Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology II > Gram Positive Cocci > Flashcards

Gram Positive Cocci Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Catalase positive, coagulase positive

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Catalase positive, coagulase negative, novobiocin sensitive

A

Staph epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Catalase positive, coagulase negative, novobiocin resistant

A

Staph saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Halotolerant on mannitol salt agar

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pigment responsible for gold color of Staph aureus

A

Staphyloxanthin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Virulence factor of Staph aureus that destroys neutrophils and macrophages

A

Panton-Valentine (PV) Leukocidin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tissue penetrance virulence factors

A

Hyaluronidase, collagenase, lipase, fibrinolysin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Causes epidermal separation in SSSS by cleaving desmoglein in desmosomes

A

Exfoliatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Causes Staph aureus toxic shock syndrome

A

TSST-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Characteristics of Staph aureus endocarditis (3)

A
  1. Most common cause of acute endocarditis; 2. Tricuspid valve; 3. IV drug users
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Sequestered osteomyelitis in the metaphysis of long bones

A

Brodie abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Level of epidermal separation in SSSS

A

stratum granulosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Level of epidermal separation in SJS/TEN

A

Dermoepidermal junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Strawberry tongue, desquamating rash, multiorgan involvement; no site of pyogenic inflammation, culture negative

A

Staph Toxic shock syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Side effect of vancomycin if given as a bolus

A

Red Man syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Treatment options for staph aureus (3)

A
  1. Oxacillin, nafcillin, dicloxacillin; 2. Vancomycin if MRSA; 3. Linezolid if vancomycin-resistant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Criteria for food poisoning (2)

A
  1. At least 2 people with the same symptoms; 2. Causative organism has been identified
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Possesses a glycocalyx; forms a biofilm that adheres most especially to prostheses

A

Staph epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

2nd most common cause of UTI in sexually active women

A

Staph saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Treatment for staph saprophyticus

A

TMP-SMX, quinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Catalase negative, alpha hemolytic, bile and optochin sensitive; “lancet” shaped diplococci

A

Strep pneumoniae

22
Q

Catalase negative, alpha hemolytic, bile and optochin resistant

A

Viridans strep

23
Q

Catalase negative, beta hemolytic, bacitracin sensitive

A

Strep pyogenes (Group A)

24
Q

Catalase negative, beta hemolytic, bacitracin resistant

A

Strep agalactiae (Group B)

25
Q

Catalase negative, gamma hemolytic

A

Group D strep (enterococci)

26
Q

Positive PYR test

A

Strep pyogenes, Group D strep

27
Q

Virulence enzyme in Strep pyogenes that activates plasminogen; used as thrombolytic therapy in MI

A

Streptokinase (fibrinolysin)

28
Q

Spreading factor

A

Hyaluronidase

29
Q

Strep pyogenes toxin that produces scarlet fever

A

Erythrogenic toxin

30
Q

Documents antecedent strep pharyngitis

A

Streptolysin O (ASO)

31
Q

Strep pyogenes toxin that causes strep toxic shock syndrome

A

Pyogenic exotoxin A

32
Q

Strep pyogenes toxin that causes necrotizing fasciitis

A

Exotoxin B

33
Q

Documents antecedent strep pyoderma/impetigo

A

Anti-DNAse B

34
Q

Impetigo contagiosa

A

Strep pyogenes

35
Q

Impetigo bullosa

A

Staph aureus

36
Q

multiorgan involvement; with recognizable site of pyogenic inflammation, culture positive

A

Strep toxic shock syndrome

37
Q

Molecular mimicry with this antigen incites immune response against joints (rheumatic fever), heart (RHD), kidneys, and brain tissue

A

M antigen (strep pyogenes)

38
Q

Hypersensitivity reaction of rheumatic fever/RHD

A

Type II

39
Q

Hypersensitivity reaction of PSGN

A

Type III

40
Q

Growth medium for Strep agalactiae

A

LIM broth

41
Q

UTI in pregnant women; most common cause of neonatal sepsis, pneumonia and meningitis

A

GBS (Strep agalactiae)

42
Q

Chemoprophylaxis for GBS (+) pregnant women

A

IV penicillin or ampicillin 4 hours prior to delivery

43
Q

Tx for strep agalactiae

A

Pen G +/- aminoglycoside

44
Q

Growth medium for Group D strep

A

Bile-esculin agar

45
Q

Halotolerant Group D strep

A

Enterococcus faecalis

46
Q

Strep bovis heart infection in patients with abdominal malignancy

A

Marantic endocarditis

47
Q

Positive quellung reaction

A

Strep pneumoniae

48
Q

Most common cause of CAP, bacterial meningitis in the elderly, septic shock in the asplenic

A

Strep pneumoniae

49
Q

Most common cause of subacute and native valve endocarditis

A

Strep sanguis (Viridans strep)

50
Q

Dental caries

A

Strep mutans (Viridans strep)

Microbiology II (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions