Pre-Op Assessment (1) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the goal of pre-operative eval?

A

Ensure patient can safely tolerate anesthesia
Mitigate perioperative risks
Clinical examination

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2
Q

What are the possible outcomes after preoperative evaluation?

A

Proceed to surgery as planned

Delay surgery

Defer surgery

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3
Q

If surgery is delayed, what are some things that can be done to try to proceed with surgery at a later time?

A

Optimize comorbid diseases

Consult specialist

Specialized testing

Initiate interventions to decrease perioperative risk

Identify previously unrecognized comorbid conditions

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4
Q

How does the patient benefit from pre-op evaluation?

A

Reduce anxiety
Provides education and options
Questions answered
Discuss medications
Reduces post-op morbidity

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5
Q

Why is the pre-op eval important for anesthesia providers?

A

Learn of medical conditions
Devise an anesthetic plan (intra and post op)
Allows time to consult others if needed
Address DNR

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6
Q

What is the main part of the pre-op assessment that reduces morbidity and mortality during surgery?

A

Talking to the patient–the more we talk the better the interview and the more knowledge we have going into the procedure

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7
Q

How does the surgeon benefit from pre-op assessment?

A

Decreases cost of peri-operative care
Improve efficiency
Decreases cancellations/delays

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8
Q

Correct diagnosis can be made in ___% of cases on the basis of history alone.

A

56

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9
Q

What are the big “red flags” when discussing previous anesthesia/health history with a patient?

A

Malignant Hyperthermia
Acetylcholinesterase Deficiency
Hx of difficult airway

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10
Q

What are 2 medications that are important to know when the patient last took?

A

Lisinopril
Anticoagulants

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11
Q

What would be a concern if the patient is drunk?

A

worried about vomiting

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12
Q

What would be an issue if the patient is a chronic alcoholic?

A

Timing of last drink, worried about withdrawals/DTs

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13
Q

Things to consider if a patient uses methamphedamine?

A

If BP drops may not have expected response to pressor because they have been using ephedrine

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14
Q

What is the formula to calculate BMI?

A

Weight (kg) / [Height (m)]^2
OR
703 x weight (lbs) / [Height (in)]^2

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15
Q

Where did BMI originate from?
What is BMI used for in pre-op assessment?

A

Insurance companies

Used for risk factor assessment–doesnt account for muscle mass

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16
Q

What is the range for underweight, normal, overweight, and obese BMI?

A
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17
Q

What are some components of baseline neuro exam?

A

Arousal level

Sensation/movement in limbs

Ask about seizures–AEDs greatly decrease action of volatile anesthetics

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18
Q

What are 2 common CV related reasons to cancel/delay surgery?

A

Unstable angina
Decompensated heart failure

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19
Q

What is a big cause for post op renal issues?

A

Hypotension in OR

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20
Q

What can we do if pre-op assessment we find out pt has COPD/asthma?

A

mitigate risk with NEBs/steroids

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21
Q

What components are part of the emergent physical exam?

A

“AMPLE”
A: allergies
M: Meds
P: Past medical hx
L: Last meal eaten
E: Events leading up to surgery

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22
Q

If emergent surgery is required what do you want to pay special attention to during the physical exam?

A

Vitals (CNS, heart, lung)
Airway

If using regional block assess the site of the block pre-op

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23
Q

If surgery is emergent, what can be assumed in regards to GI?

A

Anticipate full stomach–digestion shuts off 8-10 hrs during fight/flight

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24
Q

How many classes are there for mallampati airway classifaction?

A

4

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25
Q

What is the inter-incisor gap measuring?

A

Gap between top and bottom of the teeth in the front of the mouth

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26
Q

What is the thyromental distance measuring?

A

Airway examination–measuring distance between thyroid and chin

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27
Q

What are other considerations for the airway pre-op exam?

A

Forward mandible movement (c-collar may impair)

Range of cervical spine motion

Document loose or chipped teeth, tracheal deviation (may need imaging)

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28
Q

What is responsible for 50% of deaths that occur in the OR?

A

CV event

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29
Q

What are the 3 big CV disorders we are worried about?

A

Aortic Stenosis
—hard to correct low BP
Heart failure
Ischemia
—If ischemic in one area probably ischemic in other areas

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30
Q

Why is AICD in a young person a red flag?

A

Probably cardiomyopathy–new push for echos in athletes preop (undiagnosed cardiomyopathy)

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31
Q

What is the most significant adverse event that can occur during anesthesia?

A

Hypoxemia

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32
Q

What can be used as predictors of outcome following anesthesia and surgery?

A

Integrative measures of respiratory function

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33
Q

What is the number on reason for lung surgery?

A

Masses/cancer

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34
Q

True of False: To diagnose OSA its important to look at body habitus.

A

False–cant assume obstruction based off body habitus

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35
Q

What is associated with upper respiratory tract infections in kids?

A

Ear infections

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36
Q

How does hyperglycemia affect anesthesia?

A

Delayed wound healing

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37
Q

Is it better to have higher BG or lower BG in pre-op before putting someone under anesthesia?

A

Better to be a little high–can give IV insulin in OR and check POC glucose

Unable to recognize hypoglycemia in someone under anesthesia–may need POC

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38
Q

What is the ideal blood sugar patients should have before going under GA?

A

Depends on patient–if uncontrolled DM runs in the 400s we want to definitely bring down but maybe 180s or so is ok

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39
Q

What pre-op lab value should be checked in a diabetic patient to see how brittle they are?

A

HA1C

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40
Q

Why is it important to know if someone has pheochromocytoma pre-op?

A

Can anticipate HTN with induction

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41
Q

What could be a complication of patient who says they have thyroid/parathyroid issues in pre-op assessment?

A

Electrolytes out of wack

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42
Q

What is the number one predictor of post of renal dysfunction?

A

Pre-op renal dysfunction

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43
Q

What happens to renal blood flow under surgical stress and anesthetic agents?

A

GFR decreases

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44
Q

What is emphasized in the pre-op evaluation of patients with renal insufficiency?

A

CV system
Cerebrovascular system
Fluid volume
Electrolyte status

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45
Q

What is the number one source of malignancy in the US?

A

Alcohol

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46
Q

Why is it important to know if your patient has advanced liver disease?

A

Sedative/opioids might have exaggerated effects

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47
Q

What things should be considered for a sickle cell patient who is scheduled for surgery?

A

Dehydration from NPO–may need fluid

Hematology consult

May need transfusion of special blood products (takes time to get)

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48
Q

When addressing is a patient is on blood thinners, what are important questions to ask?

A

List of medication

Genetics

supplements (gensing increases bleeding)

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49
Q

If a patient tells you in pre-op they have parkinsons, what is a concern for you?

A

If they are taking levodopa–causes issues with anesthesia

Get a good baseline neuro exam

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50
Q

Why is it important to know if a patient is taking steroids prior to surgery?

A

If someone is taking steroids every day they may not respond to stress the same way

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51
Q

What is ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Causes connective tissue to become hard and brittle–common to have in neck and makes it difficult to move (possible issue when intubating)

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52
Q

If a patient has RA, how does that affect your anesthesia care plan?

A

Knowing they are high risk for atlantooccipital dislocation–maybe modify intubation plan

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53
Q

Why should we ask about autoimmune diseases during patient pre-op assessment?

A

potential for big sympathetic overload associated with autoimmune diseases

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54
Q

Your patient tells you they have Raynauds during pre-op assessment–how could this discovery alter your anesthetic plan?

A

Patient is vasoconstricted baseline–caution with vasoconstricting medication

May need to adjust where SpO2 is monitored (poor blood flow in fingers)

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55
Q

How would a morbidly obese patient change your plan?

A

would need to consider difficult airway, positioning, etc.

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56
Q

What do you need to consider for patient’s that have had a previously transplanted organ?

A
  • They may be on steroids (won’t respond to stress the same) -
  • Transplanted hearts don’t respond to vagal stimulation
    talk to patient’s transplant center before surgery
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57
Q

What are some of the miscellaneous conditions to consider in an anesthetic care plan?

A
  • morbidly obese
  • pt with transplanted organs
  • pt with allergies
  • pt with substance abuse
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58
Q

How would an anesthetic plan change for the pediatric population?

A
  • you have to deal with parents; make sure to include them
  • may have devices that the parents know more about
  • may need to gas down before placing an IV
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59
Q

How would an anesthetic pan change for the pregnant population?

A
  • you’re taking care of 2 patients, mom and baby
  • would have to resuscitate both mom and baby
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60
Q

What consideration would you take when caring for a breast feeding mother?

A

Will the drugs I give affect the milk? If so, make sure to inform them so they can pump and dump

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61
Q

What is important to remember when caring for elderly patients?

A

They have more comorbidities

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62
Q

What court case in 1957 helped establish what the practice of informed consent was supposed to look like in the practice of modern medicine?

A

Salgo v. Leland Stanford Jr. University Board of Trustees

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63
Q

Why is informed consent important?

A
  • Respect for pt autonomy
  • Duty to inform pts about the risk and alternatives to treatment, procedures, and consequences
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64
Q

What are the 3 goals of shared decision making?

A
  1. Communicating with the pts about the risks and benefits of interventions
  2. Eliciting pts goals, values, and concerns
  3. Assisting pts in how to conceptualize the risks and benefits/how to approach the decision
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65
Q

What are the 3 types of code status orders in the peri-operative period?

A
  1. Full attempt at resuscitation
  2. Limited attempt at resuscitation defined with regared to specific procedures
  3. Limited attempt at resuscitation defined with regard to the pts goals and values
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66
Q

What does a DNR order “limited attempt at resuscitation defined with regard to specific procedures” mean?

A
  • Pt may refuse certain/specific resuscitation procedures
  • Anesthesia should inform pt about which procedures are essential and not essential for the success of the anesthetic and proposed surgery
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67
Q

What does a DNR order “limited attempt at resuscitation defined with regard to the pts goals and values” mean?

A

Allows the anesthesia and surgical team to use clinical judgement in determining appropriate resuscitation procedures

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68
Q

What are some modifiable risks factors in the elderly that you want to identify to optimize surgical outcomes?

A

Malnutrition, poor physical function, anxiety, social isolation

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69
Q

Function declines is associated with ____, _____, and _____ after surgery

A

morbidity, mortality, and loss of function
**assess ADLs and history of falls

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70
Q

What can be caused by cognitive impairment in the elderly?

A

Delirium, complications, functional decline, and death post-op

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71
Q

How does poor nutritional status in the elderly affect surgery?

A

Can cause infectious complications, wound complications, and increased length of stay
- Ex. surgical site infections, pneumonias, UTIs, dehiscence, anastomotic leaks

72
Q

What is frailty and what is it associated with?

A
  • An increased state of increased vulnerability to physiologic stressors
  • associated with adverse health outcomes post medical and surgical interventions and decreased life expectancy
73
Q

What is underdiagnosed in the eldery population?

A

Anxiety, depression, substance abuse, social isolation

74
Q

What is the percent chance of mortality in a high risk procedure?

A

Greater than 5%

75
Q

What are some examples of high risk procedures?

A
  • Aortic and major vascular surgery
  • peripheral vascular surgery
76
Q

What is the percent chance of mortality in an intermediate risk procedure?

77
Q

What are some examples of intermediate risk procedures?

A
  • intraabdominal surgery
  • intrathoracic surgery
  • carotid endarterectomy
  • head/neck surgery
78
Q

What is the percent chance of mortality in a low risk procedure?

79
Q

What are examples of some low risk procedures?

A

-Ambulatory surgery
-Breast surgery
-Endo procedures
-Cataracts
-Skin surgery
-Urology surgery
-Ortho surgery

80
Q

What is the prediction tool recommended by ACC/AHA that estimates risk of cardaic complications after surgery?

A

Revised Cardiac Risk Index

81
Q

What are the components of the Cardiac Risk Index assessment?

A

High risk surgery
Ischemic heart disease
Hx of CHF
Hx Cerebrovascular disease
DM on insulin
Creatinine >2.0

82
Q

What is used to assess cardiopulmonary fitness in patients and what does it help to predict?

A

Functional capacity

Estimates pt risk for major post-op morbidity/mortality

83
Q

What “units” is functional capacity measured in?

A

METs (metabolic equivalent of task)

84
Q

How many METs is considered good functional capacity?

A

> 4 METs (proceed with surgery)

85
Q

What exercise level do we want the patient to be able to achieve?

A

-Walk up stairs or walk at least 2 blocks without chest pain or sob

86
Q

1 MET = ________ mL/kg/min

A

3.5 mL/kg/min

87
Q

What are the 3 levels of timeliness for surgery?

A

Emergency
- directly to OR no pre-op cardiac assessment
-30min-6hr (usually want in OR within 1 hour)

Urgent
-Life/limb threatened if surgery did not happen within 6-24 hours

Time-sensitive
-Delay >1-6 weeks would adversely affect patient outcomes

88
Q

What is considered an elevated risk based on Revised Cardiac Risk Index?

89
Q

What are other operative risk factors to consider in addition to the ASA-PS overall risk assessment??

A

-The planned surgical procedure
-The ability/skill or surgeon
-Attention to postop care
-Past experience of anesthetist

90
Q

____________ is a widely used method of classifying the severity of coexisiting disease among surgical patients.

A

ASA Physical Status (American Society of Anesthesiologists)

91
Q

What are limitations to ASA-PS?

A

Variation is rankings determined by individual anesthesia providers

92
Q

What ASA-PS classification is a normal healthy patient?

93
Q

What ASA classification is a patient with mild systemic disease?

94
Q

Current smoker, social drinker, pregnant, BMI >30 <40, well controlled DM, mild lung disease are examples of which ASA classification (no substantive functional limitations)?

95
Q

What ASA-PS classification is a patient with severe systemic disease?

96
Q

What are examples of severe systemic disease in ASA III?

A

Substantive functional limitations–one or more moderate to severe disease(s)

poorly controlled DM, HTN, COPD, BMI >40, active hepatitis, alcohol abuse/dependence, pacemaker, moderate decrease EF, ESRD on HD, Hx >3 months MI, CVA, TIA, CAD/stents

97
Q

ASA-PS classification for a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life:

98
Q

Examples of severe systemic disease that is constant threat to life (ASA IV)

A

<3months MI, CVA, TIA or CAD/stents, on going cardiac ischemia, severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction in EF, sepsis, ARDS, ESRD not going to HD

99
Q

ASA-PS class for a moribund (brink of death) patient not expected to survive without operation:

A

ASA Class 5

only class that talks about surgery

100
Q

What are example of ASA class V?

A

Ruptured AAA/thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischemic bowel in face of significant cardiac pathology, MODS

101
Q

What ASA class is a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donation?

102
Q

What type of surgical case is ASA VI?

A

Emergent case

103
Q

When is additional pre-op testing indicated?

A

If it can identify abnormalities, change the diagnosis and management plan, or change the pt outcome

104
Q

When would you want to order CBC?

A

ASA-PS 3 or 4 undergoing intermediate risk procedures

All Pts undergoing major procedures

105
Q

Which patient would you want to check renal function on?

A

DM, HTN, cardiac disease, dehydrated, renal disease

ASA-PS 3 or 4 undergoing intermediated procedures

ASA-PS 2,3, or 4 undergoing major procedures

106
Q

When should pre-op coags be tested on patients?

A

Check on any patient who is:
-anticoagulated
-bleeding disorder
-anyone undergoing a major case

107
Q

What is the best assessment of diabetic therapy?

A

HbA1c: measurement of long term control over 3 months

108
Q

Your patient has unexplained fever/chills, what laboratory test would you order?

A

Urinalysis

109
Q

What is important to consider if giving sugammadex to a female patient?

A

Sugammadex could inactivate birth control for a few weeks–need to educate

110
Q

What are the 4 types of anesthesia?

A
  1. General
  2. IV/Monitored Sedation
  3. Regional
  4. Local
111
Q

What defines general anesthesia and when would you use it?

A

Total loss of consciousness and airway control
- ET or LMA used
- would be used for major surgeries (open heart, bowel, total joints)

112
Q

What is IV/Monitored sedation and when would you use it?

A

Level of sedation ranges - could be minimal (drowsy, able to talk) to deep (sleeping, may not remember)
- NC or face mask used
- would be used for minor surgeries/procedures or shorter (biopsy, colonoscopy)

113
Q

What is regional anesthesia and when would you use it?

A

Pain management method that numbs a large part of the body using a local anesthetic
- Epidural or spinal
- used for child birth or joint replacement in elderly patients

114
Q

What is local anesthesia and when would you use it?

A

Pain management method, usually a one time injection of local anesthetic that numbs a small area of the body
- used for skin or breast biopsy, bone/joint repair, procedures done in the ER

115
Q

What is the #1 group of drugs that cause anaphylaxis?

A

Neuromuscular blockers

116
Q

What is the #1 drug that causes anaphylaxis?

A

Rocuronium
(hypotensive, tachycardia, increased airway pressures, can’t ventilate)

117
Q

What are the 3 most common agents that cause anaphylaxis?

A
  1. NMB
  2. Antibiotics
  3. Chlorhexidine (iodine, skin prep)
118
Q

Patients with spina bifida are at high risk for ___ allergies

119
Q

What are risk factors for latex allergies?

A
  • multiple surgeries
  • occupational exposure to latex
  • food allergies that cross react (mango, kiwi, avocado, passion fruit, banana, chestnuts)
120
Q

What antibiotics are the most common causes of anaphylaxis?

A

Penicillin and cephalosporins
- small risk of cross-reactivity, usually rashes
- avoid in IgE -mediated allergy

121
Q

What are the two classes of local anesthetics?

A

Amides and esters

122
Q

What are people usually allergic to in esters?

A

The preservative Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)

123
Q

____ in local anesthetic causes adverse side effects, not an allergy

A

Epinephrine

124
Q

Most neuromuscular blocking agents are ____.

A

Quaternary ammonium compounds

125
Q

Cross-reactivity possible with allergy to neostigmine and ____.

126
Q

Why are opioids often listed as an “allergy”?

A

Commonly cause nausea, vomiting, itching, sleepiness - usually a side-effect, not an allergy

127
Q

What antihypertensive meds would you want to discontinue in pre-op?

A

ACE inhibitors and ARBs
- may d/c 24 hours before surgery
- can cause profound hypotension that is difficult to manage

128
Q

Meds to continue prior to surgery:

A
  • Anti-hypertensives
  • Cardiac medications
  • Anti-depressants, anxiolytics, and other psychiatric medications
  • Thyroid medications
  • Oral contraceptives
  • Eye drops
  • GERD medications
  • Opioids
  • asthma medications
  • Anticonvulsants
  • Corticosteroids
  • Statins
  • COX 2 inhibitors
  • MAOIs
129
Q

Meds to discontinue prior to surgery:

A
  • P2Y12 inhibitors (clopidogrel, ticagrelor, prasugrel, ticlopidine)
  • Topical medications - d/c day of surgery
  • Diuretics - d/c day of surgery
  • Sildenafil - d/c 24 hours before surgery
130
Q

Would you continue or discontinue aspirin prior to surgery?

A

Normally would d/c prior to surgery, but you would continue in patients with prior percutaneous coronary interventions, high-grade ischemic heart disease, or significant cardiovascular disease
- Typically d/c 10-14 days prior to surgery

131
Q

How long before surgery would you d/c NSAIDs?

A

48 hours before

132
Q

How long before surgery would you d/c Warfarin?

A

5 days before - continue in pt for cataract sx with topical or general anesthesia
- could substitute for lovenox or heparin

133
Q

How long before surgery would you d/c post-menopausal HRT?

A

4 weeks prior to surgery

134
Q

How long before surgery would you d/c non-insulin anti-diabetic medications?

A

Day of surgery - SGLT2 inhibitors d/c 24 hours before surgery

135
Q

How would you manage insulin in pre-op?

A

D/C short acting (regular) on day of surgery
- Continue insulin pump at basal rate
Type 1: take a small amount (approx 1/3) of usual dose of morning long-acting insulin on day of surgery
Type 2: Take none or up to half of long acting or combination insulin dose on day of surgery
consult with endo

136
Q

What medications would you want to avoid in patients taking MAOIs?

A

Meperidine and in-direct acting vasopressors (ephedrine)

137
Q

____ suppresses cortisol secretion at HPA axis

A

Exogenous glucocorticoids

138
Q

What percent of patients take multiple herbs?

139
Q

What percent of patients take prescription drugs?

140
Q

What are the effects and periop concerns for echinacea?

A
  • Activation of cell mediated immunity
  • allergic reactions, decreased effectiveness of immunosuppressants, potential for immunosuppressants with long term use
141
Q

What are the effects and periop concerns for ephedra?

A
  • Sympathomimetic effects
  • Risk of myocardial ischemia and stroke from tachycardia and HTN, ventricular arrhythmias with halothane, long term use depletes endogenous catecholamines
  • d/c 24 hours prior
142
Q

What are the effects and periop concerns for garlic?

A
  • inhibits platelet aggregation
  • may increase risk of bleeding, especially when combined with other medications that inhibit platelet aggregation
  • d/c 7 days prior
143
Q

What are the effects and periop concerns for ginger?

A
  • antiemetic, antiplatelet aggregation
  • may increase risk of bleeding
144
Q

What are the effects and periop concerns for ginkgo?

A
  • inhibits platelet activating factor
  • may increase risk of bleeding, especially when combined with other medications that inhibit platelet aggregation
145
Q

What are the effects and periop concerns for ginseng?

A
  • lowers blood glucose, inhibits platelet aggregation, increased PT/PTT in animals
  • hypoglycemia, may increase risk of bleeding, may decrease anticoagulant effect of warfarin
  • d/c 7 days prior
146
Q

What are the effects and periop concerns for green tea?

A
  • inhibits platelet aggregation, inhibits thromboxane A2 formation
  • may increase risk of bleeding, may decrease anticoagulant effect of warfarin
  • d/c 7 days prior
147
Q

What are the effects and periop concerns for Kava?

A
  • sedation, anxiolysis
  • may increase sedative effect of anesethetics, increase in anesthetic requirements with long term use unstudied
  • d/c 24 hours prior
148
Q

What are the effects and periop concerns for saw palmetto?

A
  • inhibits 5a reductase, inhibits cyclooygenase
  • may increase risk of bleeding
149
Q

What are the effects and periop concerns for St. John’s wort?

A
  • inhibits neurotransmitter reuptake, MAO inhibition unlikely
  • induction of cytochrome P450 enzymes, decreased serum digoxin levels, delayed emergence
  • d/c 5 days prior
150
Q

What are the effects and periop concerns for Valerian?

A
  • sedation
  • may increase sedative effect of anesthetics, benzodiazepine-like acute withdrawal, may increase anesthetic requirements with long term use
151
Q

According to the fasting guidelines, what can be given up to 8 hours prior to surgery?

A

Full meal - fatty foods, enteral tube feeds

152
Q

According to the fasting guidelines, what can be given up to 6 hours prior to surgery?

A

Light meal - toast and liquids, infant formula, nonhuman milk, coffee with milk

153
Q

According to the fasting guidelines, what can be given up to 4 hours prior to surgery?

A

Breast milk

154
Q

According to the fasting guidelines, what can be given up to 2 hours prior to surgery?

A

Clear liquids - water, sports drinks, carbonated beverages, coffee, tea, juice without pulp

155
Q

What is Mendelson syndrome?

A

Increased risk of aspiration due to:
>25 mL gastric residual volume and pH <2.5

156
Q

What can you do to prevent aspiration?

A

Decrease gastric volume and acidity

Raise pH

157
Q

What medications can you give to prevent aspiration?

A
  • Non-particulate antacids (sodium citrate) to increase gastric pH
  • H2 receptor antagonists (famotidine, ranitidine) to increase gastric pH, decrease gastric acid secretion
  • PPIs to increase gastric pH and decrease gastric acid secretion
  • Dopamine 2 antagonist (metoclopramide) to reduce gastric volume
158
Q

What are some risk factors for pulmonary aspiration?

A
  • Hx of incompetence of lower esophageal sphincter with reflux
  • active nausea/vomiting
  • Symptomatic hiatal hernia
  • Pregnancy
  • Esophageal and gastric motility disorders
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Significant opioid use
  • Neuromuscular disorders
  • Altered mental status
  • Obesity
  • Intra-abdominal masses
  • Acute abdomen
  • Bowel obstruction
  • Emergency surgery
  • Acute trauma
  • Hx of gastric surgery
159
Q

What are the 4 components of the Apfel score (PONV)?

A

Female gender
Hx of PONV
Nonsmoking status
Post op opioids

160
Q

What are the 5 components of the Koivuranta scoring system (PONV)?

A

Female gender
Hx of PONV/motion sickness
Nonsmoking status
Age (less than 50)
Duration of surgery

161
Q

What would be classified as low, moderate, and severe risk in the apfel score?

A

Low = 0 risk factors
1-2 risk factors = moderate to severe risk
3-4 risk factors = severe risk

162
Q

What would you do if the patient is a moderate to severe risk on the apfel score?

A

Prevention with 2-3 drugs from different classes

163
Q

What would you do if a patient is a severe risk on the apfel score?

A
  • Consider avoiding GA or use a propofol-based anesthetic
  • Minimize opioids
  • Prevention with 3 drugs from different classes
164
Q

PONV Risk factors in adults and children

165
Q

Scopolamine class and side effects:

A

Class: acetylcholine muscarinic antagonist - crosses BBB
S/E: sedation, dry mouth, blurry vision, confusion, mydriasis (can worsen with narrow-angle glaucoma)

166
Q

Pregabalin class and side effects:

A

Class: GABA analogue
- effects on PONV unclear; administered pre-induction
S/E: visual disturbances

167
Q

Ondansetron class and side effects:

A

Class: Serotonin antagonist
- administer before conclusion of surgery
S/E: blurred vision, headache, prolong QTc

168
Q

Promethazine class and side effects:

A

Class: histamine H1 antagonist
- administer small doses
S/E: sedation, dry mouth, blurred vision, prolong QTc

169
Q

Dexamethasone class and side effects:

A

Class: steroid
- administer after induction
S/E: perineal irritation/burning, increased blood sugars

170
Q

What medications can you use as adjunct analgesics?

A

NSAIDs, gabapentin, pregabalin, clonidine, acetaminophen

171
Q

When should patients receive prophylactic antibiotics?

A

Within 1 hour before surgical incision
- Pts who received vancomycin or a fluoroquinolone for prophylactic antibiotics should have the antibiotics initiated within 2 hours before surgical incision

172
Q

Which antibiotic is the most commonly adminstered for surgery?

A

Cefazolin - broad spectrum B-lactam antimicrobial agent
- some cross reactivity to PCN

173
Q

Which antibiotic is used as an alternative for a B-lactam allergy or a MRSA infection?

A

Clindamycin - effective against gram-positive aerobic bacteria

174
Q

What bacteria is vancomycin used for?

A

Gram-positive bacteria - alternative for B-lactam allergy or MRSA infection

175
Q

Antibiotic dosing:

176
Q

What are the 5 goals of a preop evaluation?

A

Decreased cost
Efficient services
Clinical productivity
Timely access to clinic
Patient and surgeon satisfaction