BACTERIAL SEROLOGICAL TESTS Flashcards

1
Q

Serological test for Trichinosis

A

Bachman intradermal test

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2
Q

Serological test for tuberculosis

A

Tuberculin skin test
Mantoux test
Mendel’s
Vollmer’s patch
Von Pirquet’s

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3
Q

Serological test for Brucellosis

A

Brucellergen skin test

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4
Q

Serological test for coccidiomycosis

A

Coccidiodin skin test

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5
Q

Serological test for lympPHogranuloma venerum

A

Frei test

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6
Q

Schick test

A

Diphtheria

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7
Q

Dick test

A

Scarlet fever

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8
Q

Mullein test

A

Glander’s

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9
Q

Ascoli test

A

Anthrax

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10
Q

Moan test

A

Ascariasis

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11
Q

Casoni intradermal skin test

A

Hydatid disease

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12
Q

FranciS skin test

A

S. pneumoniae infection

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13
Q

Circum oval precipitin test

A

Schistosomiasis

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14
Q

Sabinfeldman test

A

Toxoplasmosis

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15
Q

Screening test for group A strep (S. pyogenes)

A

Bacitracin - susceptible

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16
Q

Confirmatory test for group A strep

A

PYR positive

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17
Q

Hemolytic pattern of group A strep

A

Beta hemolytic

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18
Q

Upper respiratory tract infection

A

Pharyngitis

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19
Q

Skin infection caused by S. pyogenes

A

Impetigo, erysipelas, cellulitis

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20
Q

Also known as the 2nd disease

A

Scarlet fever

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21
Q

Sequela to pharyngitis or tonsillitis

A

Acute rheumatic fever

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22
Q

Characterized by damage to the glomeruli in the kidneys

A

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

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23
Q

Diagnostically important antibodies

A

ASO
Anti-DNase B
Anti-NADase
Anti-Hyaluronidase

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24
Q

If acute convalescent phase sera are tested in parallel, a ______ rise in titer is considered significant

A

Four-fold rise

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25
Q

Number of test used for antibodies to different exotoxin

A

At least 2 tests

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26
Q

ASO is based on the ability of antibodies in the patients serum to ________ the hemolytic activity of streptolysin O

A

Neutralize

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27
Q

ASO titer is traditionally reported as

A

TODD units

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28
Q

Reciprocal of the highest dilution demonstrating no hemolysis

A

Titer

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29
Q

WHO recommended ASO titer reporting

A

International units

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30
Q

ASO titer moderately elevated if the titer is >____ Todd units in an adult, >____ Todd unit in a child

A

> 240 adult ; >320 child

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31
Q

Highly specific test for group A streptococcal sequelae

A

Anti-DNase B testing

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32
Q

The Anti-DNase B result is reported as the reciprocal of the highest dilution demonstrating a color intensity between ___ and ___

A

2 and 4

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33
Q

Agent of gastric and duodenal ulcers

A

Helicobacter pylori infection

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34
Q

H. pylori virulence factor : dysfunction of the cells signal transduction pathway

A

CagA

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35
Q

H. pylori virulence factor : codes for a toxin precursor

A

Vacuolating cytotoxin (VacA)

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36
Q

Primary method for Helicobacer pylori detection

A

Serological test : Antibody detection

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37
Q

Commonly detected immunoglobulin in helicobacter pylori detection

A

IgG

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38
Q

Leading cause of upper respiratory infection worldwide

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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39
Q

Cold agglutinin: IgM antibodies directed against the ______ found on the surface of the human RBCs

A

Altered I antigens

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40
Q

Cold isoagglutinins : agglutinate the RBCs at temperatures below _____

A

37 C

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41
Q

Storage for delayed testing of Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Frozen at -70 C

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42
Q

Cold agglutinins : clumping of RBCs is observed at what temp

A

4C

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43
Q

Cold agglutinins : reaction is reversible when the samples are warmed at ____

A

37C

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44
Q

Gold standard for the diagnosis of Mycoplasma infection

A

Molecular diagnosis (PCR)

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45
Q

Obligate intracellular ; gram negative ; arthropod borne

A

Rickettsia

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46
Q

A nonspecific test for the detection of antibodies against Rickettsial diseases

A

Weil-Felix test

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47
Q

Weil-Felix test principle

A

Direct agglutination

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48
Q

Rickettsial disease :

OX-19 : -
OX-2 : -
OX-K : ++++

A

Scrub

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49
Q

Rickettsial disease :

OX-19 : ++++
OX-2 : +
OX-K : -

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

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50
Q

Rickettsial disease :

OX-19 : -
OX-2 : -
OX-K : -

A

Q Fever
Rickettsial pox

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51
Q

Currently the method of choice for detecting Rickettsial infections

A

Serodiagnosis

52
Q

Agent of typhoid fever

A

Salmonella enterica subsp. enterica serotype typhi

53
Q

System that classifies the Genus Salmonella into serotypes

A

Kauffman-White classification

54
Q

Specimen on the 1st week of typhoid fever

A

Blood

55
Q

Specimen on the 2nd week of typhoid fever

A

Stool

56
Q

Specimen on the 3rd week of typhoid fever

A

Urine

57
Q

Used for the diagnosis of typhoid fever

A

Widal test

58
Q

Principle of slide test (widal test)

A

Direct agglutination

59
Q

Detection of specific IgM and IgG to salmonella typhi

A

Typhidot

60
Q

Slender, helically shaped, gram negative microaerophilic bacteria, PERIPLASMIC FLAGELLA, CORKSCREW flexion/motility,

A

Spirochetes

61
Q

Great fox/ evil fox/ Spanish disease/ the great imitator

These are other names of?

A

Syphilis

62
Q

Causative agent of syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum

63
Q

Causative agent of Yaws

A

T. pallidum subspecies pertenue

64
Q

Bejel

A

Non-venereal (endemic) syphilis

65
Q

Causative agent of non-venereal syphilis/bejel

A

T. pallidum subspecies endemicum

66
Q

Causative agent of Pinta

A

Treponema carateum

67
Q

TROMPs

A

Treponema rare outer membrane protein

68
Q

Appearance of hard chancre (localized lesion) ; endothelial thickening occurs with aggregation of lymphocytes, plasma cells and macrophages ; painless, solitary lesion characterize by raised and well-defined borders ; lasts from 1-6 weeks

A

Primary syphilis

69
Q

Primary syphilis lab test

A

Darkfield microscopy (+) motility (corkscrew)

70
Q

Usually about 1-2 months after primary chancre disappear ; generalized lymphadenopathy or enlargement; malaise; fever; pharyngitis; rash on the skin and mucous membrane ; appearance of CONDYLOMATA-LATA (wart-like lesion)

A

Secondary syphilis

71
Q

Patients are non infectious ; generally after 2nd year of infection ; characterized by lack of clinical symptoms ; the only indication of infection is a positive serologic test

A

Latent syphilis

72
Q

Patients are non infectious ; generally after 2nd year of infection ; characterized by lack of clinical symptoms ; the only indication of infection is a positive serologic test

A

Latent syphilis

73
Q

Latency within 1 year

A

Early latent syphilis

74
Q

Latency greater than 1 year

A

Late latent syphilis

75
Q

Occurs most often between 10 and 30 years following the secondary stage

A

Tertiary stage

76
Q

3 major manifestations of tertiary stage

A

Gummatous syphilis
Cardiovascular disease
Neurosyphilis

77
Q

Most common clinical manifestation ; localized areas of granulomatous inflammation that are most often found on bones, skin, and subcutaneous tissue

A

Gummas

78
Q

Asymptomatic involvement of the CNS and detected only by examination of CSF F

A

Neurosyphilis

79
Q

Caused by maternal spirochetemia and transplacental transmission of microorganism

A

Congenital syphilis

80
Q

Hutchinsonian triad

A

Hutchinsons teeth or notched teeth
Interstitial keratitis
Nerve deafness

81
Q

Nonspecific ; screening test for syphilis ; cardiolipin

A

Reagin antibody

82
Q

Specific ; confirmatory test for syphilis ; true treponemala antigen

A

Anti-treponema antibody

83
Q

Wasserman test
VDRL
RPR

A

Non treponemal/ non specific method

84
Q

Developed by the bacteriologist August Paul Von

A

Wasserman test

85
Q

Antigen crude liver extract from a fetus that was infected with syphilis ; complement fixation principle - no hemolysis (positive)

A

Wasserman test

86
Q

Uses hearted serum or CSF ; microscopically read ; flocculation

A

VDRL (venereal disease research lab test)

87
Q

VDRL reagent that detect reagin

A

Cardiolipin

88
Q

VDRL reagent that helps neutralize antibodies against Rickettsial-complementary properties of cardiolipin

A

Lecithin

89
Q

VDRL reagent that provides adsorption center and increased reacting surface of cardiolipin

A

Cholesterol

90
Q

VDRL rotator speed

A

180 rpm for 4 mins

91
Q

Serum VDRL ring diameter

A

14 mm

92
Q

CSF VDRL ring diameter

A

16 mm

93
Q

VDRL ring depth

A

1.75mm

94
Q

Qualitative serum VDRL: Gauge ___ needle without bevel that will deliver 60 drops of antigen suspension per mL

A

18

95
Q

Quantitative serum VDRL: Gauge ___ needle that will deliver 75 drops of antigen suspension per mL or gauge ____ needle with or without bevel that will deliver 100 drops of saline/mL

A

19 ; 23

96
Q

CSF VDRL : Gauge ____ needle that will deliver 100 drops/mL

A

21 or 22

97
Q

False positive VDLR results

A

SLE, RA, IM, Malaria, Pregnancy

98
Q

Uses unheated serum, result is read macroscopically ; flocculation

A

RPR

99
Q

RPR reagent that inactivates serum

A

Choline chloride

100
Q

RPR reagent that serves as preservative

A

Thimerosal

101
Q

RPR rotator speed

A

100 rpm for 8 mins

102
Q

RPR ring diameter

A

18 mm

103
Q

Antigen delivery needle: Gauge ____ needle, 60 drops/mL

A

Gauge 20 - Hamilton syringe

104
Q

Serological test used to detect reagin

A

Non treponemal/non specific methods

105
Q

Serological test that uses true treponemal Antigen ; detect treponemal antibody

A

Treponemal Serling test / specific methods

106
Q

Indirect flourescent assay ; Nichole strain dried and fixed on slide (reagent)

A

FTA-ABS (Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test)

107
Q

FTA-ABS absorbent ; remove cross-reactivity

A

Reiter treponemes

108
Q

NON PATHOGENIC treponemal antigen source

A

Reiter strain

109
Q

Pathogenic treponemal antigen source

A

Nichol’s strain

110
Q

Most specific and standard test for syphilis

A

TPI (Treponema pallidum Immobilization Test)

111
Q

TPI positive

A

> 50% immobilized treponemes

112
Q

Syphilis test used to monitor therapeutic response

A

VDRL

113
Q

Life-long syphilis marker

A

Treponemal antibody

114
Q

All pathogenic Borrelia are _____ borne

A

Arthropod borne

115
Q

Arthropod borne ; much less tightly coiled than those of the leptospira ; can be stained easily and visualized by bright field microscopy

A

Borrelia

116
Q

Causative agent of Lyme disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi sensu lato complex

117
Q

Arthropod species that transmits Lyme disease

A

Ixodes spp.

118
Q

Confirmation of IgM antibody presence includes reactivity for two of the three following bands: 24, 39, 41 kilodaltons

A

Western blot

119
Q

Westernb blot is used for the confirmation of IgM antibody presence includes reactivity for two of the three following bands:

A

24, 39, 41 kilodaltons

120
Q

Confirmation of IgM and IgG antibody presence

A

Western blot

121
Q

Spirals are very close together ; one or both ends of the organisms have hooks ; they can be impregnated with silver

A

Leptospires

122
Q

Leptospira culture medium

A

Fletcher semisolid medium

123
Q

Causative agent of leptospirosis

A

Leptospira interrogates

124
Q

Leptospirosis infection stage characterized by fever and headache

A

Septicemic stage

125
Q

Leptospirosis infection stage with jaundice

A

Immunological stage