Uworld30 Flashcards
What is xeroderma pigmentosum?
develops due to a defect in nucleotide excision repair. This disease is characterized by increased sensitivity to ultraviolet radiation and a high incidence of cutaneous malignancy
What is the Romberg test?
a test of proprioception in which patients are observed for unsteadiness as they stand with their feet close together, arms to the sides, and eyes closed.
Failure to maintain this posture indicates sensory ataxia, which may be caused by defects in the posterior column or peripheral nerves (eg, tabes dorsalis, vitamin B12 def)
What is a bicuspid aortic valve?
a common cause of aortic stenosis in the US.
The classic auscultation of aortic stenosis is a harsh, crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur best heard at the right upper sternal border with radiation to the carotids.
What is cerebral palsy?
a non progressive neurologic injury that most commonly presents with delayed gross motor milestones, spasticity, and hyperreflexia. Premature infants are particularly susceptible due to periventricular leukomalacia (white matter necrosis)
In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, air trapping leads to?
an increase in residual volume and total lung capacity, and increase in RV/TLC ratio.
Airway obstruction causes a decrease in forced vital capacity, forced expiratory volume in 1 second, and the FEV1/FVC ratio.
What is IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)
frequently presents as recurrent, self limited, painless hematuria; episodes often occur concurrently with an upper respiratory tract infection.
Kidney biopsy will show mesangial IgA deposits on immunofluorescence.
In contrast, poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is seen 1-3 weeks after streptococcal pharyngitis and is usually not recurrent.
Pancreatic zymogens are normally converted into their active for by?
trypsin in the duodenal lumen.
Premature cleavage of trypsinogen to trypsin within the pancreas leads to uncontrolled activation of these zymogens, causing pancreatic autodigestion and acute pancreatitis.
MOA of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors (eg, finasteride, dutasteride)
block the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone in the prostate. These drugs reduce prostate volume in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia and relieve the fixed component of bladder outlet obstruction.
Warfarin inhibits?
proteins C and S (natural anticoagulant present in blood), which can lead to skin necrosis, particularly in patients with protein C or S deficiency. This complication is usually seen in the first few days of warfarin therapy.
What is ductal carcinoma in situ?
The terminal duct lobular unit is the functional unit of the breast and the site of origin for most breast carcinomas.
Ductal carcinoma in situ is characterized by neoplastic epithelial cells (sometimes with pleomorphism and central necrosis) that fill the ducts/lobules.
What is trazodone?
a highly sedating antidepressant commonly used to treat insomnia.
Priapism is a rare but serious adverse effect.
What is responsible for biliary stones in patients with somatostatinoma?
Reduced gallbladder contractility, due to decreased cholecystokinin secretion, is responsible for biliary stones in patients with somatostatinoma.
What is colonic diverticula?
often involve the sigmoid colon and develop due to exaggerated contractions of colonic smooth muscle segments.
This results in increased intraluminal pressure, causing outpouching of the mucosa and submucosa through the muscularis (false diverticula).
Individuals (typically age>60) may be asymptomatic or have hematochezia or diverticulitis.
What is the difference between duodenal ulcers and ones in the stomach?
Duodenal ulcers are not associated with an increased risk of carcinoma in the same location.
In contrast, ulcers located in the esophagus, stomach (gastric), and colon may be malignant, and biopsy is required.
Where does the testes and scrotum drain?
Due to its intra-abdominal origin, lymphatic drainage of the testis is to the para-aortic lymph nodes.
Lymph drainage from the scrotum goes into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.
Drug induced parkinsonism is an extrapyramidal side effect caused by meds that?
block D2 receptors (eg, antipsychotics).
Management strategies include decreasing or discontinuing the offending medication and treatment with an anticholinergic medication.
What is correlation analysis?
a statistical technique used to describe the strength and direction of a linear relationship between 2 quantitative variables.
What is diverticulitis?
characterized by inflammation of colonic diverticula. Patients have abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and changes in bowel habits. Low grade fever and leukocytosis are common, and physical examination may demonstrate a tender mass in the left lower quadrant.
What is xeroderma pigmentosum?
an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by defective nucleotide excision repair often caused by a deficiency in UV-specific endonuclease.
Affected children usually have severe photosensitivity, hyperpigmentation in sun-exposed areas, and a greatly increased risk for skin cancer.
What alzheimer disease?
a progressive dementia featuring diffuse cortical atrophy involving loss of cholinergic neurons.
Memory, cognitive, and functional impairments of AD are partially mediated by insufficient cholinergic output.
Cholinesterase inhibitors (eg, donepezil) enhance cholinergic neurotransmission to compensate for this defect.
The rubber-like properties of elastin are due to?
high content of nonpolar (hydrophobic) amino acids and extensive cross-linking between elastin monomers facilitated by lysyl oxidase.
Patients with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency can develop early onset, lower lobe predominant emphysema due to excessive alveolar elastin degradation.
What is central hypothyroidism?
low serum TSH and thyroxine (T4) levels and is due to hypothalamic-pituitary dysfunction.
What is Sheehan syndrome?
ischemic necrosis of the pituitary gland and is typically caused by systemic hypotension during delivery.
In addition to central hypothyroidism, patients may also develop deficiencies of other pituitary hormones (eg, ACTH, prolactin, gonadotropins).
What is the paired t-test?
compares with mean of 2 related groups. The test requires that a quantitative dependent variable (ie, outcome) be evaluated in 2 related (ie, matched, paired) groups.