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Microbiology > Gram Positive Bacteria > Flashcards

Gram Positive Bacteria Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
0
Q

S.aureus is salt tolerant on?

A

Mannitol Salts Agar

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1
Q

Gram positive cocci in grape clusters

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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2
Q

S.aureus gold color is due to?

A

Staphyloxanthin

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3
Q

Common habitat of S.aureus

A

Anterior nares - and sometimes on skin

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4
Q

Virulence factor: prevents complement activation

A

Protein A

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5
Q

Virulence factor: detoxifies hydrogen peroxide

A

Catalase

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6
Q

Virulence factor: specific for white blood cells

A

PV Leukocidin

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7
Q

Virulence factor: builds an insoluble fibrin capsule

A

Coagulase

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8
Q

Virulence factor: inactivates penicillin derivatives

A

Penicillinase

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9
Q

Virulence factor: toxic to hematopoietic cells

A

Hemolysins - cytotoxins

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10
Q

Virulence factor: dissolved fibrin clots

A

Fibrinolysin - staphylokinase

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11
Q

Virulence factor: spread in fat containing areas of the body

A

Lipase

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12
Q

Virulence factor: causes SSSS

A

Exfoliatin - causes epidermal separation

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13
Q

Valve involve in IV drug abusers having acute endocarditis

A

Tricuspid valves

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14
Q

Virulence factor: superantigens causing food poisoning

A

Enterotoxins

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15
Q

Virulence factor: causes marked necrosis of the skin and hemolysis

A

Alpha toxin

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16
Q

Sequestered focus of osteomyelitis arising in the metaphyseal area of a long bone

A

Brodie abscess

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17
Q

Virulence factor: superantigen leading to toxic shock syndrome

A

Toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST-1)

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18
Q

Scalded skin syndrome is also known as what diseae?

A

Ritter disease

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19
Q

With Ritter disease, exfoliatin cleaves the ____ in desmosomes

A

Desmoglein

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20
Q

With SSSS, separation of epidermis is at _____

A

Stratum granulosum

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21
Q

Disease entity where separation occurs at dermo-epidermal junction

A

TEN (Lyell disease)

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22
Q

Drug of choice for MRSA

A

Vancomycin

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23
Q

Drug of choice for VRSA

A

Linezolid

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24
Q

Also known as S.albus

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis. - positive catalase, coagulase negative, novobiocin sensitive

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25
Q

Patient came in with an infected prosthetic joints. What would be the possible organism on culture?

A

S.epidermidis - glycocalyx adheres well to foreign bodies and form biofilms

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26
Q

Condition that may show strawberry tongue:

A

Scarlet fever
Kawasaki disease
Toxic Shock syndrome

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27
Q

Second most common cause of UTIs in sexually active women

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

E.coli in the Philippines

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29
Q

Treatment of choice for S.saprophyticus infection

A

TMP-SMX, quinolones

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30
Q

Most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes - habitat: skin and oropharynx

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31
Q

Virulence enzyme: that degrades DNA in exudates or necrotic tissue

A

DNase (streptodornase)

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32
Q

Virulence enzyme: inactivates complement C5a

A

C5A peptidase

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33
Q

Toxin: that causes necrotizing fasciitis

A

Exotoxin B

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34
Q

Used for to document antecedent pharyngitis

A

Anti-Streptolysin O (ASO)

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35
Q

Titers to document antecedent skin infection

A

Anti-DNAse B

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39
Q

Most likely to progress or cause glomerulonephritis

A

Pyoderma

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40
Q

Pyogenic infection with perioral blistered lesions with honey-colored crust. Accumulation of neutrophils beneath stratum corneum.

A

Impetigo contagiosa - while Bullous impetigo is caused by S.aureus

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41
Q

Pyogenic superficial infection extending into dermal lymphatics, painful

A

Erysipelas

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42
Q

Pyogenic deeper infection involving subcutaneous/dermal tissues.

A

Cellulitis - facilitated by hyaluronidase

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43
Q

Pyogenic rapidly progressive infection of deep subcutaneous tissues facilitated by Exotoxin B

A

Necrotizing fascitis

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44
Q

Postpharyngitic due to erythrogenic toxin seen in lysogenized strains.

A

Scarlet Fever

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45
Q

Postpharyngitic cross-reacting antibodies to M proteins and antigens of joint, heart and brain tissues. Patient presents with pancarditis, erythema marginatum, Sydenham chorea and migratory polyarthritis

A

Acute Rheumatic Fever - due to molecular mimicry

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46
Q

Criteria used for Rheumatic fever

A

Jones Criteria

Polyarthritis, Chorea, Carditis, Subcutaneous nodules

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47
Q

M protein incites immune complex deposition on the glomerular basement membrane. SSX: hypertension, periorbital edema and hematuria

A

Glomerulonephritis - mc common is post-impetigo

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48
Q

Toxin: produces scarlet fever

A

Erythrogenic toxin

49
Q

Oxygen labile toxin that is highly antigenic, causes AB formation

A

Streptolysin O

50
Q

Last symptom of Glomerulonephritis that will disappear

A

Hematuria

51
Q

Drug of choice for Glomerulonephritis

A

Penicillin G

52
Q

Bacitracin resistant, grow using LIM broth - obstetric importance since it is most common cause of neonatal sepsis

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

E.coli - most common cause of neonatal sepsis in the Phils.

53
Q

Treatment of choice for S.agalactiae

A

Penicillin G

54
Q

Lancefield group D, positive PYR test, causes UTIs due to indwelling urinary catheters and urinary tract instrumentation. Biliary tract infection

A

Enterococcus faecalis

55
Q

Bacterial infection that causes Marantic endocarditis in patients with abdominal malignancy

A

Streptococcus bovis - usually associated with pancreatic or colorectal CA

56
Q

Lancet-shaped cocci, in pairs or chains, positive for Quellung Test

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

57
Q

Toxin: superantigen similar to TSST

A

Pyogenic exotoxin A

58
Q

Encapsulated bacteria

A 
S.pneumoniae
H.influenzae
P.aeruginosa
N.meningitidis
S.typhi
B group streptococci
59
Q

Used by S.pneumoniae for colonization

A

IgA protease

61
Q

Most common cause of CAP

A

S.pneumoniae - lobar pattern in presentation

62
Q

Sputum in S.pneumoniae

A

Rust-colored sputum

63
Q

Most common cause of Otitis media, Sinusitis and Bacterial meningitis

A

S.pneumoniae - skull fracture with spinal fluid leakage from nose predisposes to meningitis in elderly particularly

64
Q

Syndrome associated with congenital asplenia

A

Ivemark Syndrome

65
Q

Most common cause of subacute and native valve endocarditis

A

S.sanguis - subacute bacterial endocarditis

66
Q

Treatment for Viridans Streptococci

A

Penicillin G with or without aminoglycoside

67
Q

Bacterial infection that cause endocarditis in patients who underwent GIT surgery

A

E.faecalis

68
Q

Spore-forming, box car aerobic gram positive rod. With medusa head morphology

A

Bacillus anthracis

69
Q

Condition that presents with fever, strawberry tongue, sandpaper - lkie rash, Pastia’s lines

A

Scarlet fever - Dick test for susceptibility

70
Q

Disease with direct epidermal contact with spores causes formation of malignant pustule with subsequent eschar and central necrosis. 20% mortality

A

Cutaneous anthrax

71
Q

Disease that causes pulmonary hemorrhages?

A
  1. Pulmonary anthrax
  2. Congenital syphilis
  3. Weil’s disease - severe leptospirosis
72
Q

Condition associated with ingestion of live spores leads to UGI ulceqtion, edema and sepsis. Rapidly-progressive course with 100% mortality

A

Gastrointestinal anthrax

73
Q

Treatment for cutaneous anthrax

A

Ciprofloxacin

74
Q

Treatment for S.pneumoniae

A

Penicillin G

Levofloxacin or Vancomycin combined with Ceftriaxone for Penicillin resistance

75
Q

Treatment for inhalational and gastrointestinal anthrax

A

Ciprofloxacin or doxycycline with one or two additional antibiotics

76
Q

Treatment for Enterococcus faecalis

A

Penicillin plus gentamycin
Vancomycin for resistance
Linezolid for vancomycin-resistant strains

77
Q

Spore forming gram positive rod associated with reheated fried rice

A

Bacillus cereus

78
Q

Ophthalmitis is a rare traumatic penetrating eye injury with a soil contaminated object. Resulting to complete loss of light perception with 48 hours

A

Bacillus cereus

79
Q

B.cereus disease form that has a longer incubation period

A

Diarrheal form >6 hours while emetic form <6hours

80
Q

Four species of Clostridium

A

C.difficile
C.perfringens
C.tetani
C.botulinum

81
Q

Anaerobic, spore forming bacteria that looks like a tennis racket/ has a lollipop appearance. Entry by skin popping or stepping on a nail

A

Clostridium tetanu

82
Q

Toxin that cleaves proteins involved in the release of glycine from Renshaw cells in spinal cord.

A

Tetanus toxin or tetanospasmin

83
Q

Condition that presents with muscle spasms, trismus, risus sardonicus, opisthotonus and respiratory failure

A

Tetanus

84
Q

Drug of choice for C.tetani infection

A

Penicillin G, metronidazole is an alternative

85
Q

Condition wherein toxoid and TIG were both given

A

Contaminated wound with uncertain vaccination or <3 doses received.

86
Q

Patient came in due to flaccid paralysis after eating canned goods and honey. Most likely organism?

A

Clostridium botulinum - anaerobic, spore forming rod

87
Q

Immunologic botullinum toxin that are common in human

A

Type A, B and E

88
Q

Bulbar sign in patients with food-borne botulism

A

Diplopia, Dysphonia, Dysarthria and Dysphagia

89
Q

Condition in infants associated with absence of competitive bowel microbes. Usually happens when baby ingest spores found in household dust or honey

A

Infant botulism - Floppy Baby Syndrome

90
Q

Treatment for Botulism

A

Adequate ventilatory support

Penicillin or Metronidazole

91
Q

Agar for Clostridium perfringens

A

Egg yolk agar

92
Q

Toxin that causes gas gangrene

A

Alpha toxin of C.perfringens. Gas produced by anaerobic metabolism

93
Q

Causes pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clostridium difficile - anaerobic, spore-forming rod

94
Q

C.difficile is transmitted through?

A

Fecal - oral route

95
Q

Important intermediates of C.difficile infection?

A

Hands of hospital personnel

96
Q

Antibiotics that predisposes to C.difficile infection

A

Clindamycin, second and third generation cephalosporins and ampicillin by suppressing normal flora of the body

97
Q

What causes pseudomembranous pharyngitis

A

Diphtheria

98
Q

Causes pseudomembranous esophagitis

A

Candida

99
Q

Treatment for pseudomembranous colitis caused by C.difficile

A

Metronidazole or oral vancomycin, surgery if toxic megacolon develop

100
Q

Patient came in with prominent thick, gray, pseudomembranes over tonsils and throat. Patient then develops airway obsruction. Most likely organism?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae - aerobic, non-spore forming, non motile rod

101
Q

Club or comma-shaped rods arranged in V or L shape, Chinese character appearance

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

102
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae is cultured using what agar?

A

Tellurite

103
Q

Toxicity of C.diphtheriae can be detected using?

A

Modified ELEK test

104
Q

Beta-prophage encoded toxins

A 
Shiga-like toxin -EHEC
Botulinum toxin
Cholera toxin
Diphtheria toxin
Erythrogenic toxin
105
Q

Treatment for C.diphtheriae infection

A

Antitoxin and Penicillin G

106
Q

Motility of Listeria monocytogenes

A

Tumbling motility

107
Q

Also known as Early onset neonatal Listeriosis. May present with late miscarriage or birth complicated by sepsis, multi-organ abscesses and disseminated granulomas

A

Granulomatosis infantiseptica

108
Q

L.monocytogenes infection that manifest as meningitis or meningoenceohalitis

A

Late-onset neonatal listeriosis

109
Q

Treatment of L.monocytogenes

A

Ampicillin with or without Gentamycin

110
Q

Alpha-hemolytic, resistant to bile and optochin. Enters bloodstream during dental procedure. Common habitat is oropharynx

A

Viridans streptococci

111
Q

Common cause of bacterial cause of sore throat

A

S.pyogenes - Pharyngitis

112
Q

Associated with Woolsorter’s disease

A

B.anthracis

113
Q

Common cause of death in inhalational anthrax

A

Pulmonary hemorrhage

114
Q

Cephalosporin resistant microorganisms:

A

MRSA
Enterococci
Listeria monocytogenes

Microbiology (8 decks)

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