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IMMUNOLOGY & SEROLOGY > VIRAL SEROLOGICAL TESTS > Flashcards

VIRAL SEROLOGICAL TESTS Flashcards

1
Q

The only DNA hepatitis virus ; 1st discovered by Dr. Blumberg

A

HBV

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2
Q

Hepatitis virus:

Fecal-oral
Blood transmission

A

HAV & HEV

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3
Q

Hepatitis virus:

Parenteral
Sexual
Perinatal

A

HBV, HCV, HVD

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4
Q

Picornaviridae

A

HAV

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5
Q

Hepadnaviridae

A

HBV

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6
Q

Flaviviridae

A

HCV

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7
Q

Delta virus

A

HDV

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8
Q

Hepeviridae

A

HEV

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9
Q

Hepatitis with high mortality among pregnant women

A

HEV

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10
Q

Water-borne HEV Genotype

A

HEV 1 & 2

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11
Q

Zoonotic HEV Genotype

A

HEV 3 & 4

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12
Q

HBV : best indicator of early acute infection ; indicates acute of chronic HBV infection

A

HBsAg

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13
Q

Infectious form of hepatitis B virus

A

Dane particle

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14
Q

Not detected in serum because it is found only in hepatocytes

A

HBcAg

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15
Q

High levels of virus and high degree of of infectivity

A

HBeAg

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16
Q

Useful in detecting infection during the window period, indicator of current infection

A

Anti-HBc IgM

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17
Q

Life long marker of hepatitis

A

Anti-HBc IgG

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18
Q

First serologic evidence of convalescent phase

A

Anti-HBe

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19
Q

Bestows immunity to further HBV infection ; viral clearance of HBV

A

Anti-HBs

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20
Q

STATUS:

HBsAg : +
Anti-HBs : -
Anti-HBc : -

A

Early infection

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21
Q

STAUTUS:

HBsAg : +
Anti-HBs : -
Anti-HBc : +

A

Chronic infection

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22
Q

STAUTUS:

HBsAg : -
Anti-HBs : -
Anti-HBc : +

A

Window period

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23
Q

STATUS:

HBsAg : -
Anti-HBs : +
Anti-HBc : +

A

Recovery

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24
Q

STAUTUS:

HBsAg : -
Anti-HBs : +
Anti-HBc : -

A

Vaccination

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25
Q

First generation HBV test

A

Ouchterlony

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26
Q

Generation test:

Counter electrophoresis
Rheophoresis
Complement fixation

A

Secondary generation test

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27
Q

Generation test:

Reversed passive latex agglutination
ELISA
Reversed passive hemagglutination
Radioimmunoassay

A

Third generation tests

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28
Q

Aka post transfusion hepatitis

A

Hepatitis C

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29
Q

Co-infection and super infection with HBV

A

HDV

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30
Q

Clinical variant of HDV

Anti-HBc IgM: +

A

Co-infection

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31
Q

Clinical variant of HDV

Anti-HBc IgM : -

A

Superinfection

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32
Q

Differentiates co-infection from superinfection

A

Anti-HBc IgM

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33
Q

Large, complex DNA, enveloped ; latent infection with lifelong persistence in the host

A

Herpes infection

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34
Q

HSV 1 & 2, VZV, EBV, CMV, Human herpes virus (HHV-6, -7, -8)

These belong to what family

A

Herpesviridae

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35
Q

Result form intimate contact with salivary secretions from an infected individual

A

Epstein-Barr virus

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36
Q

Initial infection of EBV

A

OROPHARYNX

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37
Q

Virus infected B cells

A

EBV-specific antibodies
Heterophile antibodies
Autoantibodies

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38
Q

Aka kissing disease or glandular fever

A

Infectious mononucleosis

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39
Q

Characterized by lymphocytosis ; atypical lymphocytes (Downey cells) are observed

A

Infectious mononucleosis

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40
Q

Reacts with SHEEP cells, OX cells, and Horse cells but not with GUINEA PIG cells

A

Heterophile Antibodies in IM

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41
Q

Reacts with SHEEP cells, Horse cells, guinea pig cells, but not with BEEF CELLS (OX)

A

Heterophil antibodies of Forssman

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42
Q

Reacts with sheep, ox, horse and guinea pig cells

A

Heterophil antibodies in serum sickness

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43
Q

Screening/general test for Heterophil antibodies ; hemagglutination

A

Paul Bunnel test

44
Q

Paul bunnel test reagent : 2% suspension of _______

A

Sheep RBCs

45
Q

Davidson Differential test principle

A

Absorption-hemagglutination

46
Q

Davidson differential test antigen sources

A

Guinea pig cells and Beef cells

47
Q

Davidson differential test indicator cells

A

Sheep RBCs

48
Q

Agglutination pattern after absorption with beef cells : WITH HIGH TITER

A

FORSMANN

49
Q

Agglutination pattern after absorption with Guinea pig kidney cells: WITH HIGH TITER

A

IM

50
Q

more sensitive indicator of antibodies found on im

A

Horse RBC

51
Q

Interpretation

Peripheral blood : +
Anti-VCA IgM : +
Anti-VCA IgG : +
Anti-EBNA : -

A

Acute infection

52
Q

Interpretation

Peripheral blood : +/-
Anti-VCA IgM : +/-
Anti-VCA IgG : +
Anti-EBNA : +

A

Recent infection

53
Q

Interpretation

Peripheral blood : -
Anti-VCA IgM :-
Anti-VCA IgG : +
Anti-EBNA : +

A

Past infection

54
Q

Confirmatory test for EBV infection

A

Immunofluorescent assays (IFA)

55
Q

Blood component for cytomegalovirus

A

Leuko-reduced

56
Q

Causative agent of chicken pox

A

Varicella-Zoster virus

57
Q

RNA virus ; Genus Rubivirus ; family Togaviridae ; Causative agent of German measles or third disease

A

Rubella

58
Q

Genus Morbilivirus ; family Paramyxoviridae ; highly contagious and spreads by aerosol ; pathognomonic structure: “KOPLIK SPOT” ; agent of measles

A

Rubeola

59
Q

Requires an RNA-dependent polymerase to synthesize DNA from the RNA genome ; family Retroviridae sub family Lentiviridae ; has marked preference for T-helper cells (CD4(+))

A

HIV

60
Q

Serves as a receptor site for HIV

A

T-helper cells (CD4 +)

61
Q

HTLV-III (Human Lymphocytic Virus III)
LAV (Lymphadenopathy Associated Virus)
ARV (AIDS-associated Retrovirus)

These are other names of?

A

HIV

62
Q

Pandemic HIV type

A

HIV-1

63
Q

Less pathogenic HIV type ; has a lower rate of transmission ; discovered in 1986 in West Africa

A

HIV-2

64
Q

Gag gene codes for

A

p55

65
Q

Env gene codes for

A

gp160, go120, gp41

66
Q

Glycoprotein that binds to CD4 on T cells

A

Gp120

67
Q

Transmembrane glycoprotein

A

Gp41

68
Q

Codes for enzymes necessary for HIV replication

A

Pol

69
Q

p51

A

Reverse transcriptase

70
Q

P66

A

RNAse

71
Q

P31

A

Integrase

72
Q

P10

A

Protease

73
Q

Regulatory gene ; transactivator

A

Tat

74
Q

Regulatory gene ; regulator of expression of vision proteins

A

Rev

75
Q

Regulator gene ; negative effector

A

Nef

76
Q

Virus (____) attaches to susceptible host cell (___)

A

Gp120 ; CD4

77
Q

HIV replication co-receptor

A

CXCR4 , CCR5

78
Q

Initial viral replication can be detected in the presence of increased levels of ____ antigen

A

p24 antigen

79
Q

First antibodies to be detected are directed against the gp___ transmembrane glycoprotein, followed by the production of antibodies to the gag proteins such as p__

A

Gp41 ; p24

80
Q

The hallmark feature of HIV infection

A

Decreased CD4 cell population

81
Q

HIV stage: 2-4 weeks of infection ; body’s natural response to infection ; large amount of virus in the blood are very contagious

A

Stage 1: Acute HIV infection

82
Q

HIV stage: period can last a decade of longer ; people can still transmit HIV to others ; end of this phase, a person’s viral load starts to up and the CD4 cell count begins to go down

A

Stage 2: clinical latency

83
Q

HIV stage: most severe phase of HIV infection ; badly damaged immune system opportunistic illnesses ; end stage

A

Stage 3 : AIDS

84
Q

CD4 count of patient with HIV

A

<200/mm^3

85
Q

Normal CD4 count

A

> 1000 / mm^3

86
Q

For HIV initial screening test, it detects antibodies to ____________(combination)

A

HIV-1, HIV-2, and HIV-1 p24 antigen

87
Q

Samples that are reactive in the n initial test and nonreactive in the second test should then undergo _______ testing

A

Nucleic acid testing

88
Q

Screening tests: ELISA

Used purified viral lysate as antigen

A

First-generation

89
Q

Screening tests: ELISA

Used recombinant viral proteins

A

Second generation

90
Q

Screening tests: ELISA

Relied on the double antigen sandwich assay

A

Third generation

91
Q

Screening tests: ELISA

Detected antibody and p24 antigen

A

Fourth generation

92
Q

Screening tests: ELISA

Multiplexed screening test that detects and differentiates all tree HIIV analyte markers: HIV-1 antibodies, HIV-2 antibodies,, and the HIV-1 p24 antigen

A

Fifth generation assay

93
Q

Recommended by the CDC as confirmatory tests ; detect antibodies to HIV-1 and alone or to both HIV-1 and HIV-2 ; followed by the current recommended testing algorithm

A

Rapid tests for HIV antibodies

94
Q

Nitrocellullose or nylon strips containing individual HIV proteins

A

Western blot

95
Q

Position of low molecular weight antigen in western blot test strip

A

Bottom

96
Q

Position of high molecular weight antigen on western blot test strip

A

Top

97
Q

Western blot : several bonds (2/3) - indicative of??

A

Positive result

98
Q

Western blot : no band (0) - indicative of??

A

Negative result

99
Q

Western blot : intermediate (1/3) - indicative of??

A

Repeat test after 6 months

100
Q

CDC recommends routine HIV testing for all persons_______ years old and annual test for high risk individuals

A

13-64 years old

101
Q

According to criteria, a result should be reported as positive if at least two of the following bands are present: ____ ____ ____ ____

A

P24, gp41, and gp120/160

102
Q

5Cs principle recommended by WHO

A

Informed CONSENT
CONFIDENTIALITY
COUNSELING
CORRECT TEST RESULT
CONNECTION (linkage to care and treatment)

103
Q

Rapid diagnostic test principle

A

Immunochromatographic methods

104
Q

Antigens detected in the presence of Plasmodium falciparum (malaria)

A

Histidine Rich Protein 2 (PfHRP-2)
Plasmodium Lactate Dehydrogenase (pLDH)
Plasmodium Aldolase

105
Q

Polysaccharide capsule of C. neoformans becomes dissolved in the serum and CSF and can be detected by the _______ agglutination test or the ____ immunoasssay

A

Latex-based agglutination ; enzyme immunoassay

106
Q

Aspergillosis infection involves the detection of __________ and ______ in serum

A

Galactomannan and B-D-Lucan (BDG)

IMMUNOLOGY & SEROLOGY (7 decks)

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