is spread: contact (direct or indirect), airborne, foodborne, vector-borne

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96
Q

Abandonment

A

Termination of medical care for the patient without giving the patient sufficient opportunity to find another suitable health care professional to take over his or her medical treatment

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97
Q

Advance directive

A

A written document or oral statement that expresses the wants, needs, and desires of a patient in reference to future medical care

Ex. Living wills, DNR orders, organ donation orders

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98
Q

Assault

A

To create in another person fear of immediate bodily harm or invasion of bodily security, including loss of freedom

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99
Q

Battery

A

The unlawful physical acting upon a threat; the use of force against another, resulting in harmful, offensive, or sexual contact

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100
Q

Borrowed servant doctrine

A

A principle which absolves an institution of liability when one of its members acts beyond his or her scope of certification or training by following someone else’s orders

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101
Q

Civil lawsuit

A

An action instituted by a person or entity against another person or entity

102
Q

Common law

A

A decision that has been made by a judge through a court case based on his or her interpretation of the statutes and constitutions; can be overturned either by another court with a higher authority or the issuing court at a later time; case law

103
Q

Consent

A

Agreement by the patient to accept a medical intervention

104
Q

Contributory negligence

A

Act committed by plaintiff that contributes to adverse outcomes

105
Q

Criminal prosecution

A

An action instituted by the government against a person for violation of criminal law

106
Q

Damages

A

Compensation for injury awarded by a court

107
Q

Decision-making capacity

A

The patient’s ability to understand and process the information given to him or her and the proposed treatment plan

108
Q

Defamation

A

Intentionally making a false statement, through written or verbal communication, which injures a person’s good name or reputation

109
Q

Defendant

A

In a civil lawsuit, the person against whom a legal action is brought

110
Q

Do not resuscitate (DNR) order

A

A type of advance directive that describes which life-sustaining procedures should be performed in the event of a sudden deterioration in a patient’s medical condition

111
Q

Due process

A

A right to a fair procedure for legal action against a person or agency; has two components: Notice and Opportunity to be Heard

112
Q

Duty

A

Legal obligation of public and certain other ambulance services to respond to a call for help in their jurisdiction

113
Q

Emancipated minor

A

A person who is under the legal age (generally 18) in a given state, but is legally considered an adult because of other circumstances

114
Q

EMTALA

A

Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act

A federal law enacted in 1986 to combat the practice of patient dumping (hospitals refusing to admit seriously ill patients or women in labor who could not pay, forcing EMS providers to dump the patients at another hospital); issues are regulated by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, and the law carries severe monetary penalties- including loss of Medicare funding- for failing to comply

115
Q

Ethics

A

A set of values in society that differentiates right from wrong

116
Q

Expressed consent

A

A type of informed consent that occurs when the patient does something, either through words (verbal or written) or by taking some sort of action, that demonstrates permission to provide emergency medical care

117
Q

False imprisonment

A

Intentionally or unjustifiably detaining a person against his or her will

Ex. Transporting a patient without his or her consent, or using restraints in a wrongful manner

118
Q

Good Samaritan law

A

A statute providing limited immunity from liability to people responding voluntarily and in good faith to the aid of an injured person outside the hospital

119
Q

Gross negligence

A

Negligence that is willful, wanton, intentional, or reckless; a serious departure from the accepted standards

120
Q

Health care power of attorney

A

A legal document that allows another person to make health care decisions for the patient, including withdrawal or withholding of care, when the patient is incapacitated

121
Q

HIPAA

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

The law enacted in 1996 that provides for criminal sanctions as well as for civil penalties for releasing a patient’s protected health information in a way not authorized by the patient

122
Q

Hostile environment

A

Situation in which an employer or an employer’s agent either creates or allows to continue an offensive practice related to sex that makes it uncomfortable or impossible for an employee to continue working

123
Q

Immunity

A

Legal protection from penalties that could normally be incurred under the law

124
Q

Implied consent

A

Assumption on behalf of a person unable to give consent that he or she would have done so

125
Q

In loco parentis

A

Phrase meaning “in the place of the parent” that is used to describe situations in which a designated authority figure makes medical treatment and transport decisions for a minor child when a parent or guardian is unavailable

126
Q

Informed consent

A

A patient’s voluntary agreement to be treated after being told about the nature of the disease, the risks and benefits of the proposed treatment, alternative treatments, or the choice of no treatment at all

127
Q

Involuntary consent

A

An oxymoron, because consent is never involuntary; often used to describe a figure of authority dictating medical care be given to someone in custody, incapacitated, or a minor

128
Q

Legal obligation

A

A duty that is enforceable in a court of law

129
Q

Liability

A

A finding in civil cases that the majority of the evidence shows the defendant was responsible for the plaintiff’s injuries

130
Q

Libel

A

Making a false statement in written form that injures a person’s good name

131
Q

Living will

A

A type of advance directive, generally requiring a precondition for withholding resuscitation when the patient is incapacitated

132
Q

Malfeasance

A

Unauthorized act committed outside the scope of medical practice defined by law

133
Q

Medical Practice Act

A

An act that usually defines the minimum qualifications of those who may perform various health services, defines the skills that each type of practitioner is legally permitted to use, and establishes a means of licensure or certification for different categories of health care professionals

134
Q

Misfeasance

A

Appropriate act performed in an improper manner

Ex. Medication administered at the wrong dose

135
Q

Morality

A

Pertaining to conscience, conduct, and character

136
Q

Negligence

A

Professional action or inaction on the part of the health care practitioner that does not meet the standard of ordinary care expected of similarly trained and prudent health care practitioners and that results in injury to the patient

137
Q

Negligence per se

A

Inexcusable violation of a statue

Ex. Practicing paramedicine without a valid license or certification

138
Q

Nonfeasance

A

Failing to perform a required or expected act

139
Q

Ordinary negligence

A

Negligence that is a failure to act, or a simple mistake that causes harm to a patient

140
Q

Palliative care

A

A type of medical care intended to provide comfort and relief from pain

141
Q

Patient autonomy

A

The right to direct one’s own medical care, and to decide how end-of-life medical care should be provided

142
Q

Plaintiff

A

In a civil lawsuit, the person who brings a legal action against another person

143
Q

Proximate cause

A

The specific reason that an injury occurred; one of the items that must be proven in order for a paramedic to be held liable for negligence

144
Q

Punitive damages

A

Compensation, usually monetary, awarded to a plaintiff for intentional or reckless acts committed by the defendant

145
Q

Qualified immunity

A

Protection in which the paramedic is only held liable when the plaintiff can show that the paramedic violated clearly established law of which he or she should have known

146
Q

Quid pro quo

A

Circumstance in which a person in authority attempts to exchange some work-related benefit, such as a raise or promotion, for an inappropriate employee action (like sexual favors); literal translation from Latin is “this for that”

147
Q

Res ipsa loquitur

A

Theory of negligence that assumes an injury can only occur when a negligent act occurs

148
Q

Scope of practice

A

Describes what a state permits a paramedic practicing under a license or certification to do

149
Q

Slander

A

Making a false oral statement that injures a good person’s name

150
Q

Standard of care

A

Describes what a reasonable paramedic with training would do in the same or a similar situation

151
Q

Statutes of limitations

A

Laws that limit the time period within which a lawsuit may be filed

152
Q

Surrogate decision maker

A

A person designated by a patient to make health care decisions as the patient would want when the person becomes incapable of making decisions

153
Q

Tort

A

A wrongful act that gives rise to a civil lawsuit

154
Q

ACN

A

Automatic Crash Notification

On-board computer systems in motor vehicles that automatically send telemetry data to a monitoring service in the event of a crash, which then relays the data to emergency responders; also called advanced automatic crash notification

155
Q

Base station

A

A radio at a fixed location (such as a hospital or dispatch center) consisting of a transmitter, receiver, and antenna

156
Q

Biotelemetry

A

Transmission of physiologic data, such as an electrocardiogram, from the patient to a distant point of reception; commonly referred to in emergency medical services as telemetry

157
Q

Cell phones

A

Wireless telephones that communicate via radio waves with the telephone system through an interconnected network of repeater stations called cells

158
Q

Clear text

A

Using regular language (plain English) and accepted terms to enhance clarity of communication, rather than using ten-codes or other code systems

159
Q

Closed-ended question

A

A question that is specific and focused, requiring either a yes or no answer, or an answer chosen from specific options

160
Q

CAD

A

Computer Assisted Dispatch

Linked dispatch center computer consoles and vehicle-mounted mobile data terminals

161
Q

CRM

A

Crew Resource Management

An operational practice designed to enhance communication and teamwork, and to thereby reduce preventable errors

162
Q

Digital radio

A

The transmission of information via radio waves using native digital (computer) data or analog (voice) signals that have been converted to a digital signal and compressed

163
Q

Dispatch

A

To send to a specific destination or to send on a task

164
Q

Duplex

A

Radio system using paired frequencies to permit the use of remote repeaters or simultaneous transmission and reception

165
Q

EMD

A

Emergency Medical Dispatch

A program specifically designed to meet the unique needs of emergency medical services response and of callers reporting a medical emergency, including first aid instructions given by specifically trained dispatchers to callers over the telephone while an ambulance is en route to the call

166
Q

Encoded radio signals

A

An embedded signal that permits controlled access to the radio transmission

167
Q

Enhanced 9-1-1 system

A

An emergency communications system that collects information about 9-1-1 calls from the telephone network, such as the phone number and location of the caller, and displays this information on the dispatcher’s computer terminal

168
Q

FCC

A

Federal Communications Commission

The independent government agency that regulates interstate and international communications by radio, television, wire, satellite, and cable in all 50 states, the District of Columbia, and US territories

169
Q

Frequency

A

The number of cycles (oscillations) per second of a radio signal

170
Q

GIS

A

Geographic Information System

Technology that uses Global Positioning System and other data to map the locations of objects and events

171
Q

Hertz (Hz)

A

Unit of measure of a frequency equal to 1 cycle per second; 1 million Hz equals one megahertz and 1000 megahertz equals 1 gigahertz

172
Q

Interoperability

A

Public safety communications systems which are compatible across all local, tribal, state, and federal agencies

173
Q

Landline

A

Communications system linked by wires, usually in reference to a conventional telephone system

174
Q

MPDS

A

Medical Priority Dispatch System

A dispatch system using a specific format to indicate the nature of the emergency and its priority

175
Q

Mutual aid

A

Assistance to other nearby agencies when local resources are overwhelmed

176
Q

Multiplex

A

Simultaneous transmission of multiple data streams, most often voice and electrocardiogram signals

177
Q

Narrow band

A

Reassignment of frequencies by the Federal Communications Commission to a 12.5 megahertz spacing, now required for all emergency medical services and public safety radio systems

178
Q

Noise

A

Interference in a radio signal

179
Q

Open-ended question

A

A question that does not have a yes or no answer, and that does not give the patient specific options from which to choose

180
Q

PDDs

A

Pervasive Developmental Disorders

A group of disorders that cause delays in many areas of childhood development, such as the development of skills to communicate and interact socially, and may include repetitive body movements and difficulty with changes in routine; includes autism and Asperger syndrome, among others

181
Q

PSAP

A

Public Safety Answering Point

The location to which 9-1-1 calls are routed, which may or may not serve as the dispatch center

182
Q

Radio dead spots

A

Areas where mobile or portable radios are unable to communicate with a repeater

183
Q

Remote terminal

A

A terminal that receives transmissions of telemetry and voice from the field and transmits messages back, usually through the base station

184
Q

Repeater

A

Remote radio transceiver that receives radio signals and rebroadcasts them at a higher power, extending the range of a radio communications system

185
Q

Simplex

A

Radio communication using a single frequency

186
Q

SBAR

A

Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation

A structured patient report format designed to convey important information in a concise manner

187
Q

Squelch

A

Filtering system to block background noise when a radio is on but not receiving a signal

188
Q

Telemedicine

A

Computer-based system permitting real-time two-way audio, video, and data communication between the paramedic and medical control physician

189
Q

Ten-code

A

A radio code system using the number 10 plus another number; no longer used in many emergency medical services systems

190
Q

Therapeutic communication

A

Communication with the patient using specific strategies to encourage the patient to express ideas and feelings, and to convey respect and acceptance

191
Q

Transceiver

A

A radio containing both a transmitter and a receiver; a two-way radio

192
Q

Trunked radio system

A

Computerized sharing of radio frequencies by multiple units, agencies, or systems

193
Q

Ultra high frequency (UHF) band

A

The portion of radio frequency spectrum between 300 and 3,000 megahertz

194
Q

Universal timeout

A

A planned pause before the beginning of a procedure that improves communication among all personal involved and reduces preventable errors

195
Q

Very high frequency (VHF) band

A

The portion of the radio frequency spectrum between 30 and 300 megahertz

196
Q

CHARTE method

A

A narrative writing method that allows the narrative to be broken down into logical sections similar to the steps of the patient assessment; chief complaint, history, assessment, treatment, transport, and exceptions

197
Q

Medical necessity

A

A standard used by Medicare to determine whether a patient’s condition requires ambulance transport in a particular situation

198
Q

Minimum data set

A

The mandatory clinical assessment standard information that must be documented on every emergency call as set by Medicare and Medicaid, and per the NHTSA for the purpose of the national data system

199
Q

PCR

A

Patient Care Report (or Prehospital Care Report)

A legal document used to record all patient care activities during an incident; a handwritten or electronic report that describes the nature of the patient’s injuries or illness at the scene and the treatment provided

200
Q

Pertinent negatives

A

Findings that warrant no medical care or intervention, but which show evidence of the thoroughness of the patient exam and history

201
Q

SOAP method

A

A narrative writing method in which information is organized into four categories: subjective information, objective information, assessment, and plan (for treatment)

202
Q

Abduction

A

Movement of a limb away from the midline

203
Q

Adduction

A

Movement of a limb toward the midline

204
Q

Anatomic position

A

The position of reference, in which the patient stands facing you, arms at the side, with the palms of the hands facing forward

205
Q

Anterior

A

The front surface of the body; the side facing you in an atomic position

206
Q

Anteroposterior axis

A

The axis that runs perpendicular to the coronal plane

207
Q

Apex

A

The pointed extremity of a conical structure

208
Q

Bilateral

A

In anatomy, a body part or condition that appears on both sides of the midline

209
Q

Combining form

A

A word root followed by a vowel

210
Q

Compound word

A

A word containing more than one word root

211
Q

Contralateral

A

On the opposite side of the body

212
Q

Coronal plane

A

An imaginary plane in which the body is cut into front and back portions

213
Q

Cross section

A

The product of slicing an object cross-wise, perpendicular to its long axis

214
Q

Deep

A

Farther inside the body and away from the skin

215
Q

Distal

A

Farther from the trunk and nearer to the free end of the extremity

216
Q

Dorsal

A

The posterior surface of the body, including the back of the hand

217
Q

Eponym

A

The name of a disease, device, procedure, or drug that is based on the person who invented, discovered, or first described it

218
Q

Extension

A

The straightening of a joint

219
Q

External rotation

A

Rotating an extremity at its joint away from the midline

220
Q

Flexion

A

The bending of a joint

221
Q

Fowler position

A

A sitting position, with the head elevated at a 90° angle (sitting straight upright)

222
Q

Homonyms

A

Words that sound alike but are spelled differently and have different meanings

223
Q

Horizontal axis

A

The axis that runs perpendicular to the sagittal plane; also called the mediolateral axis

224
Q

Hyperextension

A

Maximum extension or extension beyond the normal range of motion

225
Q

Hyperflexion

A

Maximum flexion or flexion beyond the normal range of motion

226
Q

Inferior

A

Below or closer to the feet

227
Q

Internal rotation

A

Rotating the anterior surface of an extremity toward the midline

228
Q

Ipsilateral

A

On the same side of the body

229
Q

Lateral

A

In anatomy, parts of the body that lie farther from the midline

230
Q

Longitudinal axis

A

The axis that runs perpendicular to the transverse plane

231
Q

Longitudinal section

A

The view of an object cut along its long axis

232
Q

Medial

A

Closer to the midline

233
Q

Midsagittal plane (midline)

A

An imaginary vertical line drawn from the middle of the forehead through the nose and the umbilicus to the floor

234
Q

Palmar

A

The forward-facing part of the hand in the anatomic position

235
Q

Plantar

A

The sole or bottom surface of the foot

236
Q

Posterior

A

In anatomy, the back surface of the body; the side away from you in the standard anatomic position

237
Q

Pronation

A

Turning the palms downward (toward the ground)

238
Q

Prone

A

Lying flat, face down

239
Q

Proximal

A

Closer to the trunk

240
Q

Quadrants

A

The four sections of the abdominal cavity shown by two imaginary lines intersecting at the umbilicus

241
Q

Range of motion

A

The full distance that a joint can be moved

242
Q

Sagittal (lateral) plane

A

A plane of the body that passes vertically from front to back, dividing the body into left and right portions

243
Q

Superficial

A

Closer to or on the surface of the skin

244
Q

Superior

A

Above or closer to the head

245
Q

Supination

A

Turning the palms upward (toward the sky)

246
Q

Supine

A

Lying face up

247
Q

Topographic anatomy

A

Superficial landmarks of the body that serve as guides to the structures that lie beneath them

248
Q

Transverse (axial) plane

A

An imaginary plane passing horizontally through the body at the waist, dividing it into top and bottom halves

249
Q

Unilateral

A

Occurring or appearing on only one side of the body

250
Q

Ventral

A

The anterior surface of the body

Paramedic Class (12 decks)

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