Uworld32 Flashcards

1
Q

Most cases of cleft lip and/or cleft palate are from?

A

Most cases of cleft lip and/or cleft palate have a multifactorial pathophysiology related to complex interactions between genetic and environmental factors.

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2
Q

What is tracheoesophageal fistula with esophageal atresia?

A

typically presents in the immediate newborn period with choking/coughing with feeding.

A feeding tube cannot be passed into the stomach; curling of the distal end of the enteric tube in the proximal esophagus on x-ray is diagnostic.

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3
Q

What is seen on biopsy for subacute granulomatous (de Quervain) thyroiditis?

A

characterized by painful thyroid enlargement and usually follows a viral illness.

Biopsy shows a mixed inflammatory infiltrate with macrophages and multinucleated giant cells.

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4
Q

What is retinoblastoma?

A

Retinoblastoma is associated with inactivating mutations of the RB1 tumor suppressor gene, which normally restricts cells from passing the G1/S checkpoint until the cell is ready to divide.

Impaired function of the Rb protein allows unrestricted progression through the G1/S checkpoint, leading to uncontrolled cell division.

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5
Q

Tumor cells must develop adaptations to avoid destruction by the innate and adaptive immune response. A common adaptation is to?

A

overexpress programmed cell death 1 ligand (PD-L1), which converts effector T cells to exhausted T cells.

Other adaptations include down-regulating class I major histocompatibility complexes, blocking T cell costimulation, and increasing immunoinhibitory cytokine secretion.

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6
Q

What is an effect of St. John’s wort?

A

St John’s wort induced cytochrome P450 hepatic microsomal enzymes. As a result, a wide variety of drugs that are metabolized by these enzymes, such as warfarin, will have lower plasma concentrations and decreased efficacy.

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7
Q

Hereditary breast cancer is most commonly associated with mutations in?

A

BRCA1 and BRCA2. These tumor suppressor genes are involved in DNA repair, and their mutations increase the risk of developing breast and ovarian cancer.

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8
Q

The most important airway-protective movements during swallowing are?

A

the anterior/superior displacement of the larynx, the tilting of the epiglottis to block the airway, and vocal fold adduction.

A chin-tuck maneuver can be helpful in some patients with aspiration by stimulating the airway-protective movement of the larynx.

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9
Q

Large prolactin-secreting pituitary tumors can compress the optic chiasm, causing?

A

bitemporal hemianopsia. In addition, elevated prolactin levels suppress release of GnRH, leading to decreased LH secretion and subsequently impaired testosterone production in men.

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10
Q

What is odds ratio formula?

A

OR= odds of exposure in cases / odds of exposure in controls

OR = ad/bc

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11
Q

Labs for DIC

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation commonly occurs in the setting of sepsis and is characterized by widespread activation of the coagulation cascade with formation of microthrombi.

Labs: prolonged PT/PTT, thrombocytopenia, low fibrinogen (ie, a consumptive coagulopathy) and patients usually have signs of bleeding (eg, oozing from venipuncture sites)

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12
Q

What is the earliest manifestations of diabetic nephropathy?

A

Moderately increased albuminuria (urine albumin 30-300 mg/day) is the earliest manifestation of diabetic nephropathy.

Screening for diabetic nephropathy is best achieved using an albumin-specific urine assay (regular dipstick urinalysis has low sensitivity).

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13
Q

What is confounding?

A

Confounding occurs when the exposure-disease relationship is muddled by the effect of an extraneous factor associated with both exposure and disease.

Confounding bias can result in the false association of an exposure with a disease.

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14
Q

Left-sided heart failure can cause secondary pulmonary hypertension via?

A

elevated left-sided diastolic filling pressures transmitting backward to the pulmonary veins, resulting in pulmonary venous congestion.

Over time, pulmonary arterial remodeling (medial hypertrophy and intimal thickening with fibrosis) can occur, but not to the extent that occurs in (primary) pulmonary arterial hypertension.

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15
Q

Pathogenesis of diphtheria exotoxin

A

inhibits host cell protein synthesis by catalyzing the ADP-ribosylation of host cell elongation factor-2

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16
Q

Physiologic age-related changes in the cardiopulmonary system can lead to reduced ability to cope with critical illness. These changes include?

A

reduced maximal heart rate and cardiac output due to decreased responsiveness to adrenergic stimuli, reduced retention of arterial blood volume due to decreased arterial compliance, and reduced respiratory strength and gas exchange efficiency.

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17
Q

What is aplastic anemia?

A

a form of bone marrow failure caused by direct toxic injury or cytotoxic T cell destruction of multipotent hematologic stem cells, which leads to pancytopenia.

Bone marrow examination will show profound hypocellularity, an abundance of fat cells, and small clusters of morphologically normal hematologic cells.

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18
Q

What is the most common manifestation of Francisella tularensis?

A

Francisella tularensis is a highly virulent, gram negative coccobacillus transmitted to humans during contact with an infected wild animal (eg, hare, rabbit, squirrel) or due to a bite with a tick or mosquito that recently fed on an infected animal.

The most common manifestation is ulceroglandular disease, which is characterized by rapid-onset fever, a single papuloulcerative lesion with central eschar at the site of inoculation, and painful regional lymphadenopathy.

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19
Q

What muscles are the major hip flexors?

A

The rectus femoris, iliopsoas, and sartorius are the major hip flexors.

Of these, only the rectus femoris and sartorius also affect knee movement. The sartorius flexes the knee while the rectus femoris extends the knee.

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20
Q

What is seen in a hookworm infection?

A

Hookworm infections are transmitted via direct contact between human skin and contaminated soil/sand (eg, walking barefoot).

Dermal penetration is often characterized by an intensely pruritic papule that may form serpinginous tracks due to the subcutaneous migration of hookworm larvae.

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21
Q

Coadministration of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and monoamine oxidase inhibitors can produce?

A

excessive synaptic serotonin levels secondary to decreased reuptake and decreased degradation of serotonin, potentially causing serotonin syndrome.

To avoid the risk, a 2 week washout period after discontinuing an MAO inhibitor and before initiating SSRI therapy is required to allow sufficient time for MAO regeneration.

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22
Q

The flow-volume loop for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is characterized by?

A

increased residual volume and total lung capacity, as well as a “scooped-out” expiratory pattern due to reduced expiratory flow rates.

Both airway narrowing due to chronic bronchitis and decreased elasticity due to emphysematous destruction of interalveolar walls are responsible for the hyperinflation and airflow limitation.

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23
Q

Invasive vascular procedures can be complicated by atheroembolic disease, which may involve the kidneys, GI tract, CNS, and the skin. Light microscopy shows?

A

a partially or completely obstructed arterial lumen with needle shaped cholesterol clefts within the atheromatous embolus.

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24
Q

Name the inhibitors and inducers of the P450

A

Rifampin, phenobarbital, and phenytoin are potent enhancers of the cytochrome P450 pathway; concurrent use of warfarin with these medications results in decreased efficacy of warfarin.

In contrast, cimetidine, amiodarone, and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole inhibit warfarin metabolism, increasing the risk of bleeding.

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25
Q

Difference between ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers reduce the risk of chronic kidney disease in patients with hypertension and diabetes.

ACE inhibitors raise levels of bradykinin and can cause a nonproductive cough, an effect not seen with ARBs.

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26
Q

What is athlete’s heart?

A

Athlete’s heart refers to physiologic cardiac adaptations that improve cardiac function in response to high level endurance training.

There is predominant left ventricular eccentric hypertrophy with a small component of concentric hypertrophy, leading to an overall increase in LV mass, enlarged LV cavity size, slightly increased LV wall thickness and decreased resting heart rate.

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27
Q

What is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Alpha-1 antitrypsin is the major serum inhibitor of neutrophil elastase.

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency typically causes early-onset panacinar emphysema, predominantly affecting the lower lung lobes.

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28
Q

What is global cerebral ischemia?

A

typically precipitated by systemic hypotension (eg, cardiac arrest). The cells most susceptible to ischemia are the CA1 pyramidal neurons of the hippocampus.

Other areas of the brain that are damaged early in the course of global cerebral ischemia include the cerebellar Purkinje cells and the pyramidal neurons of the neocortex.

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29
Q

Muscles used when sitting up from the supine position include?

A

the external abdominal obliques, the recuts abdominis, and the hip flexors.

The iliopsoas muscle is the most important of the hip flexors and includes the psoas major, psoas minor, and iliacus.

The rectus femoris, sartorius, tensor fascia lata, and the medial compartment of the thigh also contribute to hip flexion.

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30
Q

Characteristics of an atrial septal defect

A

An atrial septal defect leads to increased right-sided blood flow due to left-to-right shunting.

Characteristics findings are an early-peaking midsystolic ejection murmur over the left upper sternal border (ie, pulmonic flow murmur) and wide and fixed splitting of S2.

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31
Q

The presence of rod-shaped intacytopalsmic inclusions (known as Auer rods) is characteristic of many forms of?

A

acute myeloid leukemia (AML).

The M3 variant of AML, acute promyelocytic leukemia, is associated with cytogenetic abnormality t(15;17) and typically shows abnormal promyelocytes with abundant cytoplasmic granules, multiple Auer rods, and bilobed nuclei.

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32
Q

Patients with intravascular volume depletion (eg, congestive heart failure, diarrhea, excessive diuresis) and chronic kidney disease depend on?

A

renal prostaglandin production to dilate the afferent glomerular arteriole and maintain the glomerular filtration rate.

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, which can cause prerenal azotemia in at-risk patients.

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33
Q

Anthracycline chemotherapeutic agents (eg, doxorubicin, daunorubicin) cause?

A

cardiotoxicity mainly through the formation of anthracycline-topoisomerase II DNA cleavage complexes that affect healthy cardiomyocytes. The cardiotoxicity is dependent on the cumulative dose of anthracycline received, and it manifests as dilated cardiomyopathy.

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34
Q

What is syringomyelia?

A

characterized by the formation of a cavity (syrinx) in the cervical region of the spinal cord. The syrinx damages the ventral white commissure, leading to bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation that is limited to the affected levels (typically the arms and hands); distal sensation is preserved.

Destruction of the motor neurons in the ventral horns (due to extension of the syrinx) results in flaccid paralysis and atrophy of the intrinsic muscles of the hand.

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35
Q

What is opsoclonus-myoclonus associated with?

A

Opsoclonus-myoclonus is a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with neuroblastoma, the most common extracranial solid neoplasm in children.

The tumor typically arises from the neural crest cells of the adrenal medulla and presents with an abdominal mass and elevated catecholamine breakdown products.

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36
Q

MOA of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (eg, acetazolamide)

A

reduce intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma by reducing production of aqueous humor.

Carbonic anhydrase is also found in the renal proximal tubule, where it catalyzes reactions necessary for bicarbonate (HCO3) reabsorption. Acetazolamide therefore induces a mild diuresis with increased urine pH and resulting mild metabolic acidosis.

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37
Q

Homocystinuria is most commonly caused by?

A

a defect in cystathionine synthase, resulting in an inability to form cysteine from homocysteine.

Cysteine becomes essential in affected patients, and homocysteine buildup leads to elevated methionine.

Homocysteine is prothrombotic, resulting in premature thromboembolic events (eg, atherosclerosis, acute coronary syndrome) in these patients.

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38
Q

What is a side effect of vincristine therapy?

A

Neurotoxicity is the dose limiting adverse effect of vincristine therapy.

Vincristine inhibits axonal microtubule formation, resulting in impaired axonal transport and peripheral neuropathy (eg, numbness, tingling)

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39
Q

Pathogenesis of tuberculin skin testing?

A

Tuberculin skin testing triggers a type IV delayed-hypersensitity reaction in patients with previous infection due to the presence of primed, antigen specific CD4 T lymphocytes.

These lymphocytes recognize tuberculin proteins displayed on antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and become activated following a costimulatory interaction between CD28 on the T cell and CD80/86 on the APC.

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40
Q

What is seen on duodenal biopsy for celiac disease?

A

Celiac disease is caused by an immune-mediated reaction to gluten and classically leads to chronic gastrointestinal symptoms.

Diagnosis is confirmed by elevated tissue transglutaminase IgA antibody and duodenal biopsy showing villus flattening, intraepithelial lymphocyte infiltration, and crypt hyperplasia.

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41
Q

What are the favorable prognostic factors in schizophernia?

A

predominantly positive psychotic symptoms, acute onset (shorter prodrome) with an identifiable precipitant, and older age at onset.

42
Q

What is a case control study?

A

an observational study design; it begins with individuals who have the outcome (“cases”) and compares them with individuals who do not have the outcomes (“controls”) according to history of exposure to >1 risk factors.

43
Q

What is the pathogenesis for atopic (extrinsic) asthma?

A

Paroxysmal breathlessness and wheezing in a young patient that are unrelated to ingestion of aspirin, pulmonary infection, inhalation of irritants, and/or exercise should raise a strong suspicion for atopic (extrinsic) asthma.

Classic sputum findings include eosinophils and Charcot-Leyden crystals.

Eosinophils are recruited and activated by IL-5 secreted by Th2 type T cells.

44
Q

What is the cause of damage in carbon tetrachloride poisoning?

A

The P450 microsomal oxidase system plays an important role in detoxification.

In carbon tetrachloride poisoning, it produces free radicals that start a vicious cycle of hepatic injury.

45
Q

How does alcohol based disinfectants kill viruses?

A

Alcohol-based disinfectants kill enveloped viruses (eg, influenza) by dissolving their outer lipid envelope.

Nonenveloped viruses are less susceptible to some alcohol based disinfectants because they have no lipid envelope to target.

46
Q

What is anemia of chronic disease?

A

Anemia of chronic disease occurs in patients with rheumatologic diseases, chronic infection, malignancy, congestive heart failure, and morbid obesity due to chronic elevation of inflammatory cytokines.

The primary mediator is hepcidin, a peptide released from the liver that inhibits iron channels on enterocytes and reticuloendothelial macrophages. This reduces iron availability for erythropoiesis, which leads to normocytic (or slightly microcytic) anemia with a poor reticulocyte response.

47
Q

What is rhabdomyolysis?

A

Rhabdomyolysis usually presents with myalgia, proximal muscle weakness, and dark urine (myoglobinuria) in the setting of trauma, sepsis, or overexertion.

Kidney injury occurs due to heme pigment-mediated tubular injury, leading to acute tubular necrosis.

Urine microscopy: granular, muddy brown casts.

48
Q

functions of C difficile toxins A and B

A

Pathogenic Clostridioides difficile can proliferate due to loss of commensual gut flora following the use of broad spectrum antibiotics (eg, clindamycin).

C difficile toxins A and B stimulate an inflammatory reaction and disrupt the actin cytoskeletal structure, resulting in pseudomembranous colitis characterized by cramps abdominal pain, watery diarrhea, and leukocytosis.

49
Q

The positive symptoms of schizophrenia occur in which brain pathway?

A

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia (eg, delusions, hallucinations) are associated with increased activity of dopamine the mesolimbic pathway.

Antipsychotics work by antagonizing dopamine receptors in this pathway.

50
Q

What is seen in positively skewed distribution?

A

In general, a positively skewed distribution, the mean is the most shifted in the positive direction (to the right), followed by the median and then the mode. In such a situation, the median often reflects a central reflects a central tendency better than the mean does.

mode < median < mean

51
Q

Vegan diet can cause deficiencies

A

Individuals on a vegan diet are at increased risk for deficiencies in calcium and vitamin D, which may increase the risk for osteoporosis and bone fractures.

Cobalamin (vitamin b12) deficiency can also occur.

52
Q

What is tuberous sclerosis?

A

Tuberous sclerosis complex is a neurocutaneous disorder in which enhanced mTOR signaling due to defective tuberin-hamartin complex results in uncontrolled cellular proliferation and tumor formation (eg, subependymal nodules)

53
Q

What is Gaucher disease?

A

a lysosomal storage disease in which decreased activity of glucocerebrosidase leads to a buildup of glucocerebroside.

Accumulation of this substrate within lysosomes in the mononuclear phagocyte system classically results in hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenia, and bone pain; CNS involvement can also lead to neurologic manifestations (eg, spasticity)

54
Q

What is colonic diverticulosis?

A

refers to multiple sac-like outpouching within the sigmoid colon.

Complications include diverticular bleeding and diverticulitis. Risk factors for diverticulosis include a diet high in red meat and fat and low in fiber, as well as obesity and physical inactivity.

55
Q

What is the treatment of pertussis?

A

Pertussis is a clinical diagnosis (eg, prolonged, forceful cough; household contact with prolonged cough; lack of immunization; lymphocytosis) and should be treated empirically.

The treatment of choice is a macrolide antibiotic (eg, azithromycin), which binds to the bacterial ribosomal subunit and inhibits protein synthesis.

56
Q

What is contrast-induced nephropathy?

A

Contrast-induced nephropathy is characterized by an acute rise in creatinine and blood urea nitrogen after radiologic contrast administration, followed by a gradual return to baseline.

It is characterized histologically by diffuse necrosis of the proximal tubular cells (acute tubular necrosis).

Urinalysis: muddy brown casts

57
Q

Where does a Stanford Type A and B aortic dissection occur at?

A

The intimal tear in Stanford type A aortic dissection (involving the ascending aorta) usually originates in the sinotubular junction whereas the intimal flap in Stanford type B aortic dissection usually starts near the origin of the left subclavian artery.

Dissections can propagate distally to the thoracoabdominal aorta.

58
Q

Pathogenesis of concentric left ventricular hypertrophy?

A

involves thickening of the LV walls with reduction in LV cavity size and most commonly results from prolonged systemic hypertension.

It can progress to hypertensive heart disease with impaired diastolic filling and heart failure with preserved ejection fraction.

Histopath: transverse thickening of cardiomyocytes with prominent hyperchromatic nuclei and interstitial fibrosis.

59
Q

What are the features of fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

facial dysmorphism (short palpebral fissures, thin upper lip, smooth philtrum), growth retardation, neurological abnormalities, and behavioral difficulties.

60
Q

MOA of clopidogrel

A

irreversibly blocks the P2Y12 component of ADP receptors on the platelet surface and prevents platelet aggregation.

Clopidogrel is as effective as aspirin in the prevention of cardiovascular events in patients with coronary heart disease.

61
Q

What is seen aftet a unilateral orchiectomy?

A

Following unilateral orchiectomy, the drop in testosterone stimulates pituitary LH secretion, which stimulates increased testosterone production in the remaining testis and maintains libido, erectile function, and secondary sex characteristics.

However, the loss of sperm-producing tissue usually causes a drop in sperm counts.

62
Q

What is a third-degree (complete) atrioventricular block?

A

involved dysfunction of the atrioventricular node, resulting in total lack of communication between the atria and ventricles.

ECG: dissociation of P waves and QRS complexes, with P waves marching out at the intrinsic rate of the sinoatrial node and QRS complexes at the intrinsic rate of the His bundle or ventricles (escape rhythm)

63
Q

What is testicular torsion

A

characterized by spermatic cord twisting due to an anatomic defect that allows increased testicular mobility.

The presentation includes severe scrotal pain and swelling due to venous compression and hemorrhagic infarction of the testis.

64
Q

What is HIV-2 infection?

A

Most cases of AIDS worldwide are caused by HIV-1. However, AIDS can also be caused by infection with HIV-2, which is endemic to West Africa.

HIV-2 infection is associated with lower viral loads, less risk of transmission, and a slower progression to AIDS.

This diagnosis is often suspected when HIV tests are incongruent (positive screening serology but indeterminate Western blot and negative plasma HIV-1 RNA).

Confirmation can be made using HIV1/HIV2 immunodifferentiation assay.

65
Q

What is heparin-induced thrombocytopenia type 2?

A

results from the formation of IgG antibodies to complexes of heparin and endogenous platelet factor 4.

The major manifestation is thrombocytopenia, which typically occurs 5-10 days after heparin initiation due to the destruction of antibody-coated platelets by splenic macrophages.

Widespread intravascular platelet activation also results in a high risk of arterial and venous thrombosis.

66
Q

Where is the coronary sinus located?

A

Left ventricular leads in biventricular pacemakers course through the coronary sinus, which resides in the atrioventricular groove on the posterior aspect of the heart.

67
Q

What is sjogren syndrome?

A

autoimmune disorder characterized by inflammation of exocrine glands.

Biopsy of the labial salivary glands shows periductal lymphocytic infiltrates (focal lymphocytic sialadenitis), often with germinal centers; the glandular tissue is typically atrophic and fibrotic.

68
Q

MOA of heparin

A

Heparin is an indirect anticoagulant that alters the shape of antithrombin III, thereby converting it from a slow to rapid inactivator of clotting factors.

Because AT primarily neutralizes factor Xa and thrombin, patients on heparin have decreased factor Xa activity and prolonged thrombin time/partial thromboplastin time.

In contrast, direct oral anticoagulants specifically target a single enzyme in the coagulation cascade, such as thrombin (eg, dabigatran) or factor Xa (eg, rivaroxaban)

69
Q

What is seen on bone imaging for prostate cancer?

A

Bony pain in an older man with osteoblastic lesions

70
Q

What can patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis be treated with?

A

Patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis have reduced renal perfusion (due to atherosclerotic blockage) and are dependent upon angiotensin II-induced efferent vasoconstriction to maintain glomerular filtration rate.

ACE inhibitors block angiotensin II-mediated vasoconstriction, which can reduce systemic blood pressure and lower renal perfusion.

In addition, ACE inhibitors cause dilation of the efferent arteriole, leading to a reduction in glomerular filtration rate and renal filtration fraction.

71
Q

What is a common cause of pericardial effusion?

A

Malignancy is a common cause of pericardial effusion, which is often subacute due to slower accumulation of pericardial fluid with compensatory pericardial stretching.

Pericardiocentesis can acquire fluid for cytologic analysis (eg, atypical cells) to help confirm the etiology.

72
Q

What is preeclampsia?

A

Preeclampsia causes widespread endothelial dysfunction, resulting in dysregulated vascular tone, increased vascular permeability, and decreased end-organ perfusion.

Therefore, a common presentation is headache with visual changes (eg, scotomata) due to dysregulated cerebral blood flow and retinal artery vasoaspasm.

73
Q

What is metalloproteinases?

A

zinc-containing enzymes that degrade the extracellular matrix. They participate in normal tissue remodeling and in tumor invasion through the basement membrane and connective tissue.

74
Q

What is a teratoma?

A

Teratomas are the most common subtype of ovarian germ cell neoplasms and occur most frequently in women age 10-30.

Mature teratomas are benign and show mature tissues derived from multiple germ layers, frequently including skin hair and teeth

75
Q

What is frontotemporal dementia?

A

assocaited with pronouced atrophy of the prefrontal cortex with later degeneration of the anterior temporal cortex.

It manifests initially with changes in personality, social behavior, and language that progress over time to a more global dementia with obvious neurocognitive deficits

76
Q

What is Patau Syndrome? (trisomy 13)

A

usually occurs secondary to meiotic nondisjunction in mothers of advanced maternal age. Key physical findings reflect defective prechordal mesoderm fusion resulting in midline defects (eg, holoprosencephaly, microphthalmia, cleft lip/palate, omphalocele)

77
Q

Hepatitis B infection inclusions look like?

A

Hep B infection causes the hepatocellular cytoplasm to fill with Hep B surface antigen. These inclusions are highly specific for hep B infection and have a finely, granular, pale eosinophilic, ground glass appearance.

78
Q

What is specificity?

A

The specificity of a test is its ability to correctly identify individuals without the disease.

Specificity = TN / (TN + FP)

79
Q

What is seen in androgen abuse?

A

Androgen abuse suppresses GnRH, LH, and FSH secretion, leading to reduced endogenous testosterone secretion, impaired spermatogenesis, and testicular atrophy.

In addition, excess testosterone is converted by aromatase to estradiol, which can lead to gynecomastia.

80
Q

Why is pancreatitis a risk factor for acute respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Pancreatitis is a major risk factor for acute respiratory distress syndrome as it results in the release of large amounts of inflammatory cytokines and pancreatic enzymes, which leads to activation of neutrophils in the alveolar tissues.

During the initial phase, interstitial and idntraalveolar edema, inflammation, and fibrin deposition cause the alveoli to become lined with waxy hyaline membanes.

81
Q

What is Guyon canal syndrome?

A

hamate injury

The ulnar nerve is commonly injured at the elbow (funny bone) or wrist (Guyon canal). Injury at Guyon canal results in sensory loss over the medial 1 1/2 digits and intrinstic hand weakness. They hypothenar eminence may flatten due to muscle atrophy.

82
Q

What is the drug choice for status epilepticus?

A

Intravenous benzodiazepines (eg, lorazepam) are the initial drug of choice.

They work by enhancing the effect of gamma-aminobutyric (GABA) and GABA-A receptor, leading to increased chloride influx and suppression of action potential firing.

83
Q

What is tinea corporis?

A

presents with round or ovoid lesions with a raised, scaly border and central clearing.

Trichophyton rubrum is the most common cause and infects keratinized matter in the stratum corneum of the superficial epidermis but does not invade the dermis or subcutaneous tissues.

84
Q

How does nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (verapamil) work in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy commonly involves dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction that worsens with decreased LV blood volume and improves with increased LV blood volume.

Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (verapamil) decrease heart rate (ie, negative chronotropy) and LV contractility (ie, negative isotropy) to increase LV blood volume, reduce LV outflow tract obstruction, and improve symptoms.

85
Q

Histo for myxomas

A

Myxomas are the most common primary cardiac neoplasm, and approximately 80% originate in the left atrium.

Patients may have systemic embolization (stroke) or symptomatic mitral valve obstruction that may be worse with certain body positions.

Histopath: amorphous extracellular matrix with scattered stellate or globular myxoma cells within abundant mucopolysaccharide ground substance.

86
Q

Intensive endurance training does what to the heart?

A

causes cavity enlargement of both the left ventricle and right ventricle to facilitate an increase in stroke volume and cardiac output. The high stroke volume may cause a pulmonic valve flow murmur.

87
Q

What is a focal seizure?

A

Seizures are classified as either focal onset if they originate from a localized region of one cerebral hemisphere or generalized if they involve both hemispheres at onset.

Focal seizures can be subclassified as retained awareness (patients remain interactive) or impaired awareness (patients appear awake but do not interact appropriately).

manifestations of focal seizure depend on the brain region in which the seizure activity occurs.

88
Q

Electrical stimulation of which nerve can help in obstructive sleep apnea?

A

Neuromuscular weakness of the oropharynx is involved in the pathophysiology of obstructive sleep apnea.

Electrical stimulation of the hypoglossal nerve increases the diameter of the oropharyngeal airway and decreases the frequency of apneic events.

89
Q

Traits of E coli

A

E coli are lactose-fermenting, indole positive, gram negative rods that grow on MacConkey agar and are the most common pathogen causing UTI

90
Q

What is multiple myeloma?

A

The finding of a high peak in the gamma-globulin region on serum protein electrophoresis usually represents an M protein consisting of an overproduced monoclonal immunoglobulin.

Multiple myeloma causes an M protein peak on SPEP as well as anemia (weakness), lytic bone lesions (back pain, pathologic fractures), and renal insufficiency (related to amyloid deposition and hypercalcemia)

91
Q

What is P-glycoprotein?

A

an efflux pump found on brain capillary endothelial cells (part of the blood brain barrier) that inhibits a wide range of substrates from entering the brain.

Inhibition of p-glycoprotein can improve drug delivery to the CNS

92
Q

What is wallerian degeneration?

A

the process of axonal degeneration and breakdown of the myelin sheath that occurs distal to a site of injury.

Axonal regeneration does not occur in the central nervous system due to the persistence of myelin debris, secretion of neuronal inhibitory factors, and development of dense glial scarring.

93
Q

Location of lunate

A

The lunate bone is the more medial (ulnar) of the 2 proximal carpal bones that articulate with the radius.

A fall onto an outstretched hand can cause dislocation of the lunate bone with resulting compression of the median nerve (wrist pain, numbness in the first 3.5 digits)

94
Q

MOA of lidocaine

A

Lidocaine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug that tends to bind to inactivated sodium channels and rapidly dissociates. As a result, it is effective in suppressing ventricular tachyarrhythmias induced by rapidly depolarizing and ischemic myocardium

95
Q

What is a febrile seizure?

A

usually a benign neurologic disorder that occurs most commonly in children age 6 months to 5 years who have high fever due to a viral illness.

The pathyphysiology involves hyperthermia-induced neuronal dysfunction triggering a short generalized seizure, treatment is generally supportive with antipyretics for fever reduction

96
Q

What is acute respiratory distress syndrome?

A

involves acute neutrophilic lung inflammation with widespread alveolar damage due to proteases and reactive oxygen species, leading to failure to vascular barrier and exudative pulmonary edema.

97
Q

What is the most common gastrointestinal disorder in patients with cystic fibrosis?

A

pancreatic insufficiency.

Mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene lead to thick, viscous secretions in the lumens of the pancreas, resulting in obstruction, inflammation, and subsequent fibrosis.

Clinical manifestations: steatorrhea, failure to thrive, and deficiency of fat soluble vitamins

98
Q

What is seen in Duchenne muscle dystrophy?

A

manifests with proximal muscle weakness and atrophy. True hypertrophy of the distal muscle is noted early in the disease as distal muscles compensate for weak proximal ones.

Muscle fibers of the distal extremities are later replaces by fat and connective tissue (pseudohypertrophy)

99
Q

What happens if you use nitrates with phosphodiesterase inhibitors?

A

Using nitrates together with phosphodiesterase inhibitors used for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension causes a profound systemic hypotension because they both increase intracellular cGMP which causes vascular smooth muscle relaxation.

Their use together is contraindicated

100
Q

What are the acute effects of corticosteroids on the white blood cell count?

A

increased neutrophil count and decreased lymphocyte, monocyte, basophil, and eosinophil counts.

The increase in the neutrophil count results from “demargination” of neutrophils previously attached to the vessel wall