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IMMUNOLOGY & SEROLOGY > SEROLOGY INTRO, PRECIPITATION & AGGLUTINATION REACTIONS, LABELED IMMUNOASSAY > Flashcards

SEROLOGY INTRO, PRECIPITATION & AGGLUTINATION REACTIONS, LABELED IMMUNOASSAY Flashcards

1
Q

Complement are inactivated by

A

Heating to 56 deg C for 30 mins - physical (VDRL-SYPH)
Choline chloride - chemical (RPR)

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2
Q

When more ___ hours has elapsed since inactivation, a specimen can be rein activated by heating it to ______ for ____

A

4 hours ; 56 deg C ; 10 mins

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3
Q

Serologic test that detects unknown antigen in specimen by using known or commercial anti-sera

A

Direct

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4
Q

Short storage of serum

A

2 deg C and & 8 deg c for up to 72 hours

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5
Q

Immunologic reaction ; Combination of a antigen-antibody ; non visible reaction

A

Primary

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6
Q

Immunologic reaction ; demonstrates antigen-antibody reaction

A

Secondary

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7
Q

Immunologic reaction ; immunologically in vivo ; biological reaction is detectable

A

Tertiary

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8
Q

First note by Kraus in 1897

A

Precipitation reaction

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9
Q

Involves combining SOLUBLE ANTIGEN with SOLUBLE ANTIBODY to produce INSOLUBLE COMPLEXES that are visible

A

Precipitation reaction

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10
Q

Optimum precipitation occurs in the

A

Zone of equivalence

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11
Q

Antibody excess occurs in the ____

A

Prozone

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12
Q

Antigen excess occurs in the ____

A

Post zone

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13
Q

Measures the reduction in light intensity caused by reflection, absorption, scatter

A

Turbidimetry

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14
Q

Measures light that is scattered in particular angle ; the amount of light scattered is an INDEX of the solution concentration

A

Nephelometry

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15
Q

No electrical current ; rate of diffusion is affected by the size of the particles, temperature, the gel viscosity, and the amount of hydration ; longer turn around time

A

Passive immunodiffusion

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16
Q

Single diffusion, single dimension
Single diffusion, double dimension
Double diffusion, double dimension

These are all examples of?

A

Passive immunodiffusion

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17
Q

Aka Oudin test ; end product precipitin line ; semi quantitative

A

Single diffusion, single dimension

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18
Q

Aka radial immunodiffusion ; precipitin ring end product ; quantitative: diameter is directly proportional to concentration ; ab is uniformly distributed in the support gel and antigen is applied to a well cut into the gel

A

Single diffusion, double dimension

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19
Q

Aka kinetic diffusion ; 19 hours ; diameter is proportional to log of the concentration

A

Father and Mckelvey method

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20
Q

Aka endpoint diffusion ; square of diameter is proportional to the concentration

A

Mancini method

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21
Q

Both antigen and antibody diffuse independently through a semisolid medium in two dimension, horizontally and vertically

A

Double diffusion, double dimension

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22
Q

In Double diffusion, double dimension, antibody hat is ____ is placed in the central well and different antigens are placed in the surrounding wells to determine if the antigens share identical epitopes

A

Multiseptic

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23
Q

Double diffusion, double dimension pattern : serological identity or the presence of a common epitope

A

Pattern 1 - arc pattern

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24
Q

Double diffusion, double dimension pattern : compared antigens share no common epitopes

A

Pattern 2 - crossed lines

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25
Q

Double diffusion, double dimension pattern : partial identity

A

Pattern 3 - spur formation

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26
Q

A technique that separates molecules using electrical current

A

Electrophoresis

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27
Q

A _____ is forced through gel, causing antigen, antibody, or both to migrate

A

Direct current

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28
Q

As diffusion takes place in electrophoresis, distinct _______ are formed

A

Precipitin bands

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29
Q

Radial immunodiffusion + electrophoresis

A

Rocket electrophoresis

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30
Q

In rocket electrophoresis, the total distance of antigen migration and precipitation is directly proportional to ______

A

Laurell technique

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31
Q

Double diffusion + electrophoresis

A

Immunoelectrophoresis

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32
Q

In immunoelectrophoresis, a _______ is then cut in the gel parallel to the line of separation ; useful procedures for the identification of _______

A

Trough ; monoclonal proteins

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33
Q

Immunoprecipitation + electrophoresis

A

Immunofixation electrophoresis

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34
Q

In immunofixation electrophoresis, _____ is applied directly to the gel’s surface rather than placed in a trough

A

Antiserum

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35
Q

Immunofixation electrophoresis is used to identify and characterize ______

A

Serum or urine proteins

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36
Q

Bands exhibited by hypogammaglobulinemia

A

Faintly staining bands

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37
Q

Bands exhibited by polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemias

A

Darkly staining bands in the gamma region

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38
Q

Bands exhibited by monoclonal antibody

A

Dark and narrow bands in specific lane

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39
Q

First demonstrated by Gruber and Durham in 1896

A

Agglutination reactions

40
Q

A process by which PARTICULATE ANTIGENS such as cells aggregate to form larger complexes when a specific antibody is present

A

Agglutination reactions

41
Q

Antibodies that cause agglutination

A

Agglutinins

42
Q

Initial antigen-antibody formation

A

Sensitization

43
Q

Clumping after centrifugation

A

Lattice formation

44
Q

Antigens are found naturally on the surface of the particles

A

Direct agglutination

45
Q

Blood typing
Kauffman and white serotyping
Widely test
Weil Felix test
Cold agglutinin test

These are all examples of tests with what type of agglutination reaction??

A

Direct agglutination

46
Q

Antigen is artificially attached to a particulate carrier (e.g.cells, latex, bentonite, colloid in, charcoal)

A

Passive agglutination

47
Q

Agglutination reactions that detects antibodies to virus such as rotavirus, cytomegalovius, rubella, Varicella-zoster, HBV, HIV, HCV

A

PASSIVE AGGLUTINATION

48
Q

In reverse passive agglutination, these are attached to particulate carries

A

Antibodies

49
Q

In reverse passive agglutination, _______ of antibody are facing outward

A

Active sites

50
Q

Reverse passive agglutination is used to detect ______

A

Microbial antigens

51
Q

Uses antibodies bound to a particle to enhance the visibility of agglutination

A

Co-agglutination

52
Q

Carrier in co-agglutination

53
Q

Staphylococcus aureus with Protein A

A

Co-agglutination

54
Q

Based on competition between particulate and soluble antigens for limited antibody combining sites

A

Agglutination-inhibition

55
Q

An indication of a positive agglutination-inhibition reaction

A

Lack of agglutination

56
Q

Involves haptens attached to carrier particles

A

Agglutination-inhibition

57
Q

Specific type of precipitation that occurs over a narrow range of antigen concentration ; antigen consists of very fine particles that clump together in a positiver reaction

A

Flocculation

58
Q

An example of test that uses flocculation

A

Non-treponemal tests (RPR & VDRL)

59
Q

Antigenic activity is stopped by its specific antibody ; highly insensitive because they only rely on a high enough concentration of the unknown

A

Neutralization

60
Q

Precipitation and agglutination are considered ______ because a marker label is not needed to detect the reaction

A

Unlabeled immunoassay

61
Q

Designed for antigens and antibodies that may be small in size or present in very low concentrations

A

Labeled immunoassay

62
Q

Used to detect whether or not specific binding has taken place

A

Labeled reactant

63
Q

All reactants are mixed SIMULTANEOUSLY ; labelled antigen competes with unlabeled patient antigen for a limited number of antibody binding sites

A

Competetitve

64
Q

labelled antigen competes with unlabeled patient antigen for a limited number of

A

antibody binding sites

65
Q

CAPTURE ANTIBODY is first passively absorbed to as solid phase such as micro titer plates, nitrocellulose membrane or plastic beads ; excess antibody is present so that any patient antigen present can be captured

A

Noncompetitive

66
Q

The amount of bound label is ________ proportional to the concentration of the labeled antigen

67
Q

NONCOMPETITIVE LABELED IMMUNOASSAY

_______ is the allowed to react with and be captured by the solid-phase antibody ; the amount of label measures is _____ proportional to the amount of patient antigen

A

Unknown patient antigen ; directly proportional

68
Q

LABELED IMMUNOASAY

Require a step to physically separate free from bound analyte

A

Heterogenous

69
Q

HETEROGENOUS LABELED IMMUNOASSAY

_______ is attached by physical adsorption; when specific binding takes place, complexes remain attached to the solid phase ; the sample is then ______ and the remaining activity is determined

A

Antigen/antibody ; thoroughly washed

70
Q

LABELED IMMUNOASSAY

Do not need a SEPARATION STEP ; activity of the label attached to the antigen is diminished when binding of a antibody and antigen occurs ; Simpler to perform because there is NO WASHING STEP

A

Homogenous

71
Q

Pioneered by Yalow and Berson in the late 1950s

A

Radioimmunoassay

72
Q

_____ have nuclei that decay spontaneously, emitting matter and energy ; uses ________ as label

A

Radioactive elements ; radioactive substances

73
Q

Gamma counter

A

Iodine-131 ; Iodine-125

74
Q

Beta counter

A

Hydrogen-3 ; carbon-14

75
Q

Most common radioactive label

A

Gamma counter - Iodine-125

76
Q

Radioactivity is measured by a ________

A

Scintillation counter

77
Q

Radioactive in the solid phase is ______ proportional to analyte concentration

78
Q

Antigen (sample) + antibody (reagent) + radioactive antigen ; most sensitive for drug assay, hormone

A

Competitive RIA

79
Q

____ Antigen (Sample) + radioactive antibody ; Amount of radioactivity is ____ proportional to the concentration of analyte

A

Non-competitive RIA ; directly proportional

80
Q

IRMA (immunoradiometric assay) is an example of what type of RIA

A

NON COMPETITIVE RIA

81
Q

In 1941, he demonstrated that antibodies could be labelled with molecules that fluoresce (fluorescent immunoassay)

A

Albert Coons

82
Q

Most common fluorescent immunoassay

A

Fluorescein isothiocyanate

83
Q

ANTIBODY that is conjugated with a fluorescent tag is added directly to unknown ANTIGEN that is fixed to a microscope slide

A

Direct immunofluorescent

84
Q

Patient is incubated with a KNOWN ANTIGEN attached to a solid phase such; washed and an ANTI-HUMAN containing a fluorescent tag is added

A

Indirect immunofluorescence

85
Q

FTA-ABS and FANA are examples of what type of immunofluorescent

A

Indirect immunofluorescent

86
Q

Based on the change in polarization of fluorescent light emitted from a labeled molecule when it is bound by antibody ; the degree of fluorescence polarization is ____ proportional to concentaration of the analyte

A

Fluorescence polarization immunoassay ; inversely proportional

87
Q

______ is used to measure the amount of polarized light

A

Polarization analyzer

88
Q

Disadvantage of fluorescence polarization immunoasay

A

Quenching = low fluorescence

89
Q

Enzyme immunoassay

React with suitable substrates to produce breakdown products:

A

Chromogenic, fluorogenic, or luminscent

90
Q

Enzyme-labeled antigen competes with unlabeled patient antigen for a limited number of binding sites on antibody molecules that are attached to a solid phase

A

Competitive EIA

91
Q

Enzyme activity is _______ proportional to the concentration of the analyte

92
Q

Indirect immunoassay ; the amount of color, fluorescence, or luminescence detected ______ proportional to the amount of antibody in the specimen

A

Non competitive EIA ; directly

93
Q

Microtiter plates
Nitrocellulose membranes
Magnetic
Latex plastic beads

These are used as a ____ in non competitive EIA

A

Solid-phase support

94
Q

Non competitive EIA is used to measure ______ to infectious agents that are difficult to isolate in the lab and autoantibody testing

A

Antibody production

95
Q

Rapid, simple to perform, adapt easily to automation (e.g. enzyme multiplied immunoassay technique — EMIT) ; for determination of hormones, therapeutic drugs, and drugs of abuse

A

Homogenous assay

96
Q

Emission of light caused by a chemical reaction

A

Chemiluminescent immunoassay

97
Q

Chemiluminescent immunoassay is measure in

A

Luminometer

IMMUNOLOGY & SEROLOGY (7 decks)

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