Neuro (3) Flashcards

1
Q

What modulated cerebral blood flow?

A
  • Cerebral metabolic rate
  • CPP
  • PaCO2
  • PaO2
  • Various drugs/pathology
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2
Q

How is CPP calculated?

A

MAP-ICP

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3
Q

With autoregulation CBF is approx _____mL/____g brain tissue per minute

A

50mL/100g brain tissue per minutes
750mL/min

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4
Q

What percent of cardiac output makes up cerebral blood flow?

A

15%

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5
Q

What makes up the brain and spinal cord compartment?

A

*Neural tissue
*Blood
*CSF

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6
Q

What is the brain/SC compartment enclosed by?

A

Dura mater and bone

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7
Q

What is the combined volume of brain tissue, CSF, and intracranial blood?

A

1200-1500mL

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8
Q

When the intracranial volume is 1200-1500mL what is ICP maintained at?

A

5-15mmHg

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9
Q

What is the Monro-Kellie Hypothesis?

A

Any increase in one compartment of intracranial volume (tissue, CSF, blood) MUST be offset by a decrease in another component→ prevents elevated ICP

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10
Q

What happens to homeostatic mechanisms when ICP increases?

A

Homeostatic mechanisms increase MAP to maintain CPP

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11
Q

What happens if ICP is elevated and homeostatic mechanisms cant keep up to maintain CPP?

A

Cerebral ischemia occurs

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12
Q

The intracranial vault is considered _____________

A

Compartmentalized

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13
Q

___________ barriers separate the brain contents

A

Meningeal

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14
Q

What is the Falx cerebri?

A

A reflection of dura that separates the 2 cerebral hemispheres

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15
Q

What is the tentorium cerebelli?

A

Reflection of dura that is rostral to the cerebellum and separates supratentorial and infratentorial spaces

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16
Q

What are herniation syndromes categorized based on?

A

Region of the brain affected

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17
Q

Can there be increased ICP in just one area of the brain?

A

Yes, increases in contents of one are can cause regional increases in ICP

extreme cases the contents can herniate into different compartments

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18
Q

What is subfalcine herniation? What structures can be compressed?

A

Herniation of hemispheric against the flax cerebri

*often compressing branches of the anterior cerebral artery, creating a midline shift

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19
Q

What is transtentorial herniation? What structures are compressed?

A

Herniation of the supratentorial contents against the tentorium cerebelli

*causes brainstem compression in rostral to caudal direction

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20
Q

What are common S/S of transtentorial herniation?

A

*AMS
*Ocular reflex defects
*Hemodynamic/resp compromise
*Death

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21
Q

What is uncal herniation?

A

Subtype of transtentorial herniation wjere uncus herniates over the tentorium cerebelli

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22
Q

What is the uncus?

A

Medial portion of temporal lobe

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23
Q

What are S/S or uncal herniation?

A
  • Ipsilateral oculomotor nerve dysfxn
  • Pupil dilation
  • Ptosis
  • Lateral deviation of affected eye
  • Brainstem compression
  • Death
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24
Q

What can cause herniation of cerebellar tonsils? Where do the structures herniate through?

A

Elevated infratentorial pressure→causes cerebellar structures to herniate through foramen magnum

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25
Q

What are S/S of cerebellar tonsil herniation?

A

*Meduallary dysfxn
*Cardiorespiratory instability
*Death

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26
Q

Which number is subfalcine herniation?

A

1

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27
Q

Which number is transtentorial herniation?

A

2

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28
Q

Which number is cerebellar herniation?

A

3: Cerebellar contents through foramen magnum

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29
Q

Which number is showing herniation out of the cranial cavity? What can cause this?

A

4: Caused by trauma

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30
Q

What are causes of increased ICP?

A

*Tumors
*Intracranial hematomas
*Blood in CSF
*Infections

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31
Q

How do tumors lead to increased ICP?

A

*D/t size
*indirectly by causing edema in tissue
*obstructing CSF flow

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32
Q

Tumors involving the ____ ventricle commonly cause obstruction of CSF flow

A

3rd

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33
Q

How does blood in CSF cause increased ICP?

A

Seen with subarachnoid hemorrhage
*Obstruct CSF reabsorption
*granulation can exacerbate increased ICP

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34
Q

What specific infections commonly lead to increased ICP through development of edema or obstruction of CSF reabsorption?

A

*Meningitis
*Encephalitis

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35
Q

List methods to decreased ICP:

A

*Elevate head (encourage jugular venous outflow
*Hyperventilation (lower PaCO2)
*EVD (CSF drainage)
*Hyperosmotic drugs (draw fluid across BBB)
*Diuretics (systemic hypovolemia)
*Corticosteroids (↓ swelling, enhance BBB integrity)
*Propofol: Cerebral vasoconstrictor (↓CMRO/CBF)
*Surgical decompression

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36
Q

What are key take aways from a neuro assessment?

A
  • Know basic path for neuro disorders
  • Know pt baseline neuro deficits
  • Review imaging/neuro testing
  • Review current meds
  • Eval potential risk/benefit of anesthetics
  • Pre op measures to optimize pt condition
  • Clear pre op documentation of factors above and have rationale for chosen anesthetic plan
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37
Q

Which neurological disorders discussed in lecture are genetic?

A

*Multiple Sclerosis
*Myasthenia Gravis
*Lambert eaton syndrome
*Myasthenia syndrome
*Muscular Dystrophies
*Myotonic dystrophies

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38
Q

_________: progressive, autoimmune demyelination of central nerve fibers

A

MS

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39
Q

What is the onset for MS? What are risk factors?

A

20-40y/o onset

Female, 1st deg relative, Epstein Barr Virus, other autoimmune disorders, smoking

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40
Q

What are exacerbation triggers for MS?

A

*Stress
*Elevated temps
*Postpartum period

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41
Q

What are S/S of MS? What is the cure?

A

S/S: Motor weakness, sensory disorder, visual impairment, autonomic instability, sx vary d/t site of nerve demylination

Tx: no cure, manage with steroids, immune modulators, targeted antibodies (IVIG)

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42
Q

What are preanesthetic considerations for a patient with MS?

A
  • Assess existing deficits
  • PFT
  • CBC,BMP,LFT
  • Pre op steroids if long term steroid use
  • Critical temp management (temp changes can cause exacerbation)
  • Avoid SUCCs
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43
Q

What are acceptable anesthetic options for pt with MS?

A

Ga, regional, peripheral nerve blocks

avoid succs (hyperkalemia, upreg nAch receptors)

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44
Q

What is the pathophys of myasthenia gravis? When is muscle weakness exacerbated?

A
  • Autoimmune antibodies generated against nAch receptors at skeletal muscle end plate
  • Effects skeletal muscle (not smooth or cardiac muscle)

*Muscle weakness exacerbated with exercise

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45
Q

______ hyperplasia is common in MG. What can be done to improve symptoms associated with this?

A

Thymic hyperplasia (10%)

90% pt improvement after thymectomy

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46
Q

What are exacerbation triggers for MG?

A
  • Pain
  • Insomnia
  • Infection
  • Surgery
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47
Q

Treatment for MG:

A

*Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors→pyridostigmine
*Immunosuppressants
*Steroids
*Plasmapheresis
*IVIG

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48
Q

What are preanesthetic considerations for patients with MG?

A
  • PFTs
  • Reduce paralytic dose (avoid prolonged muscle weakness)
  • Caution with opioid (resp compromise)
  • Pyridostigmine may prolong Succs and ester LAs
  • pre op steroids if on long term
  • Discuss w/pt about increase risk for post op resp support/vent until fully recovered from anesthesia
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49
Q

Why do we want to check LFTs on some of these patients?

A

*On immunosuppresant meds that can cause liver function impairment

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50
Q

What labs do we want to pay attention to if a patient is on steroids?

A

*Glucose and electrolytes

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51
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Eaton-Lambert Syndrome?

A

Antibodies against VG Ca2+ channels (P type)
* reduce Ca2+ influx into presynaptic cell
* decrease Ach release from presynaptic cell at NMJ

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52
Q

> 60% of Easton Lambert syndrome are associated with _______________.

A

Small cell lung carcinoma (paraneoplastic syndrome)

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53
Q

What are S/S or eaton-lambert syndrome? What is the treatment?

A
  • Progressive limb-girdle weakness
  • dysautonomia
  • oculobulbar palsy
  • proximal muscle weakness (Improved with repeated use)

TX: 3-4 diaminopyridine (K+ channel blocker), Azathioprine, Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, steroids, plasmapheresis, IVIG

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54
Q

What are preanesthetic considerations for ELS?

A
  • Know existing deficits
  • PFTs
  • VERY sensitive to all NMB
  • MORE sensitive to ND-NMB than MG pts
  • extreme caution of NMB and opioid dosing
  • discuss with pt potential for resp support post anesthesia
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55
Q

What is the pathophys of muscular dystrophy?

A
  • Hereditary disorder causing breakdown of dystrophin-glycoprotein complex
  • leads to myonecrosis, fibrosis, skeletal muscle membrane permeability
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56
Q

How many types of MD are there? What is the most common and severe?

A
  • 6 types
  • Duchenne MD
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57
Q

What patient population is affected by duchenne MD? What is the average lifespan?

A
  • Occurs only in boys (autosomal recessive)
  • onset 2-5 y/o
  • wheelchair bound by 8-10
  • Lifespace 20-25y/o→ cardiopulmonary complications
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58
Q

What are S/S of muscular distrophy?

A
  • Progressive muscle wasting w/o motor/sensory abnormalities
  • Kyphoscoliosis
  • Long bone fragility
  • Respiratory weakness
  • Frequent pna
  • EKG changes
    elevated CK d/t muscle wasting
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59
Q

What are preanesthetic consideration for patient with muscular distrophy?

A
  • CBC,BMP, PFT, CK
  • Pre op EKG, echo
  • cautious with ND NMBs
    *avoid succs and volatiles (exacerbate membrane instability)
  • MH card with dantrolene available
  • regional better than GA (avoids triggers)
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60
Q

What can be triggered by succs and volatiles in patients with muscular dystrophies? What type of anesthetic would be better for these pts?

A

Hypermetabolic syndrome (similar to MH)
* Can lead to rhabdo, hyperkalemia, vfib, cardiac arrest

Consider low dose roc and TIVA for GA, OR Regional anesthesia

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61
Q

Prolonged contraction after muscle stimulation:

A

Myotonia

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62
Q

What is the most common for of myotonia? When is the onset?

A

Myotonic dystrophy→ onset 20-30s

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63
Q

What are S/S of myotonic dystrophy>

A

*Muscle wasting in face, masseter, hand, pre-tibial muscles

*may also affect pharyngeal, laryngeal, diaphragmatic muscles
*cardiac conduction may be affected (20% have mitral valve prolapse)

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64
Q

What is myotonia congenita?

A

Mild form of myotonic dystrophy that only involves skeletal muscles

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65
Q

What is central core disease? What are S/S?

A

*Rare
*core muscle cells lack mitochondrial enzymes

S/s: proximal muscle weakness and scoliosis

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66
Q

All myotonias are triggered by __________ and __________

A

Stress
Cold temps

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67
Q

What can myotonias be treated with?

A

*No cure
*S/S management with Quinine, Procainamide, steroids

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68
Q

What are preanesthetic considerations for myotonic dystrophies?

A
  • Know extent of cardiac and pulm abnormalities
  • assess heart and breath sounds
  • Aspiration risk (GI hypomotility)
  • High endocrine abnormalities
  • Keep pts warm (avoid flare ups)
  • Optimize preop resp status
  • avoid succs d/t fasciculations
  • caution with opioids (post op resp depression)
  • Increased risk for post op weakness
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69
Q

What are the 3 major dementia syndromes?

A
  • Alzheimers (70%)
  • Vascular dementia (25%)
  • Parkinsons (5%)
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70
Q

Which preop dementia meds may impact anesthetic?

A

*acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
*MAOIs
*Psych meds

71
Q

Why might TIVA be better for patients with dementia? Why is regional preferred over GA?

A

GA with volatiles increases risk for post op delirium

Regional preferred over GA to decrease opioid requirements

72
Q

What is the cause of Parkinsons? What is the biggest risk factor?

A

Unknown cause
Advanced age= biggest risk factor

73
Q

What is pathophys of parkinsons?

A
  • Degeneration of dopaminergic fibers of basal ganglia
  • Motor neurons become over stimulated
74
Q

What is the triad of symptoms associated with parkinsons?

A

*Skeletal muscle tremor
*Rigidity
*Akinesia

Rhythmic pill-rolling, facial rigidity, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing, respiratory difficulty, depression, demential

75
Q

What is the treatment for parkinsons?

A

*Levodopa (crosses BBB)
*Anticholinergics
*MAOIs (inhibit dopamine degradation)
* Deep brain stimulator

76
Q

What are preanesthetic considerations for parkinsons?

A
  • Assess severity (attn to degree of pulmonary compromise
  • Review home meds (interactions with anesthesia)
    *labs/PFT
  • EKG/echo
  • aspiration (dysphagia, dementia)
  • Continue PO levodopa
  • Avoid reglan, phenothiazines, butyrophenones
    *Avoid demerol in on MAOI
  • Disable deep brain stimulator
  • use of bipolar cautery if used
77
Q

Why is PO levodopa continued in preop?

A

Avoids unstable extreme EPS such as chest wall rigidity

78
Q

Common symptoms for brain tumors:

A
  • increased ICP
  • Papilledema
  • Headache
  • AMS
  • Mobility impairment
  • Vomiting
  • Autonomic dysfunction
  • Seizures
79
Q

____ are the most common CNS glial cells

A

Astrocytes

80
Q

What are the primary brain tumors, and least aggressive astrocytomas? Often found in young adults with new onset seizures

81
Q

Which brain tumors are mostly benign, good outcomes if resectable, and in children and young adults?

A

Pilocytic astrocytomas

82
Q

Which brain tumors are poorly differentiated and usually evolve into glioblastoma multiforme?

A

Anaplastic astrocytoma

83
Q

Which brain tumors carry a high mortality, usually require surgical debulking and chemo, and life expectancy is weeks?

A

Glioblastoma multiforme

84
Q

Usually benign, arise from dura or arachnoid tissue;
Good prognosis with surgical resection:

A

Meningiomas

85
Q

Noncancerous brain tumors, varying subtypes;
transsphenoidal or open craniotomy for removal is usually curative:

A

Pituitary adenomas

86
Q

Usually benign schwannomas involving the vestibular component of CN VIII within the auditory canal;
good prognosis w/resection +/- radiation:

A

Acoustic neuromas

87
Q

These brain tumors can vary widely in origin and symptoms; outcomes are generally less favorable:

A

Metastatic carcinomas

88
Q

Radiation damage may lead to ____ and ___.

A

lethargy and AMS
- Chemotherapy may also have neurological effects

89
Q

What are two common medications that patients with brain tumors are on?

A
  • Steroids to minimize cerebral edema (continue them)
  • Anticonvulsants
90
Q

What medication is given to reduce intracranial volume and pressure in brain tumor patients?

91
Q

In patient’s with brain tumors, ____ ____ may manifest on EKG, labile HR and BPs

A

Autonomic dysfunction

92
Q

What diagnostic testing would you consider for patients with a brain tumor?

A

CBC, BMP (glucose), EKG, CT/MRI

93
Q

____ is the leading cause of death and disability worldwide

94
Q

Strokes are characterized by sudden neurologic deficits resulting from:

A
  • Ischemia (88% of cases)
  • Hemorrhage (12% of cases)
95
Q

Blood is supplied to the brain from:

A
  • internal carotid arteries
  • vertebral arteries
96
Q

The internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries from the ___ that provides collateral circulation to multiple areas of the brain

A

Circle of Willis

97
Q

Occlusion of a vessel that perfuses a region of brain, causing brain cell necrosis:

A

Ischemic stroke

98
Q

Sudden focal vascular neurologic deficit that resolves within 24 hours

A

Transient ischemic attack

99
Q

___ of patients who experience a TIA will subsequently suffer a stroke

100
Q

If stroke is suspected, a ______ is needed to distinguish ischemic stroke from intracerebral hemorrhage

A

STAT non-contrast CT

101
Q

Causes of ischemic stroke are categorized according to the TOAST classification into 5 groups:

A
  1. Large artery atherosclerosis (e.g. carotid stenosis)
  2. Small vessel occlusion (e.g. lacunar stroke)
  3. Cardioaortic embolic (e.g. emboli from atrial fibrillation)
  4. Other etiology (e.g. stroke due to hypercoagulable states or vasculopathies)
  5. Undetermined etiology
102
Q

What is the initial recommended treatment for an ischemic CVA?

A

PO aspirin

103
Q

What is the time window for giving tissue plasminogen activator?

A

3-4.5 hours post onset

104
Q

Performed in interventional radiology, allowing for angiographic fluroscopy during administration of thrombolytics or thrombectomy:

A

Revascularization

105
Q

Assessment prior to revascularization:

A
  • avoid any delay in treatment
  • focus on baseline neuro assessment, ability to safely lay flat, and CV function
  • determine whether procedure could be done under sedation or if secure airway necessary
  • Patients with ischemic stroke often have CV risk factors and valvular disease that could impact vasoactive drug choices and hemodyamics
106
Q

What is a hemorrhagic CVA?

A

Bleeding inside the cranial vault that impairs perfusion of the brain

107
Q

Hemorrhagic stroke is ___ more likely to cause death than ischemic stroke

108
Q

What are the two most reliable predictors of outcome for a hemorrhagic CVA?

A
  • Blood volume
  • Change in LOC
109
Q

What does it mean that the cranial nerves are susceptible with MG?

A

Common Ocular Sx: Diplopia, ptosis

Bulbar involvement: can cause laryngeal weakness (resp insufficiency and aspiration risk)

110
Q

Conservative treatment of hemorrhagic CVA:

A
  • reduction of ICP
  • BP control
  • Seizure precautions
  • Monitoring
111
Q

Protocols for cerebrovascular disease:

A
  • New anticoagulant for thrombus = no elective cases w/in 3 months
  • Anticoagulants for CVA prophylaxis = consult prescriber to establish protocol
  • Close monitoring of coag status
  • High risk patients that pause LA anticoags will need SA coags
  • If regional is planned, d/c anticoags for sufficient time to safely perform block
112
Q

Pre-op assessment for cerebrovascular disease:

A
  • Assess orientation, pupils, bilateral grip strength, LE strength
  • Ask about headaches, tinnitus, vision/memory loss, bathroom issues
113
Q

What diagnostic testing would you get for a patient with cerebrovascular disease?

A
  • Imaging = Carotid US, CT/MRI head and neck, echo
  • Preop EKG
  • CBC, BMP, possible T&C
  • Cerebral oximetry is possible
114
Q

What do aceytlcholinesterase inhibitor drugs prolong?

A
  • Succs
  • Ester local anesthetics
115
Q

Majority of cerebral aneurysms not ____ before rupture

116
Q

Only ___ of aneurysm patients have symptoms before rupture

117
Q

What are symptoms of cerebral aneurysms?

A
  • Headache
  • Photophobia
  • Confusion
  • hemiparesis
  • coma
118
Q

Risk factors for cerebral aneurysms:

A
  • HTN
  • Smoking
  • Female
  • Oral contraceptives
  • Cocaine use
119
Q

Diagnostics for cerebral aneurysms:

A
  • CT/angio
  • MRI
  • Lumbar puncture w/ CSF analysis if rupture suspected
120
Q

How soon should interventions be performed for cerebral aneurysms for best outcome?

121
Q

Pre-anesthesia considerations for cerebral aneurysms:

A
  • CT/MRI
  • EKG
  • Echo
  • CBC, BMP, T&C w/ blood available
  • BP control, mannitol (to avoid rupture)
  • seizure prophylaxis
122
Q

Surgical treatment for cerebral aneurysms:

A
  • Coiling
  • Stenting
  • Trapping/bypass (very large aneurysms)
    *neurosurgeon may be on standby in case of intra-op rupture/SAH
123
Q

What causes post-SAH vasospasms?

A

Free hgb triggers inflammatory mediators which reduce nitric oxide availability and increase endothelin 1, leading to vasoconstriction

124
Q

When are patients at risk for vasospasms?

A

3-15 days post SAH

125
Q

Treatment for post-SAH vasospasms:

A

Triple H therapy - Hypertension, hypervolemia, hemodilution

126
Q

What are some interventional treatments for post-SAH vasospasms?

A

Balloon dilation and direct injection of vasodilators to relieve the spasm

127
Q

For post-SAH vasospasms, to avoid complications of hypervolemia, ____ is the initial main treatment

A

hypertension

128
Q

Pre anesthesia interventions for post-SAH vasospasms:

A

Same as aneurysm, although normally less invasive –

  • CT/MRI
  • EKG
  • Echo
  • CBC, BMP, T&C w/ blood available
  • BP control, mannitol
  • seizure prophylaxis
129
Q

Aneurysm grading for prognosis:

A

*Hunt and Hess classification will gauge the mortality of the patients (won’t have to use this)

130
Q

What is an arteriovenous malformation?

A

Arterial to venous connection without intervening capillaries - creates an area of high flow, low resistance shunting
- believed to be congenital

131
Q

Symptoms of AVM:

A

Range from mass-effects to hemorrhage

132
Q

What is the most common location for AVMs?

A

Supratentorial

133
Q

Diagnostic testing for AVM:

A
  • angiogram
  • MRI
134
Q

Treatment for AVM:

A
  • Radiation
  • Angio-guided embolization
  • Surgical resection (higher mortality)
135
Q

Pre-anesthesia considerations for AVM:

A
  • H&P
  • review meds
  • imaging
  • CBC, BMP, T&C, EKG, echo
  • BP control, mannitol?
  • Seizure prophylaxis
  • CVC or 2 large bore IVs, aline
136
Q

AVM grading system

A

Spetzier-Martin: ranges different severities

137
Q

Congenital brain abnormalities result from defects in the development or structure of the ___

138
Q

Are congenital brain abnormalities often hereditary?

139
Q

Congenital brain abnormalities may be diffuse or confined to specific ____ ____

A

Neuronal structures

140
Q

What is chiari malformation?

A

Congenital displacement of the cerebellum

141
Q

Downward displacement of the cerebellum:

A

Type 1 chiari malformation

142
Q

Downward displacement of cerebellar vermis, often associated with myelomeningocele

A

Type 2 Chiari malformation (arnold chiari)

143
Q

Rare, occipital encephalocele with downward cerebellar displacement

A

Type 3 chiari malformation

144
Q

Cerebellar hypoplasia w/o displacement of posterior fossa contents

A

Type 4 chiari malformation

145
Q

Symptoms of chiari malformation:

A
  • Headache
  • Extending to shoulders/arms
  • Visual disturbances
  • Ataxia
146
Q

Treatment for chiari malformation:

A

Surgical decompression

147
Q

Pre-anesthesia considerations for chiari malformation:

A
  • Review H&P
  • Deficits
  • Imaging
  • CBC, BMP, T&C
  • May hyperventilate to decrease ICP
  • Large bore IV x2 or CVC, aline
148
Q

What is Tuberous Sclerosis?

A

AKA “bourneville disease
- genetic disease causing benign hematomas, angiofibromas, and other malformations that can occur anywhere in the body

149
Q

Tuberous sclerosis lesions of the brain include:

A

Cortical tumors and giant cell astrocytomas

150
Q

Tuberous sclerosis often involves co-existing tumors of what?

A

Face, oropharynx, heart, lungs, liver, and kidneys

151
Q

Presentation for tuberous sclerosis likely includes:

A

Mental retardation and seizure disorders

152
Q

Anesthesia considerations for tuberous sclerosis:

A

Airway compromise, cardiac and/or kidney involvement

153
Q

What the heck is Von Hippel-Lindau Disease?

A

Genetic disease process involving formations of benign tumors of the CNS, eyes, adrenals, pancreas and kidneys

154
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau disease are commonly associated with what?

A

Pheochromocytoma
- take into account exaggerated HTN

155
Q

Types of neurofibromatosis:

A

Type 1 = most common
Type 2
Schwannomatosis (rare)

156
Q

Anesthesia considerations for neurofibromatosis:

A
  • Account for increased ICP, airway issues, scoliosis, possibility of pheo
157
Q

What would you want to avoid in patients with neurofibromatosis?

A

Neuraxial anesthesia due to high likelihood of spinal tumors

158
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A
  • Excessive CSF accumulation, causing ↑ICP, leading to ventricular dilatation
  • Accumulation of CSF is due to an imbalance btw CSF production and absorption
  • Can be congenital or acquired d/t meningitis, tumors,trauma, or stroke
159
Q

Are symptoms of hydrocephalus acute or chronic?

A

Can be both

160
Q

What is the main treatment for hydrocephalus?

A

Mainly diuretics - furosemide and acetazolamide decrease CSF production

161
Q

Other treatments for hydrocephalus:

A
  • Diuretics
  • Serial lumbar punctures (temporary)
  • Majority of cases require surgical treatment (VP shunt or ETV)
162
Q

What is the difference in a VP shunt and ETV?

A

VP shunt = drain placed in ventricle of the brain and empties into the peritoneum

ETV (endoscopic third ventriculostomy) = catheter placed into the lateral ventricle that drains into the peritoneal space, right atrium or pleural space (rarely)

163
Q

VP shunt malformation occurs most frequently in the ___ ___ of placement and have a ___ failure rate

A

1st year; high

164
Q

How are traumatic brain injuries categorized?

A
  • “penetrating” or “non-penetrating” depends on breech of dura
  • severity categorized by GCS
165
Q

When does primary injury occur in TBIs?

A

Occurs at the time of insult

166
Q

Secondary injuries from TBI:

A
  • Neuroinflammation
  • Cerebral edema
  • Hypoxia
  • Anemia
  • Electrolyte imbalances
  • Neurogenic shock
167
Q

Pre-anesthesia considerations for TBI:

A
  • Review co-morbidities,
  • degree of injury
  • Imaging
  • Labs
  • Neuro exam
168
Q

Interventions for TBIs:

A
  • C-spine stabilization, IV access, CVC, aline
  • Uncrossmatched blood if no time for T&C
  • Refrain from NGT/OGT (potential for basal skull fx)
  • Intra-op iSTAT labs, pressors, bicarb, calcium, blood products
169
Q

What is a seizure?

A

Transient, paroxysmal, synchronous discharge of neurons in the brain

170
Q

What transient abnormalities can cause seizure disorders?

A
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Hyponatremia
  • Hyperthermia
  • Intoxication
    *in these cases, treating the underlying disease is curative
171
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

Recurrent seizures d/t congenital or acquired factors

172
Q

Antiepileptic drugs decrease ____ excitability/ ___ inhibition

A

Neuronal; Enhance

173
Q

Pre-anesthesia considerations for seizure disorder:

A

Determine source of seizures and how well they are controlled
- want anti-seizure drugs on board before incision
- Review home drugs
- Phenytoin, tegretol, barbiturates are enzyme-inducers (pts on these meds require higher doses of hepatically-cleared medications)