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Virology Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Dengue Fever is a type of _____.
It has an ___ with ___, and has an ___ shape. Its genome is ___ and has ___ serotypes.

A

Flavivirus
Envelope, glycoproteins
Icosahedral
(+) ssRNA
4

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2
Q

Main reservoir for Dengue

A

Humans

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3
Q

Dengue works via ___ distribution and _____ reproduction

A

Seasonal, temperature dependent vector

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4
Q

Diagnosis for Dengue?

A
  1. Anti-dengue IgG and IgM (IgM takes a week to appear)
  2. RT-PCR to detect viral RNA
    Could also be ELISA to test for NSI antigen and blood tests (thrombocytopaenia and increased haematocrit)
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5
Q

Dengue virus is deposited and replicates in ___, is internalised in ___ and causes ____

A

Local lymphatic tissue, macrophages, mobile infection

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6
Q

Dengue management?

A

Symptomatic treatment and preventive measures

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7
Q

Dengue is spread by ___ and ___

A

Aedes aegypti, Aedes albopictus

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8
Q

Dengue requires mandatory notification to MOH within ___ hours. Cluster is defined as ___ cases within ___ days within ___m radius

A

24
2, 14, 150

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9
Q

Dengue fever clinically presents with

A

Abrupt high fever, headache with retro-orbital pain and generalised rash with petechiae

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10
Q

Complications of dengue fever include

A

Liver failure with encephalopathy
(Severe form of dengue)

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11
Q

Infection with dengue will produce ___ that confers ___ to the ___ subtype

A

IgG, short-term immunity, same

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12
Q

Dengue Haemorrhagic Fever (DHF) presents with

A

Disseminated reaction with haemorrhage and shock, additional haemorrhagic manifestations with low platelet count (thrombocytopenia)

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13
Q

Dengue Haemorrhagic Fever is often a result of a secondary infection. The science behind this is

A

IgG when at low levels are infection promoting as they are unable to neutralise the virus but remain able to promote uptake into the macrophages (allowing virus to replicate)

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14
Q

DHF could progress to cause ___. It is a type of ___. Caused by infection of a ___ subtype.

A

Dengue Shock Syndrome (DSS)
Anaphylactic shock
Different

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15
Q

Alphavirus is spread by ___ mosquitoes in ___

A

Aedes, India

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16
Q

Character of Alphavirus

A

Enveloped icosahedral with ssRNA virus
(Similar to dengue)

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17
Q

Clinical presentation of Alphavirus

A

Chikungunya Fever
Presents with fever, rash, arthritis and anthralgia, photosensitivity

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18
Q

Character of Japanese Encephalitis

A

Enveloped icosahedral ssRNA virus
(Similar to dengue)

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19
Q

Japanese Encephalitis is spread by ___ mosquitoes in ___

A

Culex, North Asia

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20
Q

Clinical presentations of Japanese Encephalitis

A

Penetration to brain leads to encephalitis and meningitis -> Brain damage

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21
Q

Character of Hantavirus

A

Enveloped spherical ssRNA virus (with 3 segments)

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22
Q

Where is Hantavirus found?

A

Rodent excreta (rare in SG)

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23
Q

Clinical presentation of Hantavirus

A

Haemorrhagic Fever with Renal Syndrome -> Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome

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24
Q

Yellow Fever virus is spread by ___ mosquitoes and presents itself as ___. Has a ___.

A

Aedes, fever and jaundice. Live attenuated vaccine

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25
Q

West Nile virus is spread by ___ and causes ___. There is ___ vaccine.

A

Culex mosquitoes, fatal encephalitis. No

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26
Q

Zika is spread by ___ and presents with ___. Also causes ______.

A

Aedes mosquitoes, fever with enhanced conjunctivitis
Acute sensory polyneuropathy and microcephaly in kids

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27
Q

Coxsackie Viruses are common in ___. ___ are the main host.

A

Spring and summer
Humans

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28
Q

Character of Coxsackie Viruses and mode of transmission

A

Non-enveloped RNA virus spread by faecal transmission

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29
Q

Coxsackie A causes

A

Epithelial infections
1. Herpangina with fever and sore throat
2. HFMD with vesicular rashes on hands and feet with ulcerations in mouth

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30
Q

Coxsackie B causes

A

Muscular infections
1. Pleurodynia
2. Myocarditis, pericarditis

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31
Q

Character of Polio virus and mode of transmission

A

Non-enveloped RNA spread by faecaloral transmission

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32
Q

___ are the main host of Polio

A

Primates

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33
Q

Polio primarily infects ___ that spreads to ___ and ___ with retrograde infection.

A

Lymphoid tissue, axons, grey matter of CNS

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34
Q

Most Polio infections are ___. Severe cases would present as ___. Past polio syndrome with ___.

A

Asymptomatic
Flaccid paralysis and meningitis
Deteriorated residual muscular function

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35
Q

Vaccines for Polio

A

IM dead vaccine: Does not prevent infection (possible carrier)
Oral live vaccine: Small chance of seroconversion, confers immunity against infection

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36
Q

Drug treatment for enteroviruses (Coxsackie A/B)

A

Pleconaril

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37
Q

Coxsackie A variants that result in HFMD

A

CA6, CA16, CA24, EV71

38
Q

Number of serotypes:
Polio / Coxsackie A / Coxsackie B

A

Polio: 3
Coxsackie A: 24
Coxsackie B: 6

39
Q

Alpha virus is a type of ___
JE is a type of ___
Hantavirus is a type of ___

A

Togavirus, Flavivirus, Bunyavirus

40
Q

Types of Herpes

A

HSV 1: Oral herpes
HSV 2: Genital herpes
HSV 3: Varicella Zoster Virus causing chickenpox or shingles
HSV 4: Epstein Barr Virus (infectious mononucleosis, related to Burkitt’s Lymphoma)
HSV 5: Cytomegalovirus (teratogen)
HSV 6: Human B-lymphotropic Virus
HSV 7: Not associated with human disease
HSV 8: Kaposi Sarcoma in HIV patients

41
Q

Structure of Herpes

A

Enveloped (ether sensitive), icosahedral capsid, double stranded DNA

42
Q

Diagnosis of Herpes

A

Tissue culture with CPE: Produces characteristic giant cells and eosinophilic intracellular inclusion bodies (except EBV that produces heterophile antibodies instead)
IgM, ELISA

43
Q

Mode of transmission of HSV1

A

Oral herpes spread by kissing or contact with oral secretions

44
Q

Explain the latency of HSV1

A

Virus replicates in mucous membranes at the site of infection and remains dormant in the TRIGEMINAL ganglion until reactivation

45
Q

Clinical presentations of HSV1

A
  1. Acute gingivostomatitis with vesicular eruptions
  2. Herpes labialis with cold sores along CNV dermatome
  3. Herpes whitlow with local finger ulcers
  4. Keratoconjunctivitis
  5. Meningitis and encephalitis
  6. Disseminated Herpes
46
Q

Mode of transmission of HSV 2

A

Sexual contact

47
Q

Explain the latency of HSV 2

A

Virus replicates in the mucous membranes at the site of infection and remains dormant in the LUMBOSACRAL ganglion until reactivation

48
Q

Clinical presentation of HSV 2? Associated with?

A
  1. Herpes progenetalis with lesions in the perineum
  2. Neonatal herpes acquired during delivery
  3. Associated with vulvar cancer
49
Q

Treatment for HSV 1-4 and HSV 5

A

HSV 1-4: Acyclovir (typically topical except IV for Zoster)
HSV 5: Ganciclovir

50
Q

Mode of transmission of Varicella

A

Respiratory droplets (highly infectious)

51
Q

Mode of transmission of Zoster

A

Vesicular fluid

52
Q

Varicella invades the ___ and replicates in the ___. It replicates in ___ causing ___ more common ___ than ___. It can ___ and complicated by ___.

A

URT, lymphatics
Epithelial cells, rashes, trunk, extremities
Cross placenta to affect foetus, Skin superinfections (eg. Staph aureus)

53
Q

Zoster is due to the ___. Clinically presents itself as ___. Could also lead to ___ (CNV I) and ___ (CNV II).

A

Reactivation of latent virus in the DRG
Lesions along the dermatome of ganglion (belt of roses)
Keratoconjunctivitis, facial nerve palsy

54
Q

Characteristic test for VZV

A

CPE (Cytopathic test) for Tzank giant cells

55
Q

How is EBV spread

A

Close contact, kissing, food sharing

56
Q

EBV initially infects the ___. Causes ___ with ___ presenting as ___ and ___. Associated with ___ with characteristic t(8,14) translocation leading to ___ and ___.

A

Oropharynx
Infectious mononucleosis, heterophile antibodies, high fever, increased number of atypical lymphocytes
Burkitt’s lymphoma, Bcl-upregulation, B cell replication

57
Q

Detection of EBV

A

Serology for heterophile antibodies, Anti-EBV IgM

58
Q

Mode of transmission of CMV

A

Vertical

59
Q

Clinical presentation of CMV

A
  1. Infectious mononucleosis without heterophile antibodies
  2. Congenital CMV
  3. Cytomegalic inclusion disease
  4. Guillain-Barre Syndrome (Complication)
60
Q

Characteristic test for CMV

A

CPE for owl eye inclusions

61
Q

Character of Measles

A

Enveloped ssRNA virus

62
Q

How is Measles spread

A

Respiratory droplets (highly contagious) especially in the immunocompromised

63
Q

Clinical presentation of Measles

A
  1. Fever and cough related to URTI
  2. Koplik spots around the parotid duct
  3. Measles rash spreading from face to extremities
64
Q

Complications of Measles

A
  1. URTIs spreading to pneumonia with superinfection
  2. Neurologic sequelae with myoclonic seizures

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) and giant cell pneumonia

65
Q

Which cells do Measles, Mumps and Rubella infect?

A

Epithelial cells (along URT, and lymph nodes for Rubella)

66
Q

Character and mode of transmission of Mumps and Rubella

A

Mumps: Enveloped ssRNA
Rubella: Non-enveloped ssRNA virus
Spread by respiratory droplets (common in spring and winter)

67
Q

Clinical presentation of Mumps

A
  1. Fever and cough related to URTI
  2. Parotid gland involvement and swelling
  3. Spread to implicate gonads (especially testes, will lead to infertility)
  4. Cervical lymphadenopathy
68
Q

Complications of Mumps

A

Orchitis, meningitis, pancreatitis

69
Q

Clinical presentation of Rubella

A
  1. Forschheimer spots on the palate
  2. Rubella rash
70
Q

Complications of Rubella

A
  1. Arthritis, Arthralgia, haematologic disturbances
  2. Teratogenic effects
71
Q

Examples of gastroenteritis viruses

A

Rotavirus, Norovirus

72
Q

Character of Parvovirus B19 and its mode of transmission

A

Non-enveloped icosahedral ssDNA virus
Respiratory droplets

73
Q

Parvovirus B19 replicates in ___

A

Rapidly developing cells

74
Q

Parvovirus B19 clinically presents itself as a ___ due to initial viremic phase ___. Could cause ___ leading to ___ and ___ in foetus

A

Slapped cheek appearance, erythema infectiosum
Anaemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, aplastic crises
Hydrops fetalis

75
Q

Character and mode of transmission of Rabies

A

Enveloped ssRNA Rhabdovirus
Spread by animal bites - dogs, fox, bat

76
Q

Rabies replicates in the ___. Enters ___ to infect the ___.

A

Connective tissue at the bite
Peripheral nerves, CNS

77
Q

3 phases of Rabies

A
  1. Prodromal phase with local pain and parasthesia
  2. Excitation phase with hyperventilation, disorientation, seizures
  3. Paralytic phase with lethargy and progressive paralysis
78
Q

Character and mode of transmission of Variola

A

Enveloped double stranded DNA Poxvirus
Spread by respiratory droplets

79
Q

Clinical presentation of Variola

A

Smallpox (systemic rashes more concentrated on extremities)
Infects URT then leads to systemic infection to internal organs

80
Q

Vaccination for Variola

A

Vaccinia

81
Q

Character and mode of transmission of Molluscum contagiosum

A

Enveloped double stranded DNA Poxvirus
Spread by direct contact or fomites

82
Q

Clinical presentation of Molluscum contagiosum

A

Umbilicated lesions mainly on the trunk and pubic areas in adults

83
Q

Character and mode of transmission of Polyomavirus

A

Non-enveloped icosahedral double stranded DNA virus
Not contagious

84
Q

Who does Polyomavirus normally infect?

A

Immunocompromised patients

85
Q

Clinical presentation of Polyomavirus

A
  1. Infection of tonsils and GIT, eventually crossing of BBB to infect oligodendrocytes
  2. Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy -> slow demyelinating disease
  3. Neurological symptoms
86
Q

HIV is a ___ with a ___ envelope. Outer membrane is derived from ___ while inner membrane is from ___. External docking proteins include ___ and ___. It has a ___ with ___. Core proteins include ___(3)___. Parenteral transmission includes ___.

A

Retrovirus, double
Host membrane, p17 matrix
gp120, gp41
Capsid, p24 capsomeres
Reverse transcriptase, protease, integrase
Blood, sexual, vertical

87
Q

Why is death by opportunistic infection common in HIV?

A

Reduced immunity and increased susceptibility as large viral load leads to reduced cellular immunity

88
Q

Diagnosis for HIV

A

Oraquick
ELISA for anti-p24
Western blot to test for gp41 and p24
PCR to determine viral load
Blood test to test for CD4 count

89
Q

HIV treatment

A

NRTI, NNRTI, Integrase and Protease inhibitors

90
Q

Clinical presentations of HIV

A

Incubation: Asymptomatic
- Mononucleosis-like infections (fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy, rash)
Seroconversion: Leukopenia, viral phase that is highly transmissable
Latent: Slowly decreasing CD4 counts but patient still normal due to buffer CD4
AIDS: Immunocompromised state as CD4 count falls below threshold, death by opportunistic infections

Microbiology (9 decks)

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