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Microbiology II > Virology > Flashcards

Virology Flashcards

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1
Q

Naked RNA viruses (3)

A
  1. Caliciviridae
  2. Picornaviridae
  3. Reoviridae
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2
Q

Naked DNA viruses (4)

A
  1. Parvoviridae
  2. Adenoviridae
  3. Papillomaviridae
  4. Polyomaviridae
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3
Q

Composed of beta pleated sheets; highly resistant to activation, can transmit spongiform encephalopathies

A

Prions

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4
Q

Only virus that contains both DNA and RNA

A

Mimivirus

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5
Q

Virus with ssDNA

A

Parvovirus

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6
Q

Virus with dsRNA

A

Reovirus

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7
Q

Viruses with segmented genomes (high reassortment potential) (4)

A
  1. Bunyaviruses
  2. Orthomyxoviruses
  3. Arenaviruses
  4. Reoviruses
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8
Q

Viruses that need an RNA-dependent polymerase (6)

A
  1. Arenaviruses
  2. Bunyaviruses
  3. Paramyxoviruses
  4. Orthomyxoviruses
  5. Filoviruses
  6. Rhabdoviruses

Contain negative strand RNA

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9
Q

Only viral vaccine that can be given to HIV positive patients

A

MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)

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10
Q

Icosahedral, naked ssDNA

A

Parvovirus B-19

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11
Q

Enveloped, icosahedral, circular dsDNA

A

Hepadnavirus

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12
Q

Enveloped, icosahedral, linear dsDNA

A

Herpesvirus (herpes, varicella, EBV, CMV)

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13
Q

Enveloped, complex shaped, circular dsDNA

A

Poxvirus

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14
Q

Naked, icosahedral, circular dsDNA

A

Papillomavirus and Polyomavirus

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15
Q

Naked, icosahedral, linear dsDNA

A

Adenovirus

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16
Q

All DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus except ______

A

Poxvirus

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17
Q

Febrile illness with slapped cheek appearance

A

Erythema infectiosum (parvovirus B-19)

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18
Q

Can cause aplastic crisis, fetal death and hydrops fetalis, arthritis, and pancytopenia in chronic disease

A

Parvovirus B-19

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19
Q

Fiber contained in adenoviruses

A

Panton fiber

Adenovirus is the only virus that contains fiber

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20
Q

Virus that can cause both respiratory tract infection, hemorrhagic cystitis and gastroenteritis simultaneously; with Cowdry type B intranuclear inclusions

A

Adenovirus

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21
Q

HPV genes that encode proteins that inhibit tumor suppressor genes, causing cervical CA

A

Genes E6 and E7

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22
Q

Verruca vulgaris (palmar and plantar warts)

A

HPV 1-4

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23
Q

Condyloma acuminata (genital warts), respiratory tract papilloma

A

HPV 6, 11

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24
Q

Cervical, penile, anal CA

A

HPV 16, 18, 31, 33

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25
Q

Imiquimod can be used to treat: (3)

A
  1. Actinic keratosis
  2. Superficial basal cell CA
  3. Condyloma acuminata
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26
Q

Causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (demyelinating disease with deficits in speech, coordination and memory) in AIDS patients

A

JC polyoma virus

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27
Q

Hemorrhagic cystitis and nephropathy in transplant patients

A

BK polyoma virus

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28
Q

Site of latency: HSV-1

A

Trigeminal ganglia

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29
Q

Site of latency: HSV-2

A

Lumbosacral ganglia

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30
Q

Diagnostic test used to visualize multinucleated giant cells in herpes simplex

A

Tzanck smear

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31
Q

Cowdry type A bodies, temporal lobe enchephalitis, herpetic whitlow, keratoconjunctivitis and gingivostomatitis

A

Herpes simplex virus 1

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32
Q

Painful anogenital vesicles, neonatal infection, aspetic meningitis

A

Herpes simplex virus 2

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33
Q

DOC for HSV infection

A

Acyclovir

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34
Q

Site of latency: VZV

A

Dorsal root ganglia

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35
Q

Vesicular centrifugal rash with varying morphology; complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, or Reye’s syndrome

A

Varicella

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36
Q

Painful vesicles in a dermatomal distribution

A

Zoster (VZV reactivation)

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37
Q

Herpes zoster oticus, with facial nerve paralysis

A

Ramsay Hunt syndrome (VZV)

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38
Q

CMV proteins that impair the assembly of MHC class 1 complexes

A

Immediate early proteins

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39
Q

Most common cause of congenital abnormalities: microcephaly, periventricular calcifications, deafness, jaundice, blueberry muffin rash

A

Congenital CMV

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40
Q

Heterophil-negative mononucleosis, with owl’s eye intranuclear inclusions

A

CMV

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41
Q

Most common cause of blindness in HIV

A

CMV retinitis

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42
Q

DOC for CMV

A

Gancyclovir

43
Q

Triad of the “Kissing disease”

A
  1. Fever
  2. Sore throat (exudative ATP)
  3. Lymphadenopathy
44
Q

Heterophil-positive mononucleosis

A

EBV

45
Q

EBV is associated with malignancies: (3)

A
  1. Burkitt’s (non-Hodgkin) lymphoma
  2. Nasopharyngeal CA
  3. Hairy leukoplakia
46
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by:

A

HHV-8

47
Q

Smallpox, with Guarnieri bodies

A

Variola virus

48
Q

Pinkish papular shin lesions with an umbilicated center; Henderson-Peterson bodies

A

Molluscum contagiosum virus

49
Q

Marker of Hep B infection

A

HBsAg

50
Q

Marker of viral replication (active shedding)

A

HBeAg

51
Q

Antibody to HBsAg; marker of host immune response

A

Anti-HBs

52
Q

Marker of chronicity (IgM - acute, IgG - chronic)

A

Anti-HBc

53
Q

Tx for HBV infections

A

Interferon alpha, lamivudin

54
Q

Picornaviridae (5)

A
  1. Poliovirus
  2. Echovirus
  3. Rhinovirus
  4. Coxsackievirus
  5. HAV

All are oral-fecal route except Rhinovirus

55
Q

Replicates in the motor neurons of the anterior horn of the spinal cord, with Cowdry type B intranuclear inclusions

A

Poliovirus

56
Q

Most common clinical form of poliomyelitis

A

Abortive poliomyelitis (mild, nonspecific febrile illness)

57
Q

Herpangina, Hand foot and mouth disease, hemorrhagic conjunctivitis

A

Coxsackievirus A

58
Q

Pleurodynia, Myocarditis and pericarditis

A

Coxsackievirus B

59
Q

Aseptic meningitis

A

Coxsackievirus A and B

60
Q

Most common cause of the common cold

A

Rhinovirus

61
Q

AKA enterovirus 72; causes asymptomatic, self-limited hepatitis

A

HAV

62
Q

Hepatitis with high mortality in pregnant women

A

HEV

63
Q

Most common cause of nonbacterial diarrhea in adults

A

Norwalk virus

64
Q

Most common cause of childhood diarrhea

A

Rotavirus

65
Q

Virus present in humans, birds, fowl, pigs, and other animals; undergoes antigenic shift (reassortment between species-specific strains) to create new strains that incite pandemics

A

Influenza A virus

66
Q

Present in humans only; undergoes antigenic drift (minor genetic mutations) to produce modified versions of itself, inciting outbreaks

A

Influenza B virus

67
Q

DOC for influenza virus

A

Oseltamivir, zanamivir

68
Q

Causes the formation of multinucleated giant cells (syncitia) in paramyxoviruses

A

Fusion protein

69
Q

Cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, Koplik’s spots; with a maculopapular rash that spreads cephalocaudally; Warthin Finkeldy bodies are seen on histopath; may lead to subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

A

Measles virus

70
Q

Tx for prevention of measles complications (pneumonia, SSP, encephalitis)

A

Vitamin A

71
Q

Parotitis, orchitis, meningitis, pancreatitis

A

Mumps virus

72
Q

Pneumonia and bronchiolitis in infants

A

RSV

73
Q

Tx for RSV, Hep C

A

Ribavirin

74
Q

Laryngotracheobronchitis (Croup); steeple sign on xray; treated with inhaled racemic epinephrine

A

Parainfluenza virus 1 and 2

75
Q

Bullet shaped virus that infects sensory neurons; causes confusion, hypersalivation, hydrophobia, aerophobia, flaccid paralysis, encephalitis; Negri bodies seen on histopath

A

Rabies virus

76
Q

Rabies Ig is given in category ____ animal bite

A

Category III (with bleeding bite or scratch)

77
Q

Virus with prominent club-shaped spikes; #2 cause of common colds; can cause SARS

A

Coronavirus

78
Q

Vector of transmission for dengue

A

Aedes aegypti mosquito

79
Q

Most prevalent blood-borne pathogen; common in IV drug users; can incite autoimmune reactions, chronic carriage, hepatocellular CA, liver cirrhosis

A

HCV

80
Q

“3 day measles”; posterior auricular lymphadenopathy, polyarthritis

A

German measles (rubella)

81
Q

Congenital cataracts, sensorineural deafness, mental retardation, cardiac defects (PDA), blueberry muffin spots

A

Congenital rubella syndrome

82
Q

HIV envelope glycoproteins

A

gp41 (transmembrane; fuses with cell), gp 120 (surface, binds to CD4)

83
Q

Major capsid protein, houses the HIV viral genome; antibodies serve as the basis for the Western blot

A

p24

84
Q

Essential for HIV viral assembly and entry of the viral DNA into the nucleus

A

Outer matrix protein p17

85
Q

“Histone” that tightly complexes the HIV RNA

A

p7

86
Q

Codes for p24, p17, p7

A

gag

87
Q

Codes for reverse transcriptase and other necessary enzymes (protease, integrase, ribonuclease)

A

pol

88
Q

Codes for gp41, gp120

A

env

89
Q
  1. Responsible for rapid antigenic variation, preventing an HIV cure
  2. Most immunogenic region
A
  1. gp120 (surface protein)

2. V3 loop

90
Q

Mild flulike illness occuring at the peak of HIV viral load

A

Acute retroviral syndrome

91
Q

Mucocutaneous, dermatologic and hematologic illnesses occur at CD count ___

A

CD4 500-200

92
Q

AIDS-defining illnesses develop at CD count ____

A

CD4

93
Q

TB, HSV, Candida, HHV-8 infections in HIV

A

CD

94
Q

PCP, toxoplasma, cryptococcal infections

A

CD

95
Q

Mycobacterium avium intracellulare complex, histoplasmosis, CMV retinitis

A

CD

96
Q

1 killer in AIDS

A

TB

97
Q

Screening test for AIDS

A

ELISA

98
Q

Confirmatory test for AIDS

A

Western blot

99
Q

HIV test for prognostication/determination of viral load

A

PCR

100
Q

HAART therapy for HIV

A

Zidovudine, lamivudine, indinavir

101
Q

Causes adult T cell leukemia and myelopathy; Malignant T cells with flower shaped nucleus

A

Human T-cell Lymphotropic virus (HTLV)

102
Q

“Thread-like” virus causing highly fatal hemorrhagic fever

A

Ebola virus

103
Q

Bird-mosquito-man cycle; causes febrile illness progressing to neuroinvasive disease

A

West Nile virus

104
Q

Most common cause of epidemic thalamic encephalitis; transmitted by Culex mosquitoes, common in southeast Asia

A

Japanese B virus

Microbiology II (13 decks)

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