Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology > Virulogy > Flashcards

Virulogy Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
0
Q

Infectious particles composed entirely of protein which cause transmissible spongiform encephalopathies

A

Prions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Group of Naked viruses

A

Calicivirus, Picornavirus, Reovirus, Parvovirus, Adenovirus, Papillomavirus, Polyomavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

All viruses are haploid except?

A

Retrovirus - has two copies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Viruses with segmented genome are prone to recombination

A

BOAR

Bunyavirus, Orthomyxoviruses, Arenaviruses, Reovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Negative - strand RNA viruses

A

APROBF

Arenavirus, Paramyxovirus, Rhabdovirus, Orthomyxovirus, Bunyavirus, Filovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Viral growth phase: single virus particle infects a cell

A

Phase 0 - Entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Viral growth phase: marked derangement of cell function leading to lysis and cell death. Remarkable amplification in number of viral particles

A

Phase 5 - Cytopathic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Viral growth phase: amount of detectable viruses reaches a plateau

A

Phase 4 - Latent Period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Viral growth phase: virus decreases in number but continues to function

A

Phase 1 - Decline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Viral growth phase: no virus is detectable inside the cell

A

Phase 2 - Eclipse period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Viral growth phase: dramatic increase in amount of detectable viruses

A

Phase 3 - Rise period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The only live-attenuated vaccine that maybe given to HIV positivie patients

A

MMR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Live-attenuated Vaccines

A

MMR. SABIN’s YELLOW CHICKEN

MMR, Sabin’s polio, yellow fever, chicken pox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Killed Vaccines

A

RISH

Rabies, Influenza, Salk’s Polio, HAV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Strains included in HPV vaccine?

A

Types 6, 11, 16 and 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

DNA viruses

A

HHAPPPPy

Hepadna, Herpes, Adeno, Pox, Parvo, Polyoma, Papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

All DNA viruses have double-stranded DNA except

A

Parvovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

All DNA viruses have linear DNA except

A

Papilloma, Polyoma and Hepadna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

All DNA viruses are icosahedral except?

A

Poxvirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

All DNA viruses replicated in the nucleus except?

A

Poxvirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Single stranded DNA virus that causes the Fifth Disease

A

Parvovirus B19 causes Erythema infectiosum: slapped cheeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Condition with transient but severe aplastic anemia in children with sickle cell anemia, thalassemia or spherocytosis due to Parvovirus

A

Aplastic crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Parvovirus infection in 2nd trimester results to?

A

Hydrops fetalis

1st tri : fetal death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Only virus with fiber

A

Adenovirus - Penton fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Histopathologic findings in adenovirus

A

Cowdry body type B intranuclear inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Genes in HPV that encode for proteins that inactivate tumor suppressor genes

A

Genes E6 and E7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Formation of cytoplasmic vacoule in an infected squamous cells by HPV

A

Koilocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Type of HPV that causes skin and plantar warts - Verruca vulgaris

A

HPV 1 to 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

HPV type that causes genital warts (condylomata acuminata) and respiratory tract papilloma. Most common viral STD

A

HPV 6 to 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

HPV type that causes carcinoma of cervix, penis and anus

A

HPV 16, 18, 31 and 33

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Treatment for genital warts

A

Podophyllin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) in patients with AIDS. Only causes disease in immunocompromised patients.

A

JC Polyoma Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Herperviruses

A

CHEVrolet

CMV, HSV, EMV, VZV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Site of latency for HSV-1

A

Trigeminal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Site of latency for HSV -2

A

Lumbosacral ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Virus that causes herpes labialis, herpetic whitlow and herpes gladiaturom

A

HSV - 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Causes genital herpes, neonatal herpes and aseptic meningitis

A

HSV - 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Treatment for HSV

A

Acyclovir - shortens the duration, reduces extent of shedding but no effect on latent state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Most common cause of congenital abnormalities. Most common when mother infected in 1st trimester

A

Congenital CMV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Treatment for CMV

A

Ganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Histopathologic findings in CMV

A

Giant cells with Owl’s eye nuclear inclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Reactivation of Varicella

A

Zoster - in dorsal root ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Associated with a vesicular centrifugal rash “dewdrop on a rose petal” appearance

A

Varicella - that may cause Reye syndrome as complication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

HIstopathologic findings for VZV

A

Multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Involvement of geniculate ganglion causes facial nerve paralysis due to VZV

A

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Causes Kissing Disease: fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly.

A

EBV - causes Infectious Mononucleosis, splenic rupture is a rare complication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Lymphoma associated with EBV

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma in African people

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma in Chinese people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

AIDS defining illness caused by Human Herpesvirus-8; a malignancy of vascular endothelial cells

A

Kaposi’s Sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Largest viruses, only disease that has been eradicated from the face of the Earth.

A

Smallpox caused by Variola virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Histopathologic findings: Variola virus - Smallpox

A

Guarnieri bodies - intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Treatment for Molluscum contagiosum, a pinkish papular skin lesions with an umbilicated center caused by M.contagiosum virus

A

Cifodivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Histopathologic finding: Molluscum contagiosum

A

Henderson-Peterson bodies : intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Surface antigen of HBV used as marker for infection

A

HBsAg

53
Q

Antigen of HBV used as marker for viral replication

A

HBcAg - core antigen

54
Q

Antigen of HBV secreted in the blood and detectable as compared to HBcAg

A

HBeAg - e antigen

55
Q

Only DNA virus that produces DNA by reverse transcription with mRNA as the template

A

Hepatitis B virus

56
Q

Serologic marker of HBV that are positive during incubation period

A

HBsAg and HBeAg

57
Q

Positive serologic marker of HBV during acute infection

A

HBsAg, HBeAg and IgM Anti-HBc

58
Q

HBV serologic marker positive during window period

A

IgM Anti-HBc

59
Q

HBV serologic marker positive during complete recovery

A

Anti-HBs and IgG Anti-HBc

60
Q

HBV serologic marker positive for chronic carriers

A

HBsAg and IgG Anti-HBc

61
Q

HBV serologic marker positive on vaccinated individual

A

Anti-HBs

62
Q

HBV infection is associated with what type of autoimmune vasculitides

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

63
Q

Treatment for HBV infection

A

Interferon-a and Lamivudin

64
Q

All RNA viruses have single-stranded DNA except

A

Reovirus and Rotavirus

65
Q

All DNA viruses replicated in the cytoplasm except

A

Influenza and Retrovirus

66
Q

Poliomyelitis - caused by Poliovirus

A

Naked, single-stranded RNA virus that replicates in motor neurons in anterior horn of spinal cord, causing paralysis

67
Q

Histopathologic finding: of Polio virus

A

Cowdry type B - intranuclear inclusions

68
Q

Causes herpangina: fever, sore throat and tender vesicles in oropharynx

A

Coxsackie virus - naked, ssRNA

69
Q

Caused by Coxsackie virus that presents with vesicular rash on hands and feet and ulcerations in the mouth

A

Hand-Foot and Mouth disease

70
Q

Most common cause of aseptic meningitis

A

Coxsackie, Poliovirus and Echovirus

71
Q

Called Orphans because they were not initially associated with any disease. But now it is associated with aseptic meningitis

A

Echovirus

72
Q

Causes common colds with more than 100 serotypes. It is acid-labile. And host range is limited only to humans and chimpanzees

A

Rhinovirus

73
Q

Hepatitis A is also know as?

A

Enterovirus 72

74
Q

It is a self limited hepatitis transmitted via fecal-oral route, most frequently infected were children

A

Hepatitis A virus - anti-HAV IgM is the most important test

75
Q

Hepatitis E virus belongs to what Family of RNA viruses

A

Caliciviridae

76
Q

Most common cause of nonbacterial diarrhea in adults

A

Norwalk virus (Norovirus) - oral-fecal transmission

77
Q

Causes viral gastroenteritis, most common cause of childhood diarrhea

A

Rotavirus

78
Q

Major antigens of Influenza virus

A

Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase

79
Q

Strain of Influenza virus that causes worldwide epidemics, pandemics. Each year, influenza is the most common cause of respiratory tract infections

A

Influenza A - has 16 antigenically distinct types of hemaglutinin and 9 sntigenetically distinct types of neuroaminidase

80
Q

Human strains of Influenza virus

A

H1, H2, and H3, N1 and N2

81
Q

Antigenic shifts is also known as____. Major changes based on the reassortment of segments of the genome RNA.

A

Pandemics

82
Q

Antigenic drift is also known as ___. Minor changes based on mutations in the genome RNA

A

Epidemics

83
Q

Drug of choice for Influenza virus

A

Oseltamivir or Zanamivir

84
Q

Family of Viruses known to cause a wide range of pediatric diseases

A

Paramyxoviridae

Parainfluenza virus, RSV, Mumps virus and Measles virus

85
Q

Paramyxovirus positive for both hemagglutinin and neuraminidase envelope spikes?

A

Parainfluenza and Mumps viruses while RSV is both negative for envelope spikes

86
Q

Histopathologic finding: in Measles

A

Multinucleated giant cells (Warthin-Finkeldey bodies)

87
Q

Pathognomonic sign of Measles

A

Koplik’s spot

88
Q

Spots found in Roseola?

A

Nagayama spots

89
Q

Spots in Rubella?

A

Forch-Heimer spots

90
Q

Enveloped virus, ssRNA, transmitted via respiratory droplet causing parotitis and may complicate into orchitis or even meningitis

A

Mumps virus

91
Q

Causes viral pneumonia. Most important cause of pneumonia and bronchiolitis in infants. Treated with Ribavirin

A

Respiratory Syncitial Virus (RSV)

92
Q

Causes Laryngotracheobronchitis (Croup)

A

Psrainfluenza virus 1 and 2

93
Q

Croup appearance on x-ray

A

Steeple sign

94
Q

Treatment for Croup

A

Epinephrine

95
Q

Histopathologic finding: Rabies virus

A

Negri bodies

96
Q

Reservoir of Coronavirus

A

Horseshoe bat

97
Q

Intermediate host for Coronavirus

A

Civet cat

98
Q

Causes common colds and Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) - rapidly progressing to ARDS. Virus binds to ACE-2 receptor

A

Coronavirus

99
Q

Dengue virus belong to what family?

A

Flaviviridae

100
Q

Causes transmission of Dengue virus to human

A

Aedes aegypti mosquito

101
Q

Lab picture of patient with Dengue

A

Leukopenia, thrombocytopenia and hemoconcentration

102
Q

Diagnosis of Hepatitis C can be made using?

A

Anti-HCV and HCV RNA

103
Q

Most prevalent blood-borne pathogen among Hepatitis viruses

A

Hepatitis C virus

104
Q

Treatment for acute hepatitis C infection

A

Interferon

For chronic hepatitis: Peginterferon and Ribavirin

105
Q

Also known as Three-day measles

A

German Measles

106
Q

Congenital problem at 1st trimester associated with PDA, congenital cataracts, sensorineural deafness and mental retardation

A

Congenital Rubella Syndrome

107
Q

Rubella virus belong to what family?

A

Togaviridae

108
Q

Family of virus distinguished from other RNA viruses due to the presence of Reverse Transcriptase

A

Retroviridae - reverse transcriptase converts ssRNA viral genome to dsDNA

109
Q

Most complex of the known retroviruses

A

HIV - many serotypes, positive polarity genome

110
Q

Protein of HIV that interacts with the CD4 receptorq

A

gp120

111
Q

The most immunogenic region of gp120

A

V3 loop

112
Q

It is the group - specific antigen of HIV

A

p24 - located in the core

113
Q

Important HIV serologic markers of infection

A

p24

114
Q

Regulatory gene of HIV that decreases CD4 and class I MCH proteins

A

nef

115
Q

HIV gene for activation of transcription of viral genes

A

tat

116
Q

HIV phase: HIV acquired through sexual intecourse, blood or perinatally

A

Phase 0 : Infection

117
Q

Phase of HIV were rapid viral replication occurs but HIV test is negative

A

Phase 1 : Window Period

118
Q

HIV phase were CD4 drops to 500 - 200, lasts 5 years. Presents with mild mucocutaneous dermatologic and hematologic illnesses

A

Phase 4 : Early Symptomatic

119
Q

Presumptive diagnosis for HIV

A

ELISA

120
Q

Definitive diagnosis of HIV

A

Western Blot analysis

121
Q

Test very specific and sensitive to HIV

A

PCR

122
Q

Test for immune status of HIV patients

A

CD4

123
Q

Test for HIV prognostication

A

PCR

124
Q

Treatment option for HIV

A

HAART - highly active antiretroviral therap; Zidovudine and Lamivudine and Indinavir

125
Q

Thread-like virus with 100% mortality rate. Causes outbreak of hemorrhagic fever in Zaire (1976)

A

Ebola virus - causes Ebola Hemorrhagic Fever

126
Q

Most common cause of epidemic encephalitis. Most prevalent in SEA. Transmitted by Culex mosquitoes

A

Japanese B virus -causes Japanese B Encephalitis

127
Q

Ct-scan result of patients infected with Japanese B virus

A

Thalamic infarcts

128
Q

What causes blindness in patients with HIV

A

CMV retinitis at <50 CD4

129
Q

Causes pneumonia in HIV patients

A

P.jiroveci /P.carinii at <200CD4 count

Microbiology (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions