Hepatic (3) Flashcards

1
Q

How is non-alcoholic liver disease diagnosed?

A

Hepatocytes contain >5% fat→ Dx with imaging and histology

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2
Q

What are some causes of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A
  • Obesity
  • Insulin resistance
  • DM2
  • Metabolic syndrome
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3
Q

What can NAFLD progress to?

A
  • NASH (non-alcoholic steatohepatitis)
  • Cirrhosis
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma
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4
Q

______ and ______ have become additional leading causes of liver transplant in the US.

A

Non-alchoholic fatty liver disease
Non alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)

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5
Q

What is the treatment for NAFLD? When is a liver transplant indicated?

A

Diet and exercise

Liver transplant indicated for advanced fibrosis, cirrhosis related complications

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6
Q

___ out of 4 people have NAFLD regardless of weight

A

1

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7
Q

What are the 2 types of fatty liver disease?

A

Non alcoholic fatty liver disease
Alcoholic fatty liver disease

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8
Q

How is autoimmune hepatitis diagnosed?

A

Positive autoantibodies and hypergammaglobulinemia

AST/ALT may be 10-20x normal in acute

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9
Q

Is autoimmune hepatitis acute?

A

Can be asymptomatic, acute, or chronic

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10
Q

What is the treatment for Autoimmune hepatitis? Is it curable?

A

*Steroids
*Azathioprine (immunosuppressant)

60-80% achieve remission–relapse is common

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11
Q

Which group is predominantly effected by autoimmune hepatitis

A

Women

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12
Q

What is the most common cause of drug induced liver injury? Is it reversible?

A

Acetaminophen OD

*normally reversible after drug is removed

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13
Q

What are the 3 disorders characterized as inborn errors of metabolism?

A
  • Wilsons Disease
  • Alpha-1 Antitrypsin deficiency
  • Hemochromatosis
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14
Q

What are inborn errors of metabolism?

A

Group of rare, genetically inherited disorders that lead to a defect in the enzymes that breakdown and store proteins, carbs, and fatty acids

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15
Q

How common is wilsons, alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, and hemachromatosis?

A

1:2500 births

onset varies from birth to adolescence

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16
Q

What age is the most severe form of inborn errors of metabolism?

A

Most severe forms appear in the neonatal period→ high degree of mortality

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17
Q

What is Wilsons disease?

A

“Hepatolenticular degeneration”
Autosomal recessive disease characterized by impaired copper metabolism

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18
Q

How does copper build up cause issues with the liver (wilsons disease)?

A

Leads to oxidative stress in the liver, basal ganglia, and cornea

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19
Q

What are the S/S of wilsons disease?

A

Range from asymptomatic to sudden onset liver failure
Neurologic and psychiatric manifestations

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20
Q

How is Wilsons disease diagnosed?

A

*Serum Ceruloplasmin
* Aminotransferases
* Urine copper levels

-possible liver biopsy for copper level-

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21
Q

What is the treatment for Wilsons disease?

A

Copper chelation therapy
Oral zinc→ binds copper in GI tract

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22
Q

What is the function of alpha-1 antitrypsin?

A

Proteins that protect the liver and lungs from neutrophil elastase → an enzyme that disrupts tissues of the lungs and liver

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23
Q

_____________ is the #1 genetic cause of liver transplant in children

A

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

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24
Q

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a _______ disorder

A

Genetic

results in defective alpha-1 antitrypsin protein

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25
Q

How is a-1 antitrypsin deficiency diagnosed? What is the treatment?

A

Dx: A-1 antitrypsin phenotyping
TX: Pooled alpha-1 antitrypsin works for pulmonary symptoms (doesnt help the liver) \

-Liver transplant is the only curative treatment for liver disease from a-1 antitrypsin deficiency_

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26
Q

What is hemochromatosis?

A

Excessive intestinal absorption of iron

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27
Q

What could cause hemochromatosis if it is not genetically inherited?

A

Repetitive blood transfusions or iron infusions

*excess iron accumulates in the organs causes damage to the tissues

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28
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Hemochromatosis?

A
  • Cirrhosis
  • Heart failure
  • DM
  • adrenal insufficiency
  • Polyarthropathy
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29
Q

What labs would be elevated with hemochromatosis?

A

*Elevated AST/ALT
* Transferrin saturation
* Ferritin

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30
Q

How is Hemochromatosis diagnosed?

A

Genetic mutation testing
*echo/MRI diagnose cardiomyopathies and liver abnormalities
* liver biopsy may quantify iron levels in liver/assess damage

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31
Q

What is the treatment for Hemochromatosis?

A
  • Weekly phlebotomy
  • Iron chelating drugs
  • Liver transplant
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32
Q

What causes primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

Autoimmune, chronic inflammation of the larger bile ducts (intrahepatic and extrahepatic)

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33
Q

What is the MOA of Primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

Fibrosis in the biliary tree→ causes strictures (beads on string appearance)→ leads to cirrhosis, ESLD

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34
Q

T/F: Males are at greater risk for primary sclerosing cholangitis.

A

True; onset 40s

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35
Q

What are the S/S or primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

*Fatigue
* itching
* deficiency of fat soluble vitamins (A,D,E,K)
* Cirrhosis

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35
Q

What is Primary Biliary Cholangitis (PBC)?

A

Autoimmune destruction or bile ducts with periportal inflammation and cholestasis

Can cause liver scarring, fibrosis, cirrhosis

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35
Q

What labs changes are associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A
  • Increase alkaline phosphatase
  • Increase gamma-glutamyl-transferase
  • positive autoantibodies
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36
Q

How is Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) diagnosed?

A

*MRCP or ERCP showing biliary strictures w/ dilated bile ducts

*liver biopsy reinforces dx but isnt always performed

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36
Q

T/F: female children are mostly affected by primary biliary cholangitis.

A

False: MIDDLE age females are mostly affected by PBC

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36
Q

What is the treatment for primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

No drug treatments effective→ liver transplant is only long term treatment

re-occurance is common after transplant d/t autoimmune nature

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37
Q

What causes PBC?

A

Exposure to environmental toxins in genetically susceptible individuals

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38
Q

What are S/S of PBC?

A

*Jaundice
* Fatigue
* Itching

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39
Q

What labs valves are indicative of primary biliary cholangitis?

A
  • elevated alk phos
  • elevated GammaGlutamylTransferase (GGT)
  • Positive antimitochondiral antibodies
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40
Q

Why is imaging useful in PBC and what imaging is ordered?

A
  • CT, MRI, MRCP to rule out bile duct obstruction
    *Liver biopsy reveals bile duct destruction and infiltration with lymphocytes
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41
Q

What is the treatment for PBC?

A

No cure, exogenous bile acid slows progression

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42
Q

What qualifies for the diagnosis of acute liver failure?

A

*life threatening severe liver injury occurring within 6 months after insult
* rapid increase in AST/ALT, AMS, and coagulopathy

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43
Q

Almost ___% of cases of Acute liver failure are drug induced.

A

50% (majority acetaminophen)

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44
Q

Aside from medications, what are other causes of acute liver failure?

A
  • Viral hepatitis
  • Autoimmune hypoxia
  • Acute liver failure of pregnancy
  • HELLP
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45
Q

What happens with massive hepatocyte necrosis?

A

Cellular swelling and membrane disruption

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46
Q

What are S/S or acute liver failure?

A
  • Jaundice
  • Nausea
  • RUQ pain
  • Cerebral Edema
  • Encephalopathy
  • Multi-organ failure
  • Death
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47
Q

What is the treatment for Acute liver failure?

A

Treat the cause
Supportive care
Liver transplant

48
Q

What is the final stage of liver failure?

49
Q

What is pathophysiology of cirrhosis?

A

Normal liver parenchyma is replaced with scar tissue

50
Q

What are S/S of cirrhosis?

A

Often asymptomatic in early stages
* Progress to jaundice , ascites, varices, caogulopathy, encephalopathy

51
Q

What are the most common causes of cirrhosis?

A
  • Acute liver disease
  • Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
  • Hepatitis C
  • Hepatitis B
52
Q

What labs are elevated with cirrhosis? What is the cure for cirrhosis?

A

*AST/ALT
* Bilirubin
* Alk phos
*PT/INR
*thrombocytopenia

Transplant is the only cure

53
Q

What are complications of cirrhosis?

A

*Portal HTN
* Ascites
* Bacterial Peritonitis
* Varices (50% of pts)
* Hepatic encephalopathy
*Hepatorenal syndrome
* Hepatopulmonary syndrome
* Portopulmonary HTN

54
Q

What is the most common complication of cirrhosis?

55
Q

What causes ascites associated with cirrhosis?

A

Portal HTN leads to increased blood volume and peritoneal accumulation of fluid

56
Q

What is a dietary management of ascites?

A

Low salt diet
Albumin replacement

57
Q

What is the TIPS procedure?

A

Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPS)
*reduced portal hypertension and ascites

58
Q

What is the most common infection related to cirrhosis? How is it treated?

A

Bacterial peritonitis→ Abx

59
Q

What meds are used to reduce risk of hemorrhage in patients with varices?

A

*Beta blockers
* Prophylatic endoscopic variceal banding and ligation
* Refractory bleeding (balloon tamponade)

60
Q

Why does cirrhosis cause hepatic encephalopathy?

A
  • Build up of nitrogenous waste from poor liver detoxification
  • Neuropsychiatric symptoms
61
Q

What is the treatment for hepatic encephalopathy?

A
  • Lactulose, Rifaximin→ decrease ammonia-producing bacteria in the gut
62
Q

What is the MOA of hepatorenal syndrome? What is used to treat hepatorenal syndrome?

A
  • Excess production of endogenous vasodilators (NO, PGs)→ decrease SVR and RBF

*TX: Midodrine, ocreotide, albumin

63
Q

What are the symptoms of hepatopulmonary syndrome?

A
  • triad of chronic liver disease, hypoxemia, intrapulmonary vascular dilation
  • Platypnea from R to L intrapulmonary shunt
64
Q

What is portopulmonary HTN? What causes this?

A

Pulmonary HTN accompanied by portal HTN

Caused by systemic vasodilation that triggers production of pulmonary arterial vasoconstrictors

65
Q

What is the treatment for portopulmonary HTN?

A
  • PDE-inhibs
  • NO
  • Prostacylin analogs
  • Endothelin receptor antagonists

Transplant is the only cure

66
Q

What are the 2 scoring systems to determine the severity and prognosis of liver disease?

A
  • Child-turcotte-pugh (CTP)→ points based on bilirubin, PT, albumin, encephalopathy, ascites
  • Model for End Stage Liver Disease (MELD)→ score based on bilirubin, INR, creatinine, sodium
67
Q

How does alcoholism affect MAC?

A

Alcoholism increases MAC d/t rapid metabolism

68
Q

What are anesthesia consideration for patients with liver disease?

A
  • Careful H&P
  • Preop labs: CBC, BMP, PT/INR
  • Increase risk of aspiration (Hypotension/hypoxemia)
  • Slow onset of drugs and prolonged DOA
  • Bleeding and coagulation management
69
Q

What fluids are preferred from resuscitation in patient with liver disease?

A

Colloids> Crystalloids for resuscitation

70
Q

Which NMB are ideal for liver patients?

A

Succs and Nimbex (not metabolised in the liver)

71
Q

What is the purpose of the TIPS procedure?

A
  • Manage portal HTN
  • Stent places between hepatic vein and portal vein
  • Shunts portal flow into systemic circulation
  • Reduces portosystemic pressure gradient
72
Q

What are indication for TIPS?

A
  • Refractory variceal hemorrhage
  • Refractory ascites
73
Q

What are contraindications for TIPS?

A
  • Heart failure
  • Tricuspid regurg
  • Severe pulmonary HTN
74
Q

When is partial hepatectomy indicated?

A

Resection to remove neoplasms: leaving adequate tissue for regeneration

75
Q

How much of the liver can be removed in patient with normal liver function?

A

Up to 75% is tolerated

76
Q

Liver resections often cause post op _________ disturbances

A

Coagulation

77
Q

Want to maintain low CVP with fluid restriction prior to liver resection. Why?

A

Reduce blood loss

78
Q

Functions of the liver:
(there’s sooo many)

A
  • Synthesizes glucose via gluconeogenesis
  • Stores excess glucose as glycogen
  • Synthesizes cholesterol and proteins into hormones and vitamins
  • metabolizes fats, proteins and carbs to generate energy
  • Metabolizes drugs via CYP450 and other enzyme pathways
  • Detoxifies blood
  • Involved in acute phase of immune support
  • Processes HGB and stores iron
  • Synthesizes coagulation factors
  • Aids in volume control as a blood reservoir
79
Q

How much cardiac output does the liver receive?

A

25%
- 1.25-1.5 L/min

*highest proportionate COP of all organs

80
Q

What vessels does the liver receive blood from?

A

Portal vein and hepatic artery

81
Q

What two vessels does the portal vein arise from?

A

Splanchnic vein and superior mesenteric vein

82
Q

Portal vein blood is partially ____ after perfusing GI organs, ____ & _____.

A

deoxygenated; pancreas & spleen

83
Q

How much of hepatic blood flow does the portal vein and hepatic artery provide?

A
  • Portal vein = 75%
  • Hepatic artery = 25%
84
Q

How much O2 delivery does the liver receive from the portal vein and hepatic artery?

A
  • Portal vein = 50% (partially deoxygenated)
  • Hepatic artery = 50%
85
Q

Hepatic arterial blood flow is ____ r/t portal venous blood flow

86
Q

How does hepatic blood flow autoregulate?

A

The hepatic artery dilates in response to low portal venous flow, keeping consistent HBF

87
Q

Portal venous pressure reflects ____ arterial tone and ____ pressure

A

Splanchnic; intrahepatic

88
Q

What happens with increased portal venous pressure?

A

Blood backs up into systemic circulation
- esophageal varices
- gastric varices

89
Q

What is used to determine the severity of portal hypertension?

A

Hepatic Venous Pressure Gradient

90
Q

Normal portal venous pressure

A

HVPG 1-5 mmHg

91
Q

Clinically significant portal hypertension i.e. cirrhosis, esophageal varices

A

HVPG >10 mmHg

92
Q

Pressure for variceal rupture:

A

HVPG >12 mmHg

93
Q

Physical liver function assessment:

A
  • Often asymptomatic until late-stage liver disease
  • Even later stages may only have vague symptoms like disrupted sleep, decreased appetite
  • Rely heavily on “risk factors” for degree of suspicion
94
Q

Risk factors for impaired liver function:

A
  • Family hx
  • Heavy ETOH
  • Lifestyle
  • DM
  • Obesity
  • Illicit drug use
  • Multiple partners
  • Tattoos
  • Transfusions
95
Q

Physical exam findings for impaired liver function:

A
  • Pruritis
  • Jaundice
  • Ascites
  • Asterixis (flapping tremor)
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Splenomegaly
  • Spider nevi
96
Q

Hepato-biliary function labs:

A
  • BMP, CBC
  • PT/INR
  • Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
  • Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) *most liver-specific enzymes
  • Bilirubin
  • Alkaline phosphatase
    -ɣ-glutamyl-transferase (GGT)
97
Q

What are the 3 groups of hepatobiliary disease?

A
  • Hepatocellular injury
  • Reduced synthetic function
  • Cholestasis
98
Q

Hepatocellular injury labs:

A

↑AST/ALT
- Acute liver failure: may be elevated 25x
- Alcoholic liver disease: AST:ALT ratio usually at least 2:1
- NAFLD: ratio usually 1:1

99
Q

Labs with reduced synthetic function:

A

↓Albumin, ↑PT/INR

100
Q

Labs with cholestasis:

A

↑AlkPhosphatase,↑GGT,↑bilirubin

101
Q

How is bile secreted?

A

Hepatocytes secrete ebile through bile ducts into common hepatic duct → gallbladder and common bile duct
- gallbladder stores bile to deliver during meals, common bile duct secretes bile directly into duodenum

102
Q

Risk factors for cholelithiasis “gallstones”

A
  • Obesity
  • high cholesterol
  • DM
  • pregnancy
  • female
  • family hx
103
Q

Symptoms of cholelithiasis:

A
  • RUQ pain, referred to shoulders
  • N/V, indigestion
  • fever (acute obstruction)
104
Q

Treatment for cholelithiasis:

A
  • IVF
  • Abx
  • Pain management
  • Lap chole
105
Q

What the heck does Choledocolithiasis mean?

A

Stone obstructing CBD→ biliary colic

106
Q

Initial symptoms of choledocolithiasis:

A

N/V, cramping, RUQ pain

107
Q

Cholangitis symptoms:

A

Fever, rigors, jaundice

108
Q

Treatment for choledocolithiasis:

A

Endoscopic removal of stone via ERCP

109
Q

Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography:

A
  • Endoscopist threads guidewire through Sphincter of Oddi, into Ampulla of Vater to retrieve stone from pancreatic duct or CBD
  • GA, usually prone with left tilt (tape ETT to left)
  • Glucagon may be required in the event of Oddi Spasm
110
Q

What is bilirubin?

How is it excreted?

A

End product of heme breakdown

Unconjugated “indirect” bilirubin is bound to albumin, transported to liver, conjugated into its H2O-soluble “direct” state, excreted into bile

111
Q

What is Unconjugated (indirect) hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Imbalance between bilirubin synthesis and conjugation

112
Q

What is Conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Caused by an obstruction, causing reflex of conjugated bilirubin into the circulation

113
Q

____ is the most common viral hepatitis requiring liver transplant in the US

A

Hepatitis C virus

114
Q

Newer treatment for HCV in the US:

A
  • HCV genotype (75% type 1), HCV stage, +/- cirrhosis
  • 12 week course Sofosbuvir/Velpatasvir
  • Provides 98-99% clearance of genotype 1A/1B
115
Q

5 most common types of viral hepatitis

A

A, B, C, D, E

116
Q

Common symptoms of acute and chronic hepatitis:

A
  • Fatigue
  • Jaundice
  • N/V
  • Lack of appetite
  • Bleeding or bruising
  • Dark urine
117
Q

Characteristic features of viral hepatitis:

118
Q

What is the most common cause of cirrhosis? And top indication for liver transplants in the US?

A

Alcoholic liver disease

119
Q

Treatment for alcoholic liver disease:

A

Centered around abstinence
- manage symptoms of liver failure
- platelet count <50,000 requires blood transfusion
- Liver transplant an option is criteria is met

120
Q

Symptoms of Alcoholic Liver Disease:

A
  • Malnutrition
  • Muscle wasting
  • Parotid gland hypertrophy
  • Jaundice
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Ascites
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Pedal edema
  • *Sx of ETOH withdrawal may occur 24-72 hours after stopping
121
Q

Lab values for Alcoholic Liver Disease:

A

-↑Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
-↑Liver enzymes
-↑ɣ-glutamyl-transferase (GGT)
-↑Bilirubin
- Blood ethanol (acute intoxication)