Physical Exam (1) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the components of a health assessment?

A

Health History
Physical Assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Tactic to use when asking about substance abuse during physical exam:

A

Blunt conversation to explain you just need to know but dont really care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A collection of subjective and objective data that provide a detailed profile of the client’s health status is known as _______________

A

Health History

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who is involved in the anesthetic time out?

A

anesthetist
surgeon
patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why does patient monthly income matter to us?

A

Might have impact on postop care (ability to fill prescription)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the scientific study of the measurements and proportions of the human body?

A

Anthropometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some descriptions for height/build?

A

Average, Tall, Short, Lanky (long and thin), Muscular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of patients are prone to positioning injuries?

A

Emaciated patients
Large patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What could be the issue for a patient that has had recent drastic weight loss or weight gain?

A

Drastic weight loss: Cancer, T1 diabetes

Drastic weight gain: heart failure, hypothyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where are some areas to measure BP?

A

Radial artery (above wrist)
Dorsalis pedis artery (midcalf)
Popliteal artery (above knee)
Brachial artery (upper arm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Axillary temps are approx ____ degrees less than core temps

A

1 degree Fahrenheit less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What vital sign is a big core measure for CRNAs?

A

temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In patients who smoke, who is at highest risk for lung cancer and should undergo screening with low-dose CT?

A

Patients who are 55 or older with 30 or more pack year history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is meant by a pack year? How many cigarettes per pack?

A

1 pack per day x 365 days

20 per pack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why is it important to know patient family information?

A

Important in peds and for discharge planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If a patient is crazy before being put under how would you expect them to wake up?

A

Often the way the patient goes to sleep is the way they wake up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the order for physical assessment?

A

Inspection
Palpation
Percussion
Auscultation
Olfaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the different types of palpation and the order to perform?

A

Light: 1-2cm depth

Deep: used to detect abdominal masses/fem pulse–4-5cm depth

Bimanual: both hands to trap a structure between then

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

______ involves tapping the body with the fingertips to evaluate the size, border and consistency of body organs and to discover fluid/air in body cavity

A

Percussion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Term for sound waves heard as percussion tones:

A

Resonance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of percussion involves putting a hand down and tapping on the hand?

A

Mediate or indirect percussion

Used mainly to evaluate the abdomen or thorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of percussion is used to evaluate the sinus or an infant thorax?

A

Immediate percussion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How is immediate percussion performed?

A

Striking the surface directly with the fingers of the hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is fist percussion and what is it used to evaluate?

A

Placing one hand flat against the body surface and striking the back of the hand with a clenched fist of the other hand

Used to eval back and kidney for tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where is a common location for tympany and what does it sound like?

A

Loud, high pitch, drumlike

Common in air containing space, enclosed are, gastric air bubble, puffed out cheek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

You are assessing a patient and performing percussion over the upper thorax. You notice a low pitches hollow sound of moderate intensity. What is the name for this sound and what does this finding indicate?

A

Resonance–normal percussion sound in normal lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What type of percussion sound might be presence in lungs with emphysema?

A

Hyper Resonance–very loud, very low, booming sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

You notice a thudlike percussion when assessing a patients abdomen that has a high pitch and moderate duration. What is this sound produced during percussion and where is this likely to occur in the body?

A

Dullness–common in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where is a common location to percuss an area that produces a “flatness” sound?

A

Muscle- High pitch, short duration, flat quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are things that should be noted with auscultation?

A

Intensity
Pitch
Duration
Quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What causes the yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes in a patient that is jaundice? What should be considered from a surgical standpoint?

A

Elevated bilirubin–assume liver function is impaired

Issues with poor clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Autoimmune disorder where body systems that fight infection start to fight off healthy cells (melanocytes):

A

Vitiligo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are some possible reasons for petechiae?

A

Prolonged straining (coughing/sneezing)
Meds
Infectious diseases
Leukemia
Thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the grades of pitting edema?

A

Grade 0: none
Grade +1: trace (2mm) rapidly disappears
Grade +2: moderate (4mm) 10-15 sec
Grade +3: deep (6mm) ≥1min
Grade 4+: very deep (8mm) 2-5 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is Koilonychias and what issues can it indicate?

A

“Spoon nails” abnormally thin nails that become flat or concave

Can be sign of Hypochromic anemia or Iron deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is associated with nail clubbing?

A

Mostly associated with heart and lung disease

Lung cancer, lung infections, interstitial lung disease, CF, CV disease (can sometimes be genetic and not disease related)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is Paronychia?

A

inflammation of the skin around the nail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Main consideration when assessing the eye:

A

Think about endocrine disorders (exophthalmoses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Eye condition that causes eyes to be misaligned:

A

Strabismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What block commonly causes ptosis?

A

Inter-scalene blocks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How does anesthesia cause ptosis?

A

Blocks
Horners Syndrome: Ptosis, Miosis, loss of temp sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Term for when the eye lid margin turns out (eversion):

43
Q

Term for when the eye lid turn inward (inversion):

44
Q

Abnormal drooping of the lid over the pupil

45
Q

Notable differences in pupil sizes

A

Anisocoria

46
Q

What is the treatment for a sty?

A

Warm moist towel–increases perfusion and unclogs the duct

47
Q

What type of eye injury is a surgical emergency?

A

Open Globe (full thickness wound of the eye wall)

48
Q

What do we have to consider with anesthesia and eyes?

A

increasing IOP with succs, face masks pushing on the eye, problems with mask ventilation if they have eye patch

49
Q

What stage on anesthesia includes roving eye balls and pupils partially dilated?

50
Q

What is Arcus senilis?

A

Common build up of fatty substance in the eye that appears as a white, grey, or blue ring around the cornea

51
Q

What medication causes pupillary constriction?

52
Q

What medications cause pupillary dilation?

A

Anticholinergics

53
Q

Differentiate retinal artery occlusion with corneal abrasion:

A

Retinal artery occlusion: complete loss of vision

Corneal abrasion: Blurry vision, feels like sand in the eye

54
Q

What does the snellen test evaluate?

A

Visual acuity by reading chart of letters/symbols

55
Q

What does extra ocular movement assessment help evaluate?

A

Optic nerve entrapment of the muscle–emergency

56
Q

Glaucoma involves loss of ____________ vision

A

Peripheral vision

(tunnel vision)

56
Q

How do cataracts impact vision?

A

Progressive loss of visual acuity

56
Q

What disorder might low set ears indicate?

A

Down syndrome–could have problems with airway (smaller neck, weird airway presentations)

57
Q

What can be used to alleviate pressure on an ear if patient is laying on it?

58
Q

What could bulging tympanic membrane indicate?

A

Elevated ICP

59
Q

Why are we concerned when a patient with basilar skull fracture has fluid leaking from ears or nose?

A

Could be CSF–Halo test

usually mixed with blood

60
Q

What is the Rinne test used for?

A

Primarily used to evaluate air vs bone conduction

61
Q

In recent years exposure to radiation has been linked to increase risk for _________ and ___________

A

Cataracts and Hearing loss

62
Q

What is the Webers test used for?

A

Used to determine which ear has conductive hearing loss

63
Q

Why is it important to avoid N2O if a patient has risk for elevated ICP or increased sinus pressure?

A

N2O can diffuse out into sinus spaces–Further increasing sinus pressure and ICP

64
Q

What can be used as a pretreatment to vasoconstrict the vessels in the nose and reduce risk of bleeding?

65
Q

Pale lips could be an indicator of…

66
Q

Where is a good site to visualize jaundice?

A

Buccal mucosa

67
Q

What vitamin deficiency could a bright red tongue indicate?

A

B12 or Niacin

68
Q

What a concern if a patients gums are bleeding?

A

Concern for hepatic issues and coagulopathy

69
Q

What can cyanosis or redness in the mouth indicate?

A

Iron deficiency

70
Q

White coating on the tongue could mean…

A

dehydration

71
Q

How can you assess the sinuses?

A

Transillumination: Take a light and shine it through the sinuses then ask patient to open their mouth:
-Normal would be to see the light shine through

-If there is build up on mucus the light wont shine through

72
Q

What issues can be indicated by the following lip colors: Cherry, Pallor, Cyanosis:

A

Cherry: CO poisoning
Pallor: Anemia
Cyanosis: Hypoxia or hypo perfusion

73
Q

What do gums look like if someone has a Vit-C deficiency?

A

Spongy gums that bleed easily

74
Q

What is Leukoplakia?

A

Thick white patches on the gums d/t smoking and alcohol

75
Q

How do you assess the pharynx?

A

Extend neck slightly, open the mouth widely and say “ah” place tongue depressor on the middle 1/3 of tongue and use pen light

Gag reflex should be present

No gag/ dysphagia= increase risk for aspiration

76
Q

How is the sternocleidomastoid function assessed?

A

Ask patient to flex the neck with the chin to the chest

shouldnt have any pain with this

77
Q

How to assess function of trapezius muscles?

A

Movement of the head sideways so that the ear moves toward the shoulder

neck should move freely without any pain

78
Q

What to do if you cant palpate the thyroid gland easily:

A

Give the patient water, take a sip and swallow as you palpate

79
Q

Where is the apical pulse located?

A

5th ICS medial to the mid-clavicular line

80
Q

What is the most common GU precedure?

A

Cystoscopy

80
Q

GU surgeries tend to have a rapid drop in BP, what can you be to try to avoid this? Cant remember why

A

Volume load

81
Q

Which cases typically require foleys?

A

Laparoscopic (need bladder decompressed)

Long cases

82
Q

What medication affects DTRs?

83
Q

Why is kyphosis a worry from airway standpoint?

A

Compressed chest space/lungs

84
Q

What are the common pathologic spine curvatures? How would the affect patient positioning?

A

Lordosis, Kyphosis, Scoliosis

Pad voids when patient is positioned to avoids injuries

85
Q

What does the Romberg test check for?

A

Proprioception

Patient closes eyes with arms out and becomes unsteady= positive Romberg (loss of proprioception)

86
Q

What does the VAN assessment screen for?

A

Large vessel occlusion

87
Q

What are the different reflexes discussed in class?

A

Biceps
Triceps
Patella
Achilles
Planter
Gluteal

88
Q

How does the arm move when testing bicep tendon?

A

Flexion on arm at the elbow

89
Q

How does the arm move when testing tricep tendon?

A

Extension at elbow

90
Q

What reflex is common to test on pregnant women who are on mag? How is it tested?

A

Patellar reflex

Leg hangs freely–tap patellar tendon just below patella

extension of lower leg

91
Q

How is achilles reflex tested?

A

Strike achilles tendon–causes plantar flexion of foot (pointed toe)

92
Q

How to eval plantar reflex? (babinski)

A

Have patient lie supine w/legs straight
Stoke lateral sole of heel to ball of foot

should cause plantar flexion of all toes

93
Q

How to assess gluteal reflex

A

Lightly stimulate perineal area with cotton applicator–should cause contraction of anal sphincter

94
Q

“Chipmunk face” is associated with what eating disorder?

95
Q

Spider angioma is commonly associated with what liver disorder?

96
Q

Pyloric stenosis is associated with that shape mass?

97
Q

Hyperthyroid is associated with ophthalmic changes?

A

Exophthalamus

98
Q

What physical feature is common with Cushing’s?

A

Buffalo hump

99
Q

Rice water stool is common with what illness?

100
Q

Leonine face is associated with _______.

A

Leprosy (Hansen’s Disease)

Leprosy is caused by infection with the bacterium Mycobacterium leprae. It mainly affects the skin, eyes, nose and peripheral nerves.