Uworld9 Flashcards

1
Q

Lung abscess usually occurs in individuals with?

A

Episodes of impaired consciousness (eg, alcohol/substance use disorder, dementia) or decreased ability to swallow (eg, esophageal strictures).

They are generally caused by aspiration of anaerobic and aerobic bacteria from the oral cavity into the lower respiratory tract.

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2
Q

Thiazide diuretics function

A

Thiazide diuretics decrease intravascular fluid volume, which stimulates aldosterone secretion and leads to increased excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions in the urine.

This results in hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis

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3
Q

Where is the majority of water reabsorption in the nephron?

A

In the proximal tubule passively with the reabsorption of solutes

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4
Q

What is nuclear factor kappa B (NF-kB)?

A

Is a transcription factor with a critical role in the immune response to infection.

Normally present in the cytoplasm in a latent, inactive state bound to its inhibitor protein, IkB.

Extracellular substances such as lipopolysaccaride can initiate a signal cascade that results in the destruction of IkB and translocation of free NF-kB to the nucleus

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5
Q

What is postpartum thyroiditis?

A

Occurs within 12 months of pregnancy and is characterized by autoimmune destruction of thyroid follicles.

It typically has a hyperthyroid phase due to release of preformed thyroid hormone, followed by a hypothyroid phase due to depletion of thyroid hormones stores and eventual return to a euthyroid state.

Thyroid metabolic activity during the hyperthyroid phase is suppressed, and glandular blood flow and radioiodine uptake are low.

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6
Q

The risk of progression of diabetic nephropathy in patients with proteinuria can be reduced by?

A

Appropriate glycemic and blood pressure control.

ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers are the preferred antihypertensive agents due to their antiproteinuric effects, which are independent from their effects on systemic blood pressure

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7
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis can cause joint destruction where?

A

RA causes progressive joint destruction involving the hands, wrists, elbows, and knees.

Cervical spine involvement can lead to spinal instability and cord compression.

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8
Q

What is seen in spherocytosis?

A

In spherocytosis, mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is increased due to mild dehydration of the RBC.

Markers of hemolysis are often evident and include elevated lactate dehydrogenase, reticulocytosis, and decreased haptoglobin

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9
Q

What is seen in malignant hyperthermia?

A

In patients with malignant hyperthermia, exposure to certain anesthetic agents (eg, succinylcholine, inhalational gasses) causes unregulated passage of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the intracellular space.

This results in sustained muscle contraction that leads to hypercarbia, hyperthermia, and acidosis.

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10
Q

What is seen in schistosomiasis?

A

schistosomiasis, a parasitic blood fluke infection, is common in rural portions of sub-Saharan Africa.

Initial infection is often asymptomatic, but some patients develop chronic hepatosplenic (eg, portal hypertension, hepatosplenomegaly, esophageal varices) or urinary (eg, bladder cancer) complications years or decades later.

The presence of eosinophilia is an important diagnostic clue

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11
Q

What is the most important immune cell in the defense against invasive Candida infection?

A

Neutrophils.

Patients with neutropenia (eg, following cytotoxic chemotherapy) are at high risk for invasive disease (eg, candidemia, meningitis)

T lymphocytes are more important for prevention of superficial, mucocutaneous infection (eg, thrush)

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12
Q

MOA of nystatin

A

Polyene antifungal, acts by binding to ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane, causing the formation of pores and leakage of fungal cell contents.

Drug of choice for oropharyngeal candidiasis.

Not absorbed from the GI tract and is administered as an oral “swish and swallow” agent.

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13
Q

Cancer immunotherapy often includes the adminstration of monoclonal antibodies against a target overexpressed on the cancer cell surface. The Fc portion of the bound antibody is identified by?

A

natural killer cells via CD16, leading to antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity via the release of granzymes and perforin.

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14
Q

What is a koilocyte?

A

An atypical squamous cell characterized by perinuclear cytoplasmic clearing (ie, halo) and a large, dark nucleus with irregular contours (ie, raisinoid appearance)

These cytologic features are a viral cytopathic effect of human papillomavirus (HPV) infection.

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15
Q

2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG) normally forms ionic bonds with the beta subunits of deoxygenated hemoglobin A, facilitating oxygen release in the peripheral tissues. Mutations that result in the loss of 2,3-BPG binding pocket’s positive charge cause hemoglobin A to resemble?

A

fetal hemoglobin, which binds oxygen with a higher affinity die to its inability to interact with 2,3-BPG.

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16
Q

What is seen in X-linked recessive inheritance?

A
  1. affected males will always produce unaffected sons and carrier daughters
  2. carrier females have a 50% chance of producing affected sons and carrier daughters
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17
Q

What inheritance pattern is G6PD def?

A

G6PD def is X-linked recessive and causes acute hemolytic anemia in response to oxidant drugs.

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18
Q

Patients with beta-thalassemia trait have 1 normal beta-globin allele and 1 mutated beta-globin allele. The gene mutation most commonly impairs?

A

mRNA processing (eg, splicing) or translation, resulting in reduced production of normal beta-globin chains.

Patients are typically asymptomatic with lab findings of mild microcytic anemia, target cells, and increased hemoglobin A2 concentration.

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19
Q

MOA of azathioprine

A

An immunosuppression drug that inhibits purine nucleotide synthesis and incorporates false purine nucleotides into DNA and RNA.

These effects reduce the proliferation and activity of both B and T lymphocytes

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20
Q

What is Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

A

AR disorder; affecting lysosomal trafficking that results in immunodeficiency, albinism, neurologic abnormalities (eg, nystagmus).

Giant granules are seen within neutrophils.

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21
Q

Role of von Willebrand factor

A

enhances clotting through both augmentation of platelet binding and stabilization of factor VIII

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22
Q

What can help with bleeding in patients with von Willebrand disease?

A

Patients with von Willebrand disease are deficient in functional vWF and present with increased bruisability and prolonged mucosal bleeding.

Desmopressin can alleviate bleeding through endothelial release of vWF.

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23
Q

What is a Mallary-Weiss tear?

A

A tear in the gastric mucosa near the gastroesophageal junction. Typically results from repetitive forceful vomitting, which can cause metabolic alkalosis

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24
Q

What causes hot tub folliculitis?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa; G-, oxidase+, non lactose fermenting motile rods that produce green pigment

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25
Q

What can cause injury to the long thoracic nerve?

A

Dissection of the axillary lymph nodes.

This results in weakness of the serratus anterior muscle with winging of the scapula and impaired abduction of the shoulder past the horizontal position

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26
Q

How does Hep A present?

A

fever, jaudince, hepatomegaly, leukocytosis, and aminotransferase levels> 1000

It triggers a robust CD8+ lymphocytic response to clear infected hepatocytes. The resulting hepatocellular damage is self limited, with complete resolution within 2-3 months.

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27
Q

What is a lacunar infarct?

A

Small, ischemic infarcts involving the deep brain structures (eg, basal ganglia, pons) and subcortical white matter (eg, internal capsule, corona radiata).

They most often occur due to hypertension, which causes hardening/thickening of the vessel wall (hypertensive arteriolar sclerosis), predisposing patients with this condition to thrombotic vessel occlusion.

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28
Q

What is characteristic for acute pericarditis?

A

acute-onset, sharp, and pleuritic chest pain that decreases with leaning forward.

Fibrinous/serofibrinous pericarditis is the most common form and a pericardial friction rub is the most specific physical finding.

Viral pericarditis often precedes by an upper resp infection

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29
Q

What is used for chemoprophylaxis of meningococcal disease?

A

Rifampin.

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30
Q

Dorsal columns location and function

A

located in the posterior spinal cord and convey vibration, proprioception, and light touch sensation.

lower limbs= gracile fasciculus and located medial

upper limbs= cuneate and lateral

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31
Q

What is acute hemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

antibody-mediated (type II) hypersensitivity reaction caused by pre-existing anti-ABO antibodies that bind antigens on transfused donor erythrocyte s

Subsequent complement activation results in erythrocyte lysis, vasodilation, and symptoms of shock. Findings: fever, hypotension, chest and back pain, and hemoglobinuria

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32
Q

What is a common complication of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

Communicating hydrocephalus; presents with deteriorating mental status.

Typically results from blood-induced impairment of absorption of cerebrospinal fluid by the arachnoid granulations

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33
Q

What disease has a corkscrew shaped organism?

A

Syphillis; treponema pallidum

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34
Q

Treatment for syphillis

A

penicillin, which blocks the last step in bacterial cell wall synthesis (transpeptidation)

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35
Q

What is the virulence factor of typhoidal strains of Salmonella?

A

Capsular antigen Vi; inhibit neutrophil phagocytosis, neutrophil recruitment, and macrophage-mediated destruction.

Typhoidal salmonella undergoes extensive replication in macrophages and is able to spread through the lymphatic and reticuloendothelial system, leading to widespread systemic disease (typhoid fever)

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36
Q

Which drug is associated with a lower incidence of torsade de pointes?

A

Amiodarone causes lengthening of the cardiac action potential, which manifests as QT interval prolongation on ECG. QT prolongation with amiodarone is associated with a very low risk of torsades de pointes.

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37
Q

Ixodes tick transmits which diseases?

A

Babesiosis, Lyme, and Anaplasmosis

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38
Q

What is thryoxine-binding globin deficiency?

A

benign disorder characterized by low total thyroxine T4 and normal free T4 and TSH levels.

Patients are euthyroid and do no require txt.

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39
Q

What can be used in pulmonary arterial hypertension to lower pulmonary arterial pressure?

A

Endothelin receptor antagonists (bosentan, ambrisentan) lower pulmonary arterial pressure and improve dyspnea in pts with pulmonary arterial hypertension

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40
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease is due to?

A

defective NADPH oxidase and is diagnosed by dihydrorhodamine testing, which measures neutrophil respiratory burst.

When NADPH oxidase is stimulated, dihydrorhodamine is normally oxidized and fluoresces green; it remains colorless (no oxidation) in patients with CGD

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41
Q

What are the 4 phases of wound healing

A

1.hemostasis (fibrin clot formation)
2. inflammation (cellular infiltration)
3. proliferation (reepithelization, fibroplasia, and angiogenesis)
4. maturation (collagen remodeling)

42
Q

Germline mutations in the BRCA gene dramatically increase the risk for breast and ovarian cancer due to?

A

an inability to repair double stranded DNA breaks

Cancers with BRCA gene mutations are often susceptible to txt with platinum compounds (eg, carboplatin), which cause DNA cross-linking requiring repair by BRCA-encoded machinery

43
Q

What is the blood supply for the hindgut?

A

Inferior mesenteric artery

44
Q

What consists of the hindgut?

A

distal 1/3 of the transverse colon, the descending colon, the sigmoid colon, and the rectum.

45
Q

Patients with severe aortic stenosis are at high risk for?

A

mucocutaneous and colonic bleeding due to acquired von Willebrand def.

The von Willebrand factor multimers become unfolded by the high shear stress, leading to increased destruction by the ADAMTS13 metalloproteinase.

46
Q

CN III oculomotor nerve is susceptible to injury from?

A

ipsilateral posterior communicating artery aneurysms

Aneurysmal compression of CNIII produces mydriasis (due to superficial parasympathetic fiber damage) with diplopia, ptosis, and down and out deviation of the ipsilateral eye (due to somatic efferent fiber injury)

47
Q

What cancer is associated with Celiac disease?

A

Monoclonal T cell expansion can occur in the small bowel mucosa, leading to enteropathy-associated T cell lymphoma

48
Q

Function of parathyroid hormone?

A

Increased bone resorption, increased serum calcium levels, and increased renal phosphate excretion.

49
Q

Chronically high levels of PTH increase the risk of?

A

Osteoporosis.

However, intermittent adminstration of recombinant PTH analogs (eg teriparatide) induces a greater increase in osteoblast activity in proportion to osteoclast activity and a net increase in bone formation.

50
Q

Type I collagen consists of

A

Type 1 collagen is the primary collagen in mature scars (eg, remote myocardial infarction)

It is the most prevalent type of collagen and provides strength and support throughout the human body: bones, tendons, ligaments, and skin

51
Q

Children with watery diarrhea should be treated with oral rehydration solutions containing?

A

hypotonic, equimolar concentratins of sodium and glucose to help prevent dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities

52
Q

What GI complication is associated with Down syndrome?

A

Duodenal atresia: failure of duodenal recanalization

53
Q

What are the vitamin K dependent coagulation factors?

A

vitamin K dependent coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X are synthesized in the liver

54
Q

Failure of the prothrombin time to correct with vitamin K supplementation indicates?

A

Factor VII def, which is often due to underlying liver disease.

Factor VII has the shortest half-life of the coagulation factors.

55
Q

What can be used to test for sickle cell anemia to determine the carrier status?

A

Sickle cell anema is an autosomal recessive hemoglobinopathy.

In order for a child to have sickle cell disease, both parents must be carriers.

Hemoglobin electrophoresis can be used to determine the carrier status of a prospective parent who has no history of sickle cell anemia.

56
Q

What is the first line txt for ADHD?

A

Stimulant meds (methylphenidate and amphetamines); they work by increasing the availability of norepinephrine and dopamine in the prefrontal cortex

57
Q

What is genomic imprinting caused by?

A

Genomic imprinting: the phenomenon in which an offspring’s genes are expressed in a parent-specific manner.

It is caused by DNA methylation, an epigenetic process in which genes can be silenced by attaching methyl groups to cytosine residues in the DNA molecules

58
Q

What is the role of the hinge region in immunoglobins?

A

IgA, IgG, and IgD have a hinge region between the Fab fragment and the Fc fragment of the immunoglobin.

The hinge region increases flexibility of the Fab arms, which makes the antibody more likely to bind to more than one site on the antigen. This increases the avidity of the immunoglobin but makes it more susceptible to destruction by bacterial proteases.

59
Q

What are the primary side effects of statins?

A

myopathy and hepatits.

60
Q

What happens if you use fibrates with statins?

A

Fibrates such as gemfibrozil can impair hepatic clearance of statins, increasing the risk of severe myopathy

61
Q

What is seen in aortic regurgitation?

A

Aortic regurgitation causes an increase in total stroke volume with abrupt distension and rapid falloff of peripheral arterial pulses, resulting in a wide pulse pressure.

This leads to bounding peripheral pulses and head bobbing with each heartbeat.

62
Q

What is giant cell arteritis?

A

Granulomatous inflammation of the media with intimal thickening and predominantly involves branches of the carotid artery, especially the temporal artery.

63
Q

What is giant cell arteritis strongly associated with?

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica; both conditions respond promptly to glucocorticoid therapy

64
Q

Chronic opiod therapy leads to?

A

development of acquired pharmacodynamic tolerance via downregulation and decreased responsiveness of opioid receptor systems.

65
Q

How does the kidneys compensate for metabolic acidosis?

A

The kidneys can normally compensate somewhat for metabolic acidosis by completely reabsorbing filtered bicarbonate (HCO3-) and excreting excess H+ in the urine.

Most of the excreted H+ is buffered by phosphate (H2PO4) and ammonium (NH4+)

66
Q

What are the antioxidant enzymes?

A

superoxide dismutase, glutathione peroxidase, and catalase.

67
Q

MOA of azole antifungal meds (eg fluconazole)

A

Block the fungal enzyme lanosterol 14-alpha-demethylase, a cytochrome p450 dependent enzyme that converts lanosterol to ergosterol.

Mutations to the gene for 14-alpha-demethylase can lead to azole resistance.

68
Q

Where does herpes simplex virus lie dormant?

A

Lifelong latent infection of the sensory ganglion (neuronal cell bodies). Periodic viral replication can lead to symptoms that flare and resolve over time.

69
Q

What is intraductal papilloma?

A

Characterized by epithelial and myoepithelial cells lining fibrovascular cores in a cyst wall or duct/

Most common cause of bloody nipple discharge and typically presents without breast mass or skin changes.

70
Q

What type of HSR is allergic contact dermatitis?

A

type IV (delayed type) HSR.

Initially, Langerhans cells present haptens to naive T cells, leading to clonal expansion.

On reexposure, sensitized CD8T cells are recruited to skin and destroy tissue. Release of interferon gamma by T cells further amplifies the immune response.

71
Q

What is hormone sensitive lipase?

A

Hormone sensitive lipase is found in adipose tissue, where it functions to drive the breakdown of stored triglycerides into free fatty acids and glycerol.

During times of starvation, this enzyme provides substrates for hepatic gluconeogenesis and ketone body formation.

72
Q

What is bullous pemphigoid?

A

Autoimmune blistering disorder characterized by tense bullae in patients age >60

Autoantibodies against hemidesmosome components initiate an inflammatory response that results in separation of the epidermis from the dermis, leading to subepideral blisters.

73
Q

What is congenital diaphragmatic hernia caused by?

A

Caused by failure of the pleuroperitoneal folds to close.

Immediately after birth, newborns have respiratory distress, unilateral decreased breath sounds, and a scaphoid abdomen, with imaging revealing thoracic bowel loops and mediastinal shift

74
Q

What is the course of the inferior vena cava?

A

IVC courses through the abdomen and inferior thorax in a location anterior to the right half of the vertebral bodies.

The renal veins joins the IVC at the level of L1/L2, and the common iliac veins merge to become the IVC at the level of L5

IVC filters are placed in patients with deep venous thrombosis who have contraindications to anticoagulation therapy.

75
Q

What is the txt for malaria?

A

Erythrocytic forms of this parasite are treated with antimalarials such as chloroquine (in nonresistant areas), atovaquone-proguanil, or artemisinins.

Primaquine is required to kill Plasmodium vivax and P. ovale liver hypnozoites.

76
Q

What can be deficient in a vegan diet?

A

Deficient in vitamin B12, calcium, vitamin D.

Those with increased dietary iron requirements (menstruating women and children) can develop iron def.

77
Q

What is the mechanism behind bleeding from progesterone withdrawal?

A

Progesterone is secreted during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and transforms the endometrium from proliferative to secretory.

Progestrone withdrawal causes endometrial cells in the stratum fumctionalis to undergo apoptosis, resulting in menstrual bleeding.

78
Q

What happens to a loss of mesenteric fat?

A

Abdominal structures are susceptible to mass effect when supportive elements (mesenteric fat) are depleted.

Loss of mesenteric fat (eg anorexia nervosa) allows the superior mesenteric artery to compress the transverse segment of the duodenum, resulting in small bowel obstruction (ie, superior mesenteric artery syndrome)

79
Q

Congenital rubella syndrome characteristics

A

sensorineural deafness, cataracts, patent ductus arteriosus, and growth restriction (eg, microcephaly)

80
Q

What is seen in maternal rubella infection

A

Maculopapular rash with cephalocaudal progression, joint pain,and postauricular lymphadenopathy

81
Q

When can hydrocephalus ex vacuo occur?

A

Can occur due to neurodegenerative disease (eg HIV infection) when significant neuronal loss leads to a compensatory increase in the volume of cerebrospinal fluid

82
Q

What is heard for a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Continuous murmur best heard at the left infraclavicular or posterior interscapular region.

83
Q

What is bullous pemphigoid caused by?

A

autoantibodies against hemidesmosomes along the basement membrane of the dermal epidermal junction.

This causes the entire epidermis to separate from the dermis and form tense, subepidermal blisters

84
Q

Pulmonary artery occlusion pressured is measured where?

A

At the distal tip of the pulmonary artery catheter after an inflated balloon occludes blood flow through a pulmonary artery branch.

It closely corresponds to left atrial and left ventricular end diastolic pressure

85
Q

What is seen in gout under polarized light?

A

Gout results from the deposition of monosodium urate crystals in the joints and soft tissues.

Under polarized light, urate crystals appear needle shaped and negatively birefringent.

Conditions that increase uric acid production or decrease uric acid clearance can increase the risk for gout

86
Q

What are the electrolye disturbances seen in patients taking amphotericin B?

A

Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia; reflet an increase in distal tubular membrane permeability

87
Q

MOA of sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors (canagliflozin, dapaglifozin)

A

Decrease renal reabsorption of glucose and sodium. The resultant osmotic diuresis and natriuresis lead to reduced blood pressure, decreased mortality in heart failure, and slowed progression of diabetic nephropathy

88
Q

Where does clear cell carcinoma originate? gross path?

A

Originates from the epithelial cells of the proximal renal tubules. CCC is the most common type of renal cell carcinoma

Gross path: sphere like mass composed of golden yellow cells (due to high lipid content) with areas of necrosis and hemorrhage

89
Q

What is a Kehr sign?

A

any abdominal process (eg ruptured spleen, peritonitis, hemoperitoneum) irritating the phrenic nerve sensory fibers around the diaphragm can cause referred pain to the C3-5 shoulder region (Kehr sign)

90
Q

What is McArdle disease

A

myophosphorlylase deficiency (McArdle) causes failure of muscle glycogenolysis, resulting in decreased exercise tolerance, muscle pain, cramping, and myoglobinuria shortly after initiating physical activity.

91
Q

Parathyroid hormone relation to RANK-L

A

PTH directly stimulates osteoblasts, leading to increased bone formation. Expression of RANK-L on osteoblasts induces increased bone resorption via a paracrine effect on nearby osteoclasts.

Hyperparathryoidism causes increased RANK-L expression and decreased expression of osteoprotegerin, leading to net bone loss.

92
Q

What is cardiac tamponade?

A

Cardiac tamponade involves restriction of diastolic filling of the right sided heart chambers, with engorgement and decreased inspiratory collapse of the inferior vena cava seen on echocardiography.

Pulsus paradoxus (>10 mmHg drop in systolic blood pressure during inspiration) is commonly present with tamponade.

93
Q

What is neurocysticercosis?

A

Common case of adult onset seizures in patients from rural developing regions.

Suspicion should be raised when brain imaging shows cystic or calcified lesions

94
Q

Hyperacute rejection is caused by?

A

preformed antibodies in the recipient that recognize and attack donor antigens (type II HSR)

These are often anti-ABO blood group or anti-HLA antibodies

Vascular injury and capillary thrombotic occlusion lead to rapid ischemic necrosis of the renal graft, often evidenced by gross cyanosis and mottling immediately following graft perfusion.

95
Q

What is chronic mesenteric ischemia characterized by?

A

atherosclerosis of the mesenteric arteries, resulting in diminished blood flow to the intestine after meals. This causes postprandial epigastric pain (intestinal angina) with associated food aversion/weight loss.

Its pathogenesis is similar to angina pactoris.

96
Q

What is a frameshift mutation?

A

deletion or addition of a number of bases that is not divisible by 3 in the coding region of a gene

Frameshift mutations alter the reading frame of the genetic code, resulting in the formation of nonfunctional proteins

97
Q

Bronchi have what kind of epithelium?

A

ciliated pseudostraified columnar epithelium with mucin-secreting goblet cells and submucosal mucoserous glands

98
Q

At the level of the terminal bronchioles, how does the airway epithelium change?

A

The airway epithelium gradually changes to ciliated simple cuboidal by the level of terminal bronchioles

99
Q

Bronchioles lack what structures?

A

lack glands and cartilage, and the number of goblet cells decreases distally, ending before the terminal bronchioles.

100
Q

Where does ciliated epithelium persists in the airway?

A

Ciliated epithelium persists up to the respiratory bronchioles.