Vascular Disease (4) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 main arterial pathologies?

A
  • aneurysm
  • dissections
  • occlusions
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2
Q

______ is more likely to be affected by aneurysm and dissections

A

Aorta and its branches

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3
Q

What is the definition of aortic aneurysm?

A

Dilation of all 3 layers of artery, leading to >50% increase in diameter

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4
Q

What are S/S of aortic aneurysm?

A

D/t compression of surrounding structures
- Asymptomatic or pain

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5
Q

When is surgery indicated for an aortic aneurysm?

A

> 5.5 cm diameter
growth >10mm/yr, family h/o dissection

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6
Q

Aortic aneurysm rupture is associated with ____% mortality rate

A

75

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7
Q

What are the 2 types of aortic aneurysms?

A
  • Saccular: outpouching bulge to one side
  • Fusiform: Uniform circumferential dilation
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8
Q

What are diagnostic tools for aortic aneurysms?

A

CT, MRI, CXR, Angiogram, echocardiogram

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9
Q

In suspected dissection what is the fastest and safest measure of obtaining a diagnosis of aortic aneurysm?

A

Doppler echocardiogram

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10
Q

What are treatment options for aortic aneurysms?

A
  • Medical management to ↓expansion rate
  • Manage BP, Cholesterol, stop smoking
  • Avoid strenuous exercise, stimulants, stress
  • Regular monitoring for progression
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11
Q

_________ _________ ________ has become a mainstay over open surgery w/graft

A

Endovascular stent repair

CV surgeon on standby incase of rupture

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12
Q

What is an aortic dissection?

A

Tear in intimal layer of the vessel, causingblood to enter the medial layer

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13
Q

What type of dissection requires emergent surgical intervention?

A

Ascending dissection

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14
Q

What is the overall mortality of ascending aortic dissection? How is mortality affected with each hr that passes?

A

Overall mortality: 27-58%
Mortality increases by 1-2%/hr

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15
Q

What are S/S of aortic dissection?

A

Severe sharp pain in posterior chest or back

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16
Q

How is aortic dissection diagnosed (Stable vs unstable)?

A

Stable: CXR, CT, MRI, Angio
Unstable: Echo

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17
Q

What are the DeBakey classifications for aortic aneurysms/dissection?

A

DeBakey I: Tear in ascending aorta that propagates to the arch

DeBakey II: Tear confined to the ascending aorta

DeBakey III: Tear in descending aorta

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18
Q

What are the Stanford classifications for aortic aneurysms/dissection?

A

Stanford A: Tear in ascending aorta
Stanford B: Tear in descending aorta

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19
Q

What are the most commonly performed procedures for Stanford A dissections?

A
  • Ascending aorta & aortic valve replacement w/a composite graft
  • Ascending aorta replacement with resuspension of the aortic valve
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20
Q

If pt has Stanford A dissection with aortic arch involvement, what is the treatment plan? What does the treatment involve?

A

Surgical resection
- requires cardiopulm bypass, profound hypothermia and a period of circulatory arrest

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21
Q

Circulatory arrest at a body temp of _____ to ______C for 30-40 minutes can be tolerated by most pts that have surgical resection of aortic arch

A

15-18

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22
Q

_______________ deficit is a major complications associated with aortic arch replacement

A

Neurologic (seen in 3-18% of pts)

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23
Q

How is an uncomplicated Stanford B dissection treated?

A

Medical treatment if
- normal hemodynamics
- no hematoma
- no branch vessel involvement

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24
Q

What does medical therapy consist of for Stanford B dissections?

A
  • Intraarterial monitoring of SBP and UOP
  • Drugs to control BP and the force of LV contraction (BBs, Cardene, nipride)
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25
Q

What is the in hospital mortality rate of Stanford B dissections? What is the long term survival rate with medical Tx?

A

Mortality: 10%
Long term survival rate: 60-80% @ 5yrs, 40-50% @ 10yrs

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26
Q

When is surgery indicated for Stanford B dissections?

A

Signs of impending rupture
- persistant pain
- hypotension
- left hemothorax

OR
compromised perfusion to lower body

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27
Q

Which aortic dissections need emergent surgery?

A

Ascending arch dissections

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28
Q

What are risk factors for aortic dissections?

A
  • HTN
  • Atherosclerosis
  • Aneurysms
  • Fam Hx
  • Cocaine
  • Inflammatory diseases
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29
Q

What inherited disorders increase risk for aortic dissections?

A
  • Marfans
  • Ehler Danlos
  • Bicuspid aortic valve
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30
Q

What are common causes for aortic dissection?

A
  • Blunk trauma
  • Cocaine
  • Iatrogenic (medical treatment: cardiac catheterization, aortic manipulation, cross-clamping, arterial incision)
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31
Q

Which group of people is aortic dissection more common in?

A
  • Men
  • Pregnancy women in 3rd tri
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32
Q

What is the definition of aortic dissection?

A

Blood entry into the media

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33
Q

What is the definition of aortic aneurysm?

A

Dilation of all 3 aortic layers

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34
Q

Fun little chart

A
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35
Q

What triad of symptoms are seen with aortic aneurysm rupture in 1/2 of the cases?

A
  • Hypotension
  • Back pain
  • A pulsatile abdominal mass
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36
Q

Most abdominal aortic aneurysms rupture into the ______ _______________

A

Left retroperitoneum

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37
Q

What would prevent hypovolemic shock with a ruptures aortic aneurysm?

A

Clotting and tamponade in retroperitoneum preventing exsanguination

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38
Q

If retroperitoneal tamponade occurs, volume resuscitation may be delayed until the rupture is surgically controlled. Why?

A

To maintain a lower BP and reduce risk of further bleeding, hypotension, and death

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39
Q

What are 4 primary causes of mortality r/t surgeries of thoracic aorta?

A
  • MI
  • Respiratory failure
  • Renal failure
  • Stroke
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40
Q

What is important in preop assessment before thoracic aorta surgery?

A

Assess for presence of:
- CAD
- Valve dysfunction
- Heart failure

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41
Q

What may preclude a pt from aortic resection?

A
  • Low FEV1
  • Renal failure
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42
Q

What are predictors of post aortic surgery respiratory failure?

A
  • Smoking
  • COPD

Consider bronchodilators, ABX, CPT

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43
Q

What is the most significant indicator of post-aortic surgery renal failure?

A

Preop renal dysfunction

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44
Q

What are steps to prevent post-op aortic surgery renal failure?

A

Preop hydration
Avoid:
- hypovolemia
- hypotension
- low CO
- nephrotoxic drugs

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45
Q

If a patient has a history of stroke, what should be evaluated in preop before aortic surgery?

A
  • Carotid ultrasound
  • Angio of brachiocephalic and intracranial arteries
  • Severe aortic stenosis→ work up for CEA before elective surgery
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46
Q

What causes anterior spinal artery syndrome?

A

Lack of blood flow to the anterior spinal artery

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47
Q

The anterior spinal artery perfuses the anterior _____ of the SC

A

2/3

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48
Q

What happens as a result of ischemia to the anterior spinal artery?

A
  • Loss motor function below the infarct
  • Diminished pain and temperature sensation below the infarct
  • Autonomic dysfunction, leading to hypotension and bowel & bladder dysfunction
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49
Q

Why is Anterior spinal artery syndrome the most common form of spinal cord ischemia?

A

ASA has minimal collateral perfusion

Posterior spinal cord is perfused by 2 spinal arteries= better collateral circulation

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50
Q

What are common causes of ASA syndrome?

A
  • Aortic aneurysms
  • Aortic dissection
  • Atherosclerosis
  • Trauma
51
Q

What is the prominent predictor of CVA?

A

Carotid disease

52
Q

What percent of CVAs are ischemic vs hemorrhagic?

A

Ischemic: 87%
Hemorrhagic: 13%

53
Q

What is the 1st leading cause of disability in the US and 3rd leading cause of death in US?

54
Q

Risk factors of CVAs:

A

Sudden onset neurological deficits:

55
Q

What is a TIA?

A

Temporary self limiting ischemia
- S/S resolve w/in 24hrs
- 10x greater risk of subsequent stroke

56
Q

What diagnostics can be useful to detect carotid disease?

A
  • Angio (diagnose occlusion)
  • CT/MRI (less invasive, ID aneurysms/AVMs)
  • Transcranial doppler U/S (vascular occlusion)
  • Carotid auscultation (ID bruits)
  • Carotid U/S (quantify degree of stenosis)
57
Q

Where is a common site for carotid stenosis?

A

Carotid bifurcation→ d/t turbulent blood flow at the branch-point

58
Q

What does workup for carotid disease include?

A

Evaluation for sources of emboli:
- Afib
- Heart failure
- Valvular vegetation

59
Q

American heart association recommends TPA within _____hours of onset

60
Q

When is IR indicated for treatment of CVA?

A
  • Intra-arterial thrombolysis
  • Intravascular thrombectomy
    *benefits seen up to 8h after onset of CVA
61
Q

When is carotid endarterectomy indicated?

A

Surgical treatment for severe carotid stenosis (lumen diameter 1.5mm or >70% blockage)

62
Q

When is carotid stenting an option for CVA?

A
  • Alternative to CEA
  • Major risk of microembolization→CVA
  • Embolic protection devices developed to reduce risk; so far CVA risk still unchanged
63
Q

What is ongoing medical/ lifestyle treatment for CVA?

A
  • Antiplatelet tx
  • Smoking cessation
  • BP control
  • Cholesterol control
  • Diet & Physical activity
64
Q

What is involved in CEA preop evaluation?

A
  • Neuro eval (know preop deficits)
  • CV disease (MI major cause of periop mortality)
  • HTN common (establish acceptable BP to optimize CPP)
  • Cerebral oximetry devices (foresight/INVOS)
65
Q

What is indicated if a pt has severe carotid disease and severe coronary artery disease undergoing CEA procedure?

A
  • Must stage cardiac revascularization and CEA
  • Most compromised area should take priority
66
Q

What is cerebral oxygenation affected by?

A
  • MAP
  • CO
  • SaO2
  • Hgb
  • PaCO2
67
Q

What affects cerebral O2 consumption?

A
  • Temperature
  • Depth of anesthesia
68
Q

What is Peripheral artery disease and what is the criteria for it?

A
  • Compromised blood flow to extremities
  • Defined by ankle brachial index (ABI) <0.9
69
Q

What does the ankle brachial index measure?

A

Ratio of SBP at ankle compared to SBP at brachial artery

70
Q

Chronic hypoperfusion from PAD is typically d/t _________.

A

Atherosclerosis (may also include vasculitis)

71
Q

What causes acute occlusions with PAD?

72
Q

Atherosclerosis is systemic, meaning that pt with PAD have _______x increased risk of MI/CVA.

73
Q

What are risk factors of PAD?

A
  • Advanced age
  • Family Hx
  • Smoking
  • DM
  • HTN
  • Obesity
  • Increased cholesterol
74
Q

What are signs and symptoms of PAD?

A
  • Intermittent claudication
  • Resting extremity pain
  • Weak pulses
  • Subcutaneous atrophy
  • Hair loss
  • Coolness
  • Cyanosis

*Relief with hanging lower extremity over side of bed (increases hydrostatic pressure)

75
Q

How is peripheral artery disease diagnosed?

A
  • Doppler u/s (pulse volume waveform ID stenosis)
  • Duplex u/s (ID areas of plaque formation and calcification)
  • Transcutaneous oximetry (severity of tissue ischemia)
  • MRI w/contrast angio (guide endovascular intervention)
76
Q

What are medical treatment options for PAD?

A
  • Exercise
  • Control BP
  • Control cholesterol
  • Control glucose
77
Q

When is revascularization indicated for PAD? What procedures does this involve?

A

Disabling claudication or ischemia
- Surgical reconstruction- arterial bypass procedure
- Endovascular repair- angioplasty or stent placement

78
Q

What is a common cause of acute peripheral artery occulsion?

A

Cardiogenic embolism

common causes→ Left atrial thrombus from afib, left ventricle thrombus from cardiomyopathy after MI

79
Q

What are S/S of acute peripheral artery occlusion?

A
  • Limb ischemia
  • Pain/parasthesia
  • Weakness
  • ↓ peripheral pulses
  • Cool skin
  • Color changes distal to occlusion
80
Q

How is an acute peripheral artery occlusion diagnosed? What is the treatment?

A

Arteriogram

Tx: : anticoagulation, surgical embolectomy, amputation (last resort)

81
Q

What is subclavian steal syndrome?

A

Occluded SCA, proximal to vertebral artery
Vertebral artery flow diverts away from brainstem

82
Q

What are S/S of Subclavian Steal Syndrome?

A
  • Syncope
  • Vertigo
  • Ataxia
  • Hemiplegia
  • Ipsilateral arm ischemia
  • Effected arm BP may be 20mmHg lower
  • Bruit over SCAW
83
Q

What are risk factors for subclavian steal syndrome?

A
  • Atherosclerosis
  • Hx aortic surgery
  • Takayasu arteritis
84
Q

Treatment for Subclavian steal syndrome:

A

SC endarterectomy

85
Q

What is Raynauds phenomenon? Which gender is predominately effected?

A

Episodic vasospastic ischemia of the digits
- More common in women

86
Q

What are primary and secondary causes of raynauds phenomenon? (I dont think she really cares about these but just incase)

87
Q

What are S/S of raynauds phenomenon?

A

Digital blanching/cyanosis with cold exposure or SNS activation

88
Q

How is raynauds diagnosed? What is the treatment?

A

Based on history and physical
Tx: protection from cold, CCBs, Alpha blockers, surgical sympathectomy for severe ischemia

89
Q

What are common peripheral venous disease processes that occur during surgery?

A
  • Superficial thrombophlebitis
  • Deep vein thrombosis
  • Chronic venous insufficiency
90
Q

What is a major concern associated with PVD and why?

A

DVT→ can lead to PE→ leading cause of perioperative mortality

91
Q

What is virchows triad and what disease process is associated with it?

A

3 factors that predispose to VENOUS thrombosis
- venous stasis
- disrupted vascular endothelium
- hypercoagulability

92
Q

Risk factors for thromboembolism:

93
Q

Superficial thrombophlebitis and DVT are common in which surgeries?

A

Occur in 50% of total hip replacements
(normally subclincal and completely resolves)

94
Q

What are S/S associated with DVTs? What are risk factors and how is it diagnosed?

A

S/S: Extremity pain/swelling

Risk factors:
- >40y/o
- surgery >1hr
- cancer
- ortho surgery on pelvis/lower ex
- abd surgery

Dx: doppler u/s, venography, impedance plethysmography

95
Q

What are prophylatic measures to prevent DVTs?

A
  • SCDs
  • SQ heparin 2-3 days
  • regional anesthesia can greatly decrease risk (earlier postop ambulation)
96
Q

What is the treatment for DVT?

A

Anticoagulation
- Warfarin + Heparin/LMWH

97
Q

What are advantaged to LMWH over heparin in treatment of DVTs?

A
  • Longer E1/2L
  • More predictable dose response
  • Doesnt require serial labs
  • Less risk of bleeding
98
Q

What are disadvantages of LMWH?

A
  • higher cost
  • lack of reversal
99
Q

What is the goal INR when on warfarin and heparin tx for DVT? When is heparin d/c?

A

INR: 2-3

D/C heparin when warfarin gets to therapeutic INR

100
Q

How long are PO anticoagulants continued for DVT treatment?

A

6 months or greater

IVC filter may be indicated for recurrent PE or if anticoagulants are contraindicated

101
Q

What is systemic vasculitis?

A

Group of vascular inflammatory diseases categorized by the size of the vessels at the primary site of the abnormality

102
Q

What does large artery vasculitis include?

A
  • Takayasu arteritis
  • Temporal (or giant cell) arteritis
103
Q

What does medium artery vasculitis include?

A

Kawasaki disease, which usually affects the coronary arteries

104
Q

What does small artery vasculitis include?

A
  • Thromboangiitis obliterans
  • Wegener granulomatosis
  • Polyarteritis nodosa
105
Q

What is temporal (giant cell) arteritis?

A

Inflammation of arteries of the head and neck

106
Q

What are S/S of temporal arteritis?

A
  • unilateral headache
  • scalp tenderness
  • jaw claudication
  • opthalmic arterial branches may lead to ischemic optic neuritis and unilateral blindness
107
Q

How is temporal arteritis diagnosed and treated?

A

Dx: Biopsy of temporal artery shows arteritis in 90% of pts

Tx: Corticosteroids for visual symptoms (help prevent blindness)

108
Q

What is Thromboangitis Obliterans?

A

“Buerger disease”
- Inflammatory vasculitis leading to small & medium vessel occlusions in the extremities
- Autoimmune response triggered by nicotine

109
Q

What is the most predisposing factor for Buerger disease?

A

Tobacco
- Most prevalent in men <45

110
Q

What are the 5 diagnostic criteria for thromboangitis obliterans?

A
  • Smoking hx
  • Onset before 50
  • Infrapopliteal arterial occlusive disease
  • Upper limb involvement
  • Absence of risk factors for atherosclerosis
111
Q

How is thromboangiitis obliterans diagnosis confirmed?

A

Biopsy of vascular lesions

112
Q

What are symptoms of thromboangiitis obliterans?

A
  • Forearm, calf, foot claudication
  • Ischemia of hands & feet
  • Ulceration and skin necrosis
  • Raynaud’s is commonly seen
113
Q

What are treatment options for thromboangiitis obliterans?

A
  • Smoking cessation-most effective tx
  • Surgical revascularization
  • No effective pharmacological tx
114
Q

What are anesthesia implications for theomboangiitis obliterans?

A
  • Meticulous positioning/padding
  • Avoid cold; Warm the room and use warming devices
  • Prefer non-invasive BP and conservative line placement
115
Q

What is polyarteritis nodosa? What issues can it lead to?

A
  • Vasculitis of the small and medium vessels
  • Leads to glomerulonephritis, myocardial ischemia, peripheral neuropathy and seizures
    -May be assoc w/ Hep B, Hep C, or Hairy Cell Leukemia
116
Q

What is the primary cause of death in patient with polyarthritis nodosa?

A

Renal failure (HTN from renal disease)

117
Q

What is the treatment for Polyarteritis Nodosa?

A
  • Steroids
  • Cyclophosphamide
  • Treat underlying cause (Ex: Cancer)
118
Q

What are anesthesia considerations for pts with polyarteritis nodosa?

A

Consider coexisiting diseases:
- renal
- cardiac
- HTN
Steroids are beneficial

119
Q

What is lower extremity chronic venous disease and what percent of the population is effected?

A
  • Long standing venous reflex and dilation
  • 50% of population effected
120
Q

What are the risk factors for Lower Ex Chronic venous disease?

A
  • advanced age
  • family hx
  • pregnancy
  • ligamentous laicity
  • previous venous thrombosis
  • LE injuries
  • prolonged standing
  • obesity
  • smoking
  • sedentary lifestyle
  • high estrogen levels
121
Q

What are the ranges of lower extremity chronic venous disease?

A

Mild→ Severe
- mild sx: varicose veins, telangiectasias
- severe sx: edema, skin changes, ulceration

122
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for lower extremity chronic venous insufficiency?

A
  • Leg pain/heaviness
  • Fatigue
  • Confirmed by ultrasound showing venous reflux
  • Retrograde blood flow > 0.5 seconds
123
Q

What are the treatment options for lower extremity chronic venous insufficiency?

A

Start conservative
- Leg elevation
- Exercise
- Weight loss
- Compression therapy
- Skin barriers/emollients
- Steroids
- Wound management
- Diuretics
- Aspirin
- Antibiotics
- Prostacyclin analogues
- Zinc sulphate

124
Q

What is the next step if conservative medical management fails for lower extremity chronic venous disease?

A

Surgical intervention is last resort
Procedures: ablation
- Saphenous vein inversion
- High saphenous ligation
- Ambulatory Phlebectomy
- Transilluminated-powered phlebectomy
- Venous ligation
- Perforator ligation