Renal (3) Flashcards

1
Q

Fluid/Volume homeostasis numbers (we should know this by now)

A
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2
Q

Osmolar homeostasis:

A
  • Mediated by osmolality-sensors in anterior hypothalamus
  • stimulates thirst
  • causes pituitary release of vasopressin
  • Cardiac atria releases ANP
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3
Q

Volume homeostasis:

A
  • Mediated by juxtaglomerular apparatus
  • JGA senses change in volume - this triggers RAAS
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4
Q

What’s the difference in osmolar and volume homeostasis?

A

Osmolar is mediated by osmolality sensors in anterior hypothalamus; Volume is mediated by JGA

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5
Q

What percent of hospitalized patients are hyponatremic?

What are the common causes?

A

15%

Over fluid resuscitation and increased endogenous vasopressin

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6
Q

Hyponatremia algorithm:

A
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7
Q

Neurologial S/S of hyponatremia:

A
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8
Q

The most severe consequences of hyponatremia include:

A

Seizure, coma and death

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9
Q

Treatment for hyponatremia:

A
  • treat underlying cause
  • hypertonic/3% NaCl: 80 ml/hr over 15 hours
  • slow and steady correction
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10
Q

Na+ correction should not exceed ___ mEq/L/hr

A

1.5

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11
Q

What can happen from rapid correction of hyponatremia (>6 mEq/L in 24 hours)?

A

Osmotic Demyelination Syndrome (often permanent neuro damage)

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12
Q

Treatment for hyponatremic seizures:

A

medical emergency
3-5 ml/kg of 3% over 20 minutes, until seizures resolve

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13
Q

Common causes of hypernatremia:

A
  • excessive evaporation
  • poor oral intake (very young, very old, ams)
  • overcorrection of hyponatremia
  • diabetes insipidus
  • GI losses
  • excessive sodium bicarb (treating acidosis)
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14
Q

Hypernatremia algorithm:

A
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15
Q

Symptoms of hypernatremia:

A
  • orthostasis
  • restlessness
  • lethargy
  • tremor, muscle twitching, spasticity
  • seizures
  • death
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16
Q

Treatment for hypernatremia:

A
  • Route cause, assess volume status
  • Hypovolemic = normal saline
  • Euvolemic = water replacement (PO or D5W)
  • Hypervolemic = diuretics
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17
Q

How fast do you want to reduce sodium in hypernatremic patients and why?

A

≤0.5 mmol/L/hr and≤ 10 mmol/L per day to avoid cerebral edema, seizures and neurological damage

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18
Q

What percentage of potassium is in the ECF?

A

<1.5%

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19
Q

Serum K reflects ____ K+ regulation more than ____ ____ K+

A

transmembrane; total body

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20
Q

What causes the distal nephron to secrete K+ (and reabsorb Na+)

A

Aldosterone

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21
Q

What happens to K+ excretion in renal failure?

A

K+ excretion declines - excretion shifts towards the GI system

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22
Q

Common causes of hypokalemia?

A
  • Renal loss: diuretics, hyperaldosteronism
  • GI loss: N/V/D, malabsorption
  • Intracellular shift: alkalosis, B agonists, insulin
  • DKA (osmotic diuresis)
  • HCTZ
  • Excessive licorice
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23
Q

3 major categories for cause of hypokalemia:

A

Renal loss, GI loss, transcellular shift

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24
Q

Symptoms of hypokalemia:

A

Generally cardiac and neuromuscular
- muscle weakness/cramps
- ileus
- dysrhythmias, U wave

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25
Q

Treatment for hypokalemia:

A
  • Treat underlying cause
  • Potassium PO > IV
  • K given @ 10-20 mEq/L/hr IV
  • avoid excessive insulin, beta agonists, bicarb, hyperventilation
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26
Q

How much does 10 meq IV K+ increase serum?

A

Each 10 meq increases serum K+ by ~0.1 mmol/L

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27
Q

Causes of hyperkalemia:

A
  • Renal failure
  • Hypoaldosteronism
  • Drugs that inhibit RAAS
  • Drugs that inhibit K+ excretion
  • Depolarizing NMB (sux)
  • Acidosis (respiratory/metabolic)
  • Cell death (trauma, tourniquet)
  • Massive blood transfusion
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28
Q

How much does succinylcholine increase serum K+?

A

0.5-1 mEq/L

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29
Q

Symptoms of hyperkalemia:

A
  • Chronic may be minimally symptomatic (malaise, GI upset)
  • Skeletal muscle paralysis, decreased fine motor
  • Cardiac dysrhythmias
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30
Q

EKG progression in hyperkalemia:

A
  • peaked T wave
  • P wave disappearance
  • prolonged QRS complex
  • sine waves
  • asystole
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31
Q

Treatment for hyperkalemia:

A
  • dialyze within 24h prior to surgery
  • 1st initial treatment = calcium (stabilize cell membrane)
  • hyperventilation
  • Insulin +/- glucose
  • Bicarb
  • Loop diuretics
  • Kayexalate (hours to days)
    *avoid sux, hypoventilation, LR and K containing fluids
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32
Q

How does hyperventilation affect potassium levels?

A

Increase in pH by 0.1 will decrease K+ by 0.4-1.5 mmol/L

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33
Q

Where is calcium stored?

A

Only 1% of body’s calcium is in ECF; 99% is stored in bone

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34
Q

Why do we look at ionized calcium instead of serum?

A

60% of plasma calcium is protein bound to albumin and is rendered inactive - only ionized calcium is physiologically active

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35
Q

What is a normal iCa+?

A

1.2-1.38 mmol/L

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36
Q

What two things affect ionized calcium levels?

A

Albumin levels and pH
↑pH/Alkalosis = ↑Ca++ binding to albumin (therefore ↓iCa++)

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37
Q

What hormones regulate Ca++?

How do they work?

A
  • Parathyroid hormone: increase GI absorption, renal absorption, and regulates bone/bloodstream levels
  • Vitamin D: augments intestinal Ca++ absorption
  • Calcitonin: promotes storage of Ca++ in bone
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38
Q

Causes of hypocalcemia:

A
  • decreased PTH secretion
  • Magnesium deficiency
  • Low vitamin D or disorder of vitamin D metabolism
  • Renal failure (kidneys don’t respond to PTH)
  • Massive blood transfusion
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39
Q

What causes AKI and what is the time frame for development?

A
  • Deterioration over hours- days
  • Caused by failure to excrete nitrogenous waste products or maintain fluid/e- homeostasis
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40
Q

AKI effects ____% of hospitalized patients and ___% of ICU patients

A

20%
50%

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41
Q

What is a hallmark of AKI?

A

Azotemia: Build up of nitrogenous waste products (urea, Creatinine)

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42
Q

What is the build up of nitrogenous waste products like urea and creatinine?

A

Azotemia

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43
Q

Is AKI reversible?

A

Yes, with timely interventions

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44
Q

What is the mortality rate of AKI with multisystem organ failure requiring dialysis?

A

50% mortality

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45
Q

What are the risk factors for developing AKI?

A
  • Pre-exisiting renal disease
  • Advanced age
  • CHF
  • PVD
  • DM
  • Sepsis (hypotension)
  • Jaundice
  • Major operative procedures
  • IV contrast
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46
Q

What is the AKI diagnostic criteria?

A
  • Increase Cr by 0.3 mg/dL in 48 hrs
  • INcrease Cr by 50% within 7 days
  • Decrease Creatinine clearance by 50%
  • Abrupt oliguria (not always present)
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47
Q

What are physical symptoms of AKI?

A

*Asymptomatic
*Malaise
*Hypotension
*Hypovolemia/ hypervolemia

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48
Q

Differentiate pre-renal, renal, and postrenal AKI:

A

Prerenal: decreased renal perfusion
Renal: Nephron injury
Postrenal: Outflow obstruction (easiest to treat)

49
Q

What are causes of pre, renal and postrenal azotemia

50
Q

What is the most common form of AKI?

A

Pre-renal azotemia (1/2 of hospital acquired AKI cases)

51
Q

What is usually the cause of pre-renal azotemia? What will labs look like?

A

Usually a volume issue (reversible)

*still reabsorbing Na+ and H2O)

Bun:Cr >20:1

52
Q

What is the treatment for pre-renal azotemia?

A

Restore RBF: Fluids, mannitol, diuretics, maintain MAP

Can use vasopressors if needed (vasopressin)

53
Q

How do anesthesia meds affect the kidneys?

A

Reduce renal blood flow

54
Q

What are lab changes associated with renal azotemia?

A
  • Decrease GFR (late sign)
  • Decrease urea reabsorption in proximal tubule (Decrease BUN)
  • Decrease creatinine filtration (increase creatinine)
  • BUN:Cr <15:1
55
Q

What is the cause of post renal azotemia? How can renal ultrasounds be useful for this?

A

Outflow obstruction: U/S shows hydronephrosis

Increased nephron tubular hydrostatic pressure

56
Q

Is post renal azotemia reversible? What is the treatment?

A

Depends on duration of injury→ persistent obstruction damages tubular epithelium

TX: remove obstruction

57
Q

What causes the neurological complications of AKI? What are some of the neurologic complications of AKI?

A

Protein/amino acid build up in the blood
Uremic encephalopathy

  • Mobility disorders
  • Myopathies
  • Seizures
  • Stroke
  • Neuropathies
58
Q

How does AKI impact CV system?

A

In order of incidence:
* HTN
* LVH
* CHF
* Ischemic heart disease
* Arrhythmias
* Pulmonary edema
* Uremic cardiomyopathy

59
Q

What are hematologic complications of AKI?

A

Anemia:
* Decreased EPO, RBC production, RBC survival
* Platelet dysfunction
* vWF disrupted by uremia

60
Q

What can be given in preop to increase vWF and factor 8?

A

Prophylactic DDAVP if you think procedure has potential for increased blood loss

Tachyphylaxis with DDAVP

61
Q

What are metabolic complications associated with AKI?

A
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Water/sodium imbalances
  • Hypoalbuminemia
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Malnutrition
  • Hyperparathyroidism (over drive trying to stimulate kidney to reabsorb Ca++)
62
Q

What vasopressor is the best option when treating hypotension in pt with AKI?

A

Vasopressin: Constricts efferent arteriole (better than alpha agonist for maintaining RBF)

63
Q

What are anesthesia implications with AKI?

A
  • Correct fluid/e- imbalances
  • Volume with NS (No K+)
  • Careful with colloids (albumin better)
  • Maintain MAP
  • Prophylactic NaHCO3
  • Avoid drugs with active metabolites, decreases RBF and renal toxins
  • Recent labs (K+)
  • Dialysis preop (may need postop)
64
Q

What are the benefits of prophylactic sodium bicarb in patients with AKI?

A
  • Decreases formation of free radicals
  • Prevents ATN from causing renal failure
65
Q

How is CKD different from AKI?

A

CKD is progressive and irreversible

66
Q

What are the leading causes of CKD?

A

DM and HTN

67
Q

What are the common surgeries for patients with CKD?

A
  • HD access
  • Toe/foot debridement and amputations
  • Non-healing wounds
68
Q

How many stages of CKD are there? What is the GFR associated with each stage?

69
Q

How does CKD impact CV system?

A
  • Systemic hypertension (retaining sodium and water)
  • Activation of RAAS (HTN)
  • Dyslipidemia
  • predisposed to silent MI
70
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for HTN from CKD?

A

Thiazide diuretics

(many need ACE-i/ ARB–often used in CKD)

71
Q

Why dont we like ACE-inhibitors and ARBs?

A
  • Decrease systemic BP

want to hold on day of surgery to reduce risk of profound hypotension (have all pressors ready if either of these meds are on board)

72
Q

Which patients are high risk for silent MI?

73
Q

Dyslipidemia with CKD often causes TG >_____ and LDL >______

A

TG >500
LDL >100

74
Q

How does CKD affect hematologic system?

A

Anemia
- EPO to target hgb 10
- Platelet dysfunction (platelets dont survive in uremic environment)
- Transfusion (excess hgb leads to sluggish circulation)

75
Q

Why are potential transfusion risks in patients with CKD?

A
  • sluggish circulation with increased hgb
  • Acidosis
  • Hyperkalemia
76
Q

When should dialysis be considered?

A
  • Volume overload
  • Severe hyperkalemia
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Symptomatic uremia (encephalopathy)
  • Failure to clear meds
77
Q

Which is more efficient: HD or PD?

A

HD more efficient: PD is slower so less likely to cause hypotension

78
Q

What is the leading cause of death in HD patients?

A

Infection (impaired immune system/healing)

79
Q

Anesthesia concerns for patients with CKD:

A
  • Stability of ESRD
  • Body weight pre/post HD (within 24 hrs of surgery)
  • BP
  • glucose (A1C)
  • Aspiration precautions (gastric u/s)
  • Pressors
  • Uremic bleeding
80
Q

Which pressors are less effective in a patient with CKD?

A

Neo and ephedrine

81
Q

What is the peak and duration of desmopressin?

A

P: 2-4 hours
D: 6-8 hours

82
Q

What is the best NMB for renal patients? (Not dependent on renal elimination)

A

Nimbex (metabolized by plasma esterases)

83
Q

Which meds are known to have active metabolites and should be avoided with renal patients?

A
  • Morphine
  • Demerol
84
Q

What is renal dosing based on?

85
Q

Which meds are lipid insoluble and are eliminated unchanged in urine?

A

Thiazide diuretics
Loop diuretics
Dig
ABX

prolonged duration of action–need renal dosing

86
Q

What are some meds that rely on renal excretion? What might be a better NMB reversal for kidney patients?

A

Suggamedex

87
Q

Morphine is ___% cleared through urine. Its active metabolites put renal patients at high risk of _______ _______.

A

40%

Respiratory depression (life threatening)

88
Q

What is the main adverse effect of Demerol? How does normeperidine E1/2T compare to Demerol?

A

Neurotoxicity (tremor, nervousness, muscle twitches, seizures) → Need HD

Normeperidine half time 15-30 hours compared to demerol 1/2 time 2-4 hours

89
Q

What are some preop concerns/considerations for patients with renal issues?

A
  • K+ <5.5 mEq/L on elective surgery
  • HD patients should be dialyzed within 24 hours of elective procedure
  • Aspiration prophylaxis
  • Decrease in RBF from anesthesia
  • Blood loss activates baroreceptors (increase SNS)
  • Catecholamine constrict afferent arteriole (decrease RBF)
  • Long periods of hypotension decrease RBF
90
Q

Majority of pts with hypercalcemia have ____ or ____.

A

Hyperparathyroid; cancer
- Hyperparathyroid serum Ca++ <11
- Cancer serum Ca++ >13

91
Q

Less common causes of hypercalcemia:

A
  • Vitamin D intoxication
  • Milk-alkali syndrome (excessive GI Ca++ absorption)
  • Granulomatous disease (sarcoidosis)
92
Q

S/S of hypercalcemia:

A
  • Confusion, lethargy
  • Hypotonia,↓DTR
  • Abd pain
  • N/V
  • Short QT interval

*Chronic ↑Ca++→ Hypercalciuria & nephrolithiasis

93
Q

S/S of hypocalcemia:

A
  • Paresthesias
  • Irritability
  • Hypotension
  • Seizures
  • Myocardial depression
  • Prolonged QT interval

**life threatening complication = post-parathyroidectomy hypocalcemia induced laryngospasm

94
Q

Causes of Hypo-magnesium:

A
  • Low dietary intake or absorption
  • Renal wasting
95
Q

S/S of hypomagnesium

A
  • Muscle weakness or excitation
  • Seizures
  • Ventricular dysrhythmia (polymorphic V-tach/torsades)
96
Q

Treatment of hypomagnesium:

A
  • Depends on severity of symptoms
  • Slower infusions for less severe
  • Torsades/seizure = 2g mag sulfate
97
Q

Causes of hypermagnesium:

A
  • very uncommon
  • generally due to over treatment (Pre-eclampsia/eclampsia, pheochromocytoma)
98
Q

S/S of hypermagnesium:

A
  • 4-5 mEq/L = lethargy, N/V, flushing
  • > 6 mEq/L: hypotension,↓DTR
  • > 10 mEq/L: paralysis, apnea, heart blocks, cardiac arrest
99
Q

Treatment for hypermagnesium:

A
  • Diuresis
  • IV calcium (stabilize cell membrane)
  • Dialysis
100
Q

What is the primary “functional/structural unit” of the kidney?
How many does each kidney have?

A

Nephron; each kidney has 1 million nephrons

100
Q

Where are the kidneys located?
How is the right different?

A

Retroperitoneal between T12 and L4
- Right slightly caudal to left to accommodate liver

101
Q

How much cardiac output do the kidneys receive?

A

20% or 1-1.25 L/min

102
Q

What part receives majority of renal blood flow?

A

The outer layer/cortex - receives 85-90%

103
Q

Which part of the nephron is vulnerable to necrosis from hypotension?

A

Loop of henle in the inner layer/medulla

104
Q

Primary functions of the kidney:

A
  • Regulates EC volume, osmolarity, composition
  • Regulates BP (RAAS, ANP)
  • Excretes toxins/metabolites
  • Maintain acid/base balance
  • Produces hormones
  • Blood glucose homeostasis
105
Q

What two things regulate volume and BP?

A
  • RAAS→↑Na+/H20 reabsorption
  • ANP→↑Na+/H20 reabsorption
106
Q

What hormones are produced by the kidney?

A

Renin, erythropoietin, calcitriol, prostaglandins

107
Q

What is the best measure for renal function over time?
Normal values?

A

Glomerular filtration rate; 125-140 mL/min

*heavily influences by hydration status

108
Q

What is the most reliable measure of GFR?
Normal values?

A

Creatinine clearance;
110-140 mL/min

*creatinine freely filtered, not reabsorbed

109
Q

Which lab value is good for acute monitoring and correlates with muscle mass?
Normal values?

A

Serum creatinine; 0.6-1.3 mg/dL

*can be influenced by high protein diet, supplements, muscle breakdown

110
Q

In acute cases, double serum creatinine can mean drop in GFR by ___.

111
Q

Renal function lab: BUN

A

Normal values 10-20 mg/dL
- Urea is reabsorbed into blood
- BUN is affected by diet, intravascular volume
- Low BUN could mean malnourished or volume diluted
- high could mean high protein diet, dehydrates, GI bleed, trauma, muscle wasting

112
Q

Renal function lab: BUN:creatinine ratio

A

Normal: 10:1
- BUN (reabsorbed) to creatinine (not reabsorbed)
- good measure of hydration status

113
Q

Renal function lab: Proteinuria

A

Normal: <150 mg/dL
- >750 mg/day could suggest glomerular injury or UTI

114
Q

Renal function lab: Specific gravity

A

Normal: 1.001-1.035
- comparing 1ml urine to 1ml distilled water
- measures nephron’s ability to concentrate urine

115
Q

Volume status assessment:

A

*look at big picture for hydration status
- history and physical exam
- orthostatic pressure changes
-↓BE (wtf is this?)
-↑Lactate
- Drop in UOP is a late sign of volume loss
- UOP 30ml/hr; 0.5 ml/kg/hr
- Oliguria: <500mL in 24 hours

116
Q

How to monitor volume status?

A
  • US to assess IVC
  • CVP, RAP
  • LAP, PCWP
  • PAP
  • SVV
117
Q

Considerations when using SVV to monitor fluid status

A
  • Compares inspiratory vs. expiratory pressure
  • Assumes ventilated patient
  • Assumes sinus rhythm