Blood Disorders (3) Flashcards

1
Q

What does vWF play a critical role in?

A

platelet adherence/adhesion

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2
Q

What is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder?

A

vWF disorder

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3
Q

Symptoms of vWF:

A
  • easy bruising
  • recurrent epistaxis
  • menorrhagia
  • patients are usually unaware until questionaire/surgery
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4
Q

Classification of Inherited vonWillebrand disease:

A
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5
Q

Diagnosis for vWF disease:

A
  • PT and aPTT are often normal in patients with vWD
  • BT is prolonged
  • hematologist to analyze labs
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6
Q

Treatment for vWF disease:

A
  • Correct the deficiency of vWF
  • Use desmopressin
  • By the transfusion of the specific factor
  • Cryoprecipitate
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7
Q

Dose for DDAVP:

A

IV dose = 0.3 mcg/kg in 50 mL of normal saline over 15 to 20 minutes

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8
Q

What is DDAVP?

A

A synthetic analogue of vasopressin and stimulates the release of vWF by endothelial cells

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9
Q

The maximal effect of DDAVP:

A

The maximal effect is in 30 minutes and lasts from 6 to 8 hours

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10
Q

Side effects of DDAVP:

A
  • headache
  • rubor
  • hypotenstion
  • tachycardia
  • hyponatremia
  • water intoxication
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11
Q

For patients getting DDAVP, how can you decrease water intoxication, hyponatremia, and consequent seizures?

A

The administration of water, orally or intravenously, should be restricted for 4-6 hours after the use of the drug

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12
Q

CNS and ECG changes for serum Na of 120 meq/L:

A

CNS: confusion and restlessness
ECG: Widening of QRS

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13
Q

CNS and ECG changes for serum Na of 115 meq/L:

A

CNS: somnolence and nausea
ECG: Elevated ST segments, widened QRS

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14
Q

CNS and ECG changes for serum Na of 110 meq/L:

A

CNS: seizures and coma
ECG: Vtach or Vfib

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15
Q

What is a risk of giving cryoprecipitate?

A

Increase risk of infection/reaction because it’s not submitted to viral attenuation

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16
Q

How much does 1 unit of cryo raise fibrinogen?

A

50 mg/dL

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17
Q

Anesthesia considerations for patients with vWF disease:

A
  • general anesthesia
  • undergoing neuroaxial block = increased risk of developing a hematoma and compression of neurological structures
  • avoid traumas (intubating)
  • arterial puncture is not recommended
  • laryngeal trauma during intubation may cause hematoma - postop obstruction of the airways
  • avoid IM
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18
Q

Characteristics of heparin:

A
  • negatively charged, CHO containing glucuronic acid residues
  • inhibits thrombin
  • heparin derives its anticoagulant effect by activating antithrombin III
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19
Q

How do you monitor heparin intraop?

A

PTT and ACT

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20
Q

Reversing heparin:

A

Heparin’s anticoagulant effect is rapidly reversible by protamine (+ polypeptide forming a stable complex neutralizing heparin)

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21
Q

Which heparin is more effective for VTE prophylaxis?

A

LMWH is more effective compared to UFH

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22
Q

LMWHs have a more predictable ______ ______, fewer effects on ______ ______, and a reduced risk for ___.

A

Pharmacokinetic response;
platelet function;
HIT (heparin induced thrombocytopenia)

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23
Q

MOA of coumadin:

A

Interferes with hepatic synthesis of vitamin-k dependent coagulation factors (II, VII, IX, X)

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24
Q

What are the vitamin k dependent coag factors?

A

Factors II, VII, IX, X

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25
Q

Reversal for coumadin:

A

Vitamin K reverses coumadin anticoagulation - takes 6-8 hours to correct

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26
Q

More rapid reversal for coumadin:

A
  • Prothrombin complex concentrates (very expensive)
  • Recombinant factor VIIa and FFP
  • Cryo
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27
Q

What is MOA of fibrinolytics?

A

Act by converting plasminogen to plasmin which cleaves fibrin (breaking up clots)

28
Q

What are common fibrinolytics?

A
  • Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
  • Streptokinase (SK)
  • Urokinase (UK)
29
Q

What are anti-fibrinolytic agents?

A
  • Tranexamic acid
  • E-aminocaproic acid
  • Aprotinin
30
Q

What is the MOA of anti-fibrinolytics?

A

Inhibits conversion of plasminogen to plasmin (No clot breakdown)

31
Q

What is a wierd S/E of TXA?

A

Loss of color vision

32
Q

What is DIC?

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulopathy:

Systemic activation of the coagulation system simultaneously leads to thrombus formation and exhaustion of platelets and coagulation factors

33
Q

What underlying disorders may precipitate DIC?

A
  • Trauma
  • Amniotic fluid embolism
  • Malignancy
  • Sepsis
  • Incompatible blood transfusions
34
Q

What do you target when treating DIC?

A

Target the source

35
Q

What causes the bleeding aspect of DIC?

A

Depletion of platelets and coag factors

36
Q

What causes multiorgan failure associated with DIC?

A

Intravascular fibrin deposition→ Thrombosis of small and midsized vessels with organ failure

37
Q

What labs are reduced with DIC?

38
Q

What labs are increased with DIC?

A
  • PT
  • PTT
  • TT (thrombin time)
  • elevated concentrations of soluble fibrin degradation products
39
Q

_________ therapy is usually contraindicated in DIC.

A

Antifibrinolytic → potential for catastrophic thrombotic complications

40
Q

What is used to treat DIC?

A
  • Blood component transfusions→ need to replete coagulation factors and platelets consumed in the process
41
Q

What is the apache score used for?

A

Sepsis grading

42
Q

What are 2 examples of Prothrombotic disorders?

A
  • Factor V Leiden
  • HIT
43
Q

When the body is working normally, What inactivates Factor V to stop the clot from growing larger?

A

Activated Protein C

44
Q

What is Factor V Leiden?

A

An abnormal version of Factor V

  • Resistant to activated protein C
  • Activated protein C cant stop Factor V Leiden from making more fibrin
45
Q

What causes Factor V Leiden? When is it common to discover this condition?

A
  • Genetic mutation of Factor V

*Commonly discovered with pregnancy (inflammatory state)→ Causes late fetal loses

46
Q

What medication do you put someone on with Factor V Leiden?

A

Lovenox at home

47
Q

If a patient with factor V leiden has a fetal lose, what is the typical anesthesia plan?

A

DNC under GA
* Lovenox makes neuraxials high risk*

48
Q

Factor V Leiden is associated with increased risk of ______ developement.

A

DVT (with or without PE)

49
Q

What are common anticoagulant options for patient with Factor V Leiden?

A
  • Warfarin
  • Unfractionated heparin
  • LMWH (lovenox)
50
Q

Most Factor V Leiden are silent until ___________.

51
Q

What are common presentations of factor V Leiden?

A
  • DVT
  • Repeated missed abortions
  • Recurrent late fetal losses
52
Q

Why might prophylactic anticoagulation be indicated in some cases of Factor V Leiden?

A

Prevent venous or placental thrombosis→ Improved placental blood flow is likely to lead to better pregnancy outcomes

53
Q

What is HIT?

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia:

  • Autoimmune-mediated drug reaction after exposure to unfractionated heparin or (rare) LMWH
54
Q

What percent of patients experience HIT after heparin exposure?

A

as many as 5%

55
Q

When does HIT occur?

A

5-14 days after initial therapy

56
Q

What is the hallmark finding for HIT?

A

PLT count <100,000

57
Q

How can HIT cause potential for venous and arterial thromboses?

A

Platelet activation

58
Q

Evidence suggests that HIT Is mediated by ______ _________.

A

Immune complexes

59
Q

Which immune complexes are thought to mediate HIT?

A
  • IgG antibody
  • Platelet factor 4 (PF4)
  • Heparin
60
Q

Patients are who develop HIT have a substantially higher risk for ____________.

A

Thrombosis (30-75%)

61
Q

How do activate platelets behave during HIT?

62
Q

HIT should be considered for any patient experiencing __________ or __________ during or after heparin administration.

A

Thrombosis or Thrombocytopenia

63
Q

What is the first step if HIT is suspected?

A

D/C heparin (including unfractionated, heparin catheters, heparin flushes, LMWH)

64
Q

What can you give if heparin is d/c d/t concern for HIT?

A

Must give alternative AC→ Direct thrombin inhibitor (Bivalirudin, Lepirudin, Argatroban)

65
Q

What is an example of a synthetic factor Xa inhibitor?

A

Fondaparinaux

66
Q

PF4/Heparin immune complexes clear from the circulation within ___ months.

67
Q

T/F: Patients who have experiences HIT should avoid future exposure to unfractionated heparin