Uworld23 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the first line treatment of bipolar?

A

The goal of bipolar maintenance treatment is to delay or prevent recurrent manic and depressive episodes.

Lithium is a first line treatment and has the added benefit of reducing the risk of suicide.

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2
Q

Portal hypertension in cirrhosis leads to?

A

vasodilation and decreased systemic perfusion pressure, which causes antidiuretic hormone release and activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, promoting sodium and water retention.

However, due to resistance to splanchnic flow, low oncotic pressure, and hyperdynamic circulation, the fluid is third-spaced into the extravascular compartments (eg, ascites). Therefore, despite increased total body volume, patients with cirrhosis remain intravascularly volume depleted.

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3
Q

What is abetalipoproteinemia?

A

an inherited inability to synthesize apolipoprotein B, an important component of chylomicrons and very low density lipoprotein,

Lipids absorbed by the small intestine cannot be transported into the circulation and instead accumulate in the intestinal epithelium, resulting in enterocytes with clear or foamy cytoplasm.

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4
Q

Candida albicans is a normal commensal of what?

A

Expectorated sputum cultures are often contaminated by normal oral flora. The growth of Candida albicans, a normal commensal of the gastrointestinal tract and skin, almost always indicates oral contamination rather than true pulmonary infection.

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5
Q

What is necrotizing enterocolitis?

A

one of the most common gastrointestinal emergencies affecting newborns.

It is characterized by bacterial invasion and ischemic necrosis of the bowel wall, and is associated with prematurity and initiation of enteral feeding.

Abdominal xray showing pneumatosis intestinalis (ie, air in the bowel wall) confirms the diagnosis.

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6
Q

Which antibiotics disrupt bacterial cell wall synthesis?

A

The bacterial cell wall protects the organism from osmotic stress. Antibiotics that target the cell wall result in bacterial lysis in hypotonic solutions.

Fosfomycin, vancomycin, penicillins, and cephalosporins all disrupt bacterial cell wall synthesis.

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7
Q

hCG is structurally similar to?

A

Anovulatory infertility can be treated with ovulation induction therapy, which may include a course of gonadotropins to stimulate the ovarian follicles.

Once the follicles mature, patients are administered an injection of hCG, which mimics the LH surge and acts as the ovulation trigger

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8
Q

What age do kids understand death?

A

Preschool children have no developed an understanding of the finality of death, which typically occurs around age 7.

They may have magical thoughts that death is temporary or reversible and believe that other people’s grief is their fault.

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9
Q

Primary herpes simplex virus type 1 infection causes what in children?

A

gingivostomatitis (ie, vesicles on the anterior oral mucosa, particularly the lips and gingivae). HSV-1 and other herpesviruses are double stranded, enveloped DNA viruses.

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10
Q

Which portion of the portal circulation does esophageal varices come from?

A

left gastric vein

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11
Q

Which part of the portal circulation does anorectal varices come from?

A

Superior rectal vein

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12
Q

which part of the portal circulation does caput medusae come from?

A

paraumbilical veins

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13
Q

In patients with hemolytic anemia, peripheral blood smear usually reveals evidence of?

A

reticulocytosis, spherocytes, and nucleated red blood cells.

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14
Q

What is the major pathogenic contributor to atrial fibrillation?

A

Atrial remodeling is the major pathogenic contributor to atrial fibrillation.

Age and comorbidities that cause atrial dilation (eg, hypertension, heart failure, mitral valve disease) cause atrial structural changes that predispose to atrial fibrillation development. In addition, age and previous atrial fibrillation cause atrial conduction system changes that further propagate atrial fibrillation.

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15
Q

What is histone H1?

A

Nucleosomes are composed of DNA wrapped around a core of histone proteins.

Histone H1 is unique in that it is located outside this histone core and helps package nucleosomes into more compact structures, limiting transcriptional access to DNA.

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16
Q

Urine sediment in acute ureterolithiasis typically shows?

A

free red blood cells (hematuria) and crystals consistent with the type of stone.

Ultrasound can reveal ureteral and calyceal dilation (hydronephrosis), but small stones themselves may not be visible.

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17
Q

What is alveolar consolidation?

A

occurs when the alveoli become filled with fluid (eg, inflammatory exudate in bacterial pneumonia).

The increased compactness of the alveolar fluid (compared to air) causes sound to travel faster and more efficiently, resulting in bronchophony, increased tactile fremitus (vibration) and increased intensity of breath sounds over the affected area.

Dullness to percussion is also present.

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18
Q

Methicillin-resistance Staph aureus (MRSA) is resistant to most beta-lactam medications (eg, oxacillin, methicillin, cephalosporins) due to?

A

the acquistion of a mobile genetic element that contains the mecA gene. This gene encodes for a specialized penicillin-binding protein that has low affinity for beta-lactam antibiotics.

Treatment of MRSA therefore requires a non-beta lactam medication such as trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, clindamycin, doxycycline, or vancomycin.

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19
Q

What are the effects of epinephrine?

A

Epinephrine increases systolic blood pressure (a1 and b1) and heart rate (b1), and either increases or decreases diastolic blood pressure depending on the dose (either a1 or b2 predominates)

Pretreatment with propranolol eliminates the beta effects of epinephrine (vasodilatation and tachycardia), leaving only the alpha effect (vasoconstriction)

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20
Q

What is von Willebrand disease?

A

the most common inherited bleeding disorder.

It has an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance and variable penetrance.

Absence of von Willebrand factor leads to impaired platelet function (prolonged bleeding time) and coagulation pathway abnormalities due to decreased factor VIII activity (prolonged partial thromboplastin time)

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21
Q

What is negative selection?

A

The process of negative selection in T cell maturation is essential for eliminating T cells that bind to self MHC or self antigens with overly high affinity.

This process occurs in the thymic medulla. If these cells are permitted to survive, they would likely induce immune and inflammatory reactions against self antigens leading to autoimmune disease

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22
Q

What is Sjogren syndrome?

A

autoimmune disorder characterized by lymphocytic inflammation in exocrine glands (eg, lacrimal, salivary). It presents with dry eyes (keratoconjunctivitis sicca) and dry mouth (xerostomia)

Chronic B cell proliferation increases the risk for non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

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23
Q

What is major depressive disorder with psychotic features?

A

a severe subtype of unipolar major depression characterized by symptoms meeting the criteria for MDD and the presence for delusions and/or hallucinations.

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24
Q

The splenic artery originates from which artery?

A

the celiac artery and gives off several branches to the stomach and pancreas (pancreatic, short gastric, and left gastroepiploic arteries) before finally reaching the spleen.

Due to poor anastomoses, the gastric tissue supplied by the short gastric arteries is vulnerable to ischemic injury following splenic artery blockage.

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25
Q

What are villous adenomas?

A

Villous adenomas tend to be larger, sessile, and more severely dysplastic than tubular adenomas.

Villous adenomas can cause a secretory diarrhea from increased mucin production; patients may develop hypoproteinemia and hypokalemia.

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26
Q

What is a tension pneumothorax?

A

involves progressively increasing intrapleural pressure that leads to contralateral mediastinal shifting (eg, tracheal deviation) and vena cava collapse.

Hypotension, tachycardiac, and obstructive shock develop due to decrease venous return to the heart.

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27
Q

Fluoroquinolones can form insoluble chelate complexes with?

A

polyvalent cations (eg, calcium, iron, aluminum, magnesium) in the GI tract, leading to impaired absorption.

This effect can be seen with over the counter antacids containing calcium, magnesium, and/or aluminum salts and in patients taking calcium salts (eg, calcium carbonate, calcium citrate) for treatment of osteoporosis.

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28
Q

What is the most common cause of severe, unilateral fetal hydronephrosis?

A

Inadequate canalization of the ureter at the ureteropelvic junction (the connection site between the kidney and the ureter)

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29
Q

Anemia with an elevated reticulocyte count (ie, reticulocytosis) indicates?

A

that the bone marrow is responding appropriately to the anemia by generating new erythrocytes.

Reticulocytosis is commonly seen in patients with hemolysis or acute bleeding.

Many other causes of anemia are associated with LOW reticulocyte count, including bone marrow suppression (eg, parvovirus), iron deficiency anemia, vitamin b12/folate def, and anemia of chronic disease.

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30
Q

MOA of echinocandins (capsofungin, micafungin)

A

antifungal medications that inhibit synthesis of the polysaccharide glucan, an essential component of the fungal cell wall.

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31
Q

An inappropriately small sample will fail to identify important clinically signifcant differences as statistically significant because of a lack of?

A

sufficient statistical power.

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32
Q

The probability that an autosomal recessive disease will be transmitted to a child can be calculated bases on the maternal and paternal pedigrees. An unaffected individual (with unaffected parents) who has a sibling afftected by an autosomal recessive condition has what chance of being a carrier for that condition?

A

2/3

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33
Q

What is social anxiety disorder?

A

excessive fear of scrutiny or embarrassment in social or performance situations, resulting in significant distress and functional impairment.

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34
Q

Function of the lateral pterygoid muscles

A

The lateral pterygoid muscles are the only muscles of mastication that aid in depressing the mandible (ie, opening the jaw).

Spasm of the lateral pterygoids prevents spontaneous reduction of an anterior dislocation of the temporomandibular joint.

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35
Q

Injury to which artery can cause osteonecrosis of the femoral head?

A

The medial circumflex femoral artery and its branches provide the majority of blood supply to the femoral head and neck.

Injury to these vessels due to a displaced femoral neck fracture can cause osteonecrosis of the femoral head.

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36
Q

What is acute rheumatic fever?

A

an autoimmune reaction following an untreated group A streptococcal pharyngitis.

Anti-group A streptococcus antibodies (eg, anti-M protein, anti-N-acetyl-beta-D-glucosamine) cross react and attack cardiac and central nervous system antigens

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37
Q

What is Crohn disease?

A

presents with insidious onset of abdominal pain, diarrhea, and constitutional symptoms (eg, weight loss, fever).

Patients are prone to developing fistulas/abscesses as the lesions affect the entire thickness of the bowel wall.

Perianal disease (skin tags, fissures) is also common.

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38
Q

What are the physiologic renal adaptions during pregnancy?

A

increased glomerular filtration rate, greater basement membrane permeability, and decreased tubular resorption of filtered protein.

As a result, trace urinary protein excretion (ie, <300 mg/24 hr) is a normal finding in pregnancy.

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39
Q

What is an essential tremor?

A

most often presents as a tremor of the hands that is suppressed at rest, exacerbated by outstretched arms, and more pronounced during goal-directed movements.

It is often hereditary (autosomal dominant) and can be associated with a head tremor, but it is not associated with other neurologic symptoms.

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40
Q

What is the most common cause of peripheral polyneuropathy in adults?

A

Diabetes mellitus; common findings include numbness and paresthesias in a stocking glove distribution and decreased proprioception due to degeneration of large-fiber sensory axons.

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41
Q

What is nitric oxide synthesized from?

A

Nitric oxide is synthesized from arginine by nitric oxide synthase.

As a precursor of nitric oxide, arginine supplementation may play an adjunct role in the treatment of conditions that improve with vasodilation, such as stable angina.

42
Q

What is an adverse effect of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole?

A

Hyperkalemia is a common adverse effect of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole due to the trimethoprim-induced blockade of the sodium channels in the collecting duct, which prevents sodium-potassium exchange and reduces renal excretion of potassium (similar to the action of amiloride).

This effect is often magnified in the elderly population, those with renal failure, or those given other potassium sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, or angiotensin receptor blockers.

43
Q

What is the structure of a MHC class I molecule?

A

CD8+ cells recognize foreign antigens presented with MHC class I proteins.

Each MHC class I molecule consists of a heavy chain and a B2microglobulin.

44
Q

What are sleep terrors?

A

Sleep terrors are a common and usually benign parasomnia of childhood.

They occur during nonrapid eye movement sleep and are characterized by fear, crying, and/or screaming; lack of dream recall; and amnesia of the event.

45
Q

How does renal calculi occur?

A

Renal calculi occur due to an imbalance of the factors that facilitate or inhibit stone formation.

Increased urinary concentrations of calcium, oxalate, and uric acid promote salt crystallization, whereas increased urinary citrate concentration and high fluid intake prevent calculi formation.

46
Q

Long-acting insulin analogues (glargine) replicate?

A

basal insulin secretion.

47
Q

Premeal, rapid acting insulin (lispro) replicates?

A

meal related insulin surges.

48
Q

What is human placental lactogen?

A

creates a fetal glucose-sparing effect by increasing maternal insulin resistance during the second and third trimesters, leading to a rise in serum glucose that helps provide adequate nutrition to the growing fetus.

Gestational diabetes occurs when the compensatory rise in maternal insulin secretion is inadequate to prevent serum glucose levels from reaching excessively high levels.

49
Q

MOA of isoproterenol

A

b1 and b2 adrenergic receptor agonist that causes increased myocardial contractility and decreased systemic vascular resistance.

50
Q

What is familial dysbetalipoproteinemia (type III hyperlipoproteinemia)?

A

an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by elevated cholesterol and triglyceride levels.

It is caused by defects in ApoE3 and ApoE4, leading to decreased clearance of chylomicrons and VLDL remnants.

Patients can develops eruptive and palmar xanthomas and premature atherosclerosis.

51
Q

What are the leading pathogens that can cause secondary bacterial pneumonia?

A

Influenza infection alters the respiratory epithelium and can increase the risk of secondary bacterial pneumonia.

The leading pathogens are Strep pneumo, Staph aureus, and Haemophilus influenzae.

The elderly are affected most commonly, but S aureus can cause secondary pneumonia in young, previously healthy patients.

52
Q

What is pernicious anemia?

A

autoimmune disease characterized by CD4 cell mediated destruction of parietal cells. Because these cells normally produce hydrochloric acid, patients with pernicious anemia have elevated gastric pH, which upregulates gastrin secretion.

Decreased parietal cell secretion of intrinsic factor also results in vitamin B12 def (eg, megaloblastic anemia)

53
Q

What type of study can identify specific risk factors correlated to obesity?

A

Obesity related health dispartities affect vulnerable populations (eg, lower socioeconomic status) and arise from patient, health care, and community related factors.

Cross sectional analysis can identify specific risk factors (eg, insurance status, health behaviors) correlated to obesity in different settings, helping to generate hypotheses for further research.

54
Q

What is actinic keratosis?

A

Actinic keratosis develops on chronically sun exposed areas of the skin in predisposed individuals.

The lesions consist of erythematous papules with a central scale and a rough sandpaper like texture.

AKs are considered premalignant lesions and have the potential to progress to squamous cell carcinoma.

55
Q

Why is immunity not conferred by vaccination with the H influenza type b vaccine with nontypeable strains?

A

Nontypeable strains of Haemophilus influenzae are part of the normal upper respiratory tract flora and are a common cause of acute otitis media, sinusitis, and bronchitis.

Because nontypeable strains do not form a polysaccharide capsule, immunity is not conferred by vaccination with the H influenzae type b vaccine.

56
Q

What is transposition of the great arteries?

A

characterized by parallel circulations of deoxygenated and oxygenated blood.

Initial management includes maintaining a mixing shunt (eg, patent ductus arteriosus, patent foramen ovale) to provide the systemic circulation with partially oxygenated blood.

57
Q

What tabes dorsalis?

A

Tabes dorsalis, a late form of neurosyphilis, causes progressive degeneration of the dorsal columns and dorsal roots of the spinal cord.

Manifestations include loss of proprioception and vibratory sensation, severe lancinating pains, and sensory ataxia (eg, wide based gait, positive Romberg sign).

Many patients also have Argyll Robertson pupils.

58
Q

The inferior vena cava is formed by?

A

formed by the union of the right and left common iliac veins at the level of L4-L5.

The renal arteries and veins lie at the level of L1.

The inferior vena cava returns venous blood to the heart from the lower extremities, portal system, and abdominal and pelvic viscera.

59
Q

MOA of digoxin

A

Digoxin can be used to improve ventricular rate control in patients with atrial fibrillation, as it decreases atrioventricular node conduction by increasing parasympathetic (vagal) tone.

Digoxin also has a positive inotropic effect that can be useful in patients with left ventricular systolic dysfunction.

60
Q

MOA of sulfonylureas (glipizide)

A

Sulfonylureas inhibit the ATP-sensitive potassium channel on the pancreatic beta cell membrane, inducing depolarization Ca2+ influx, and insulin release independent of blood glucose concentrations.

Sulfonylureas can induce hypoglycemia because they stimulate insulin secretion even when blood glucose levels are normal.

61
Q

What is the function of BCL2?

A

BCL2 protein inhibits apoptosis by blocking the release of proapoptotic factors (eg, cytochrome c protein) from the mitochondria.

BCL2 is overexpressed in follicular lymphoma secondary to the t(14;18) translocation involving BCL2 and immunoglobulin heavy-chain genes.

62
Q

Opioids (eg, morphine) can generate a pseudoallergic response by?

A

directly activating mast cells to stimulate degranulation, releasing histamine and other vasoactive mediators.

This nonimmunologic reaction can cause itching, urticarial rash, wheezing, hypotension, and tachycardia that closely mimic true IgE-mediated type 1 hypersensitivity. However, true IgE-mediated allergic reaction is rate with opioids.

63
Q

Niacin toxicity leads to?

A

Niacin (vitamin B3) is the precursor for NAD and NADP.

Niacin toxicity leads to increased prostaglandin production, which causes cutaneous vasodilation, flushing, and pruritus that may be avoided by pretreating with non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

64
Q

What is the earliest histologic finding in Celiac disease?

A

Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder triggered by dietary gluten that develops almost exclusively in patients with HLA-DQ2 or DQ8 serotypes.

If often causes diarrhea and malabsorption (eg, iron deficiency anemia). The earliest histologic finding is duodenal intraepithelial lymphocytosis; crypt hyperplasia and villous blunting develop later.

65
Q

Septic shock causes widespread arteriolar vasodilation, which leads to?

A

a decrease in systemic vascular resistance and a compensatory increase in cardiac output.

Central venous pressure and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure are also decreased due to pooling of blood in the dilated veins.

Increased flow rates through the peripheral capillaries lead to incomplete oxygen extraction by the tissues and high mixed venous oxygen saturation.

66
Q

What does a left ventricular free wall rupture occur?

A

LV free wall rupture is an uncommon by devasting mechanical complication of transmural myocardial infarction that occurs up to 2 weeks following the event (frequently within 5 days).

Rupture leads to cardiac tamponade that causes hypotension and shock with rapid progression to cardiac arrest.

Autopsy typically reveals a slitlike tear at the site of infarction in the LV wall.

67
Q

Defects in primary neurulation result in?

A

open neural tube defects, such as a myelomeningocele, in which the spinal cord and meninges protrude through a vertebral arch defect.

Findings typically include an elevated maternal alpha fetoprotein and a complex cystic mass overlying the lower spine.

68
Q

What is nondisjunction?

A

the failure of chromosome pairs to separate properly during cell division. This could be due to a failure of homologous chromosomes to separate in meiosis I or a failure of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis II or mitosis.

69
Q

How is the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system involved in the pathophysiology and treatment of hypertension?

A

The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is integrally involved in the pathophysiology and treatment of hypertension.

RAAS activity can be reduced by several classes of antihypertensives, all of which will induce natriuresis by decreasing the effects of aldosterone.

Direct renin inhibitors and ACE inhibitors accomplish this by lowering circulating levels of angiotensin II.

70
Q

What is avoidant personality disorder?

A

a maladaptive pattern of behavior characterized by social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and fear of embarrassment and rejection.

71
Q

What is Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

A

a heritable connective tissue disease associated with abnormal collagen formation.

Usually manifests clinically as overflexible (hypermobile) joints, overelastic (hyperelastic) skin, and fragile tissue susceptible to bruising, wounding, and hemarthrosis.

72
Q

What are the primary functions of the latissimus dorsi?

A

extension, adduction, and medial (internal) rotation of the humerus.

73
Q

What is the origination and innervation of the latissimus dorsi?

A

The latissimus dorsi is a large thoracolumbar muscle that orginates from the iliac crest and lumbar fascia to the spinous processes of T7-12 and lower ribs, and inserts at the bicipital groove of the humerus.

74
Q

What is the null value of an odds ratio?

A

The odds ratio is a measure of association used in case-control studies.

It quantifies the relationship between an exposure and a disease; its null value (ie, null hypothesis value) is always 1. (ie, OR=1)

75
Q

What is a case series?

A

a descriptive observational study design in which a group of patients with a similar diagnosis or treatment is described at a point in time or followed over a certain period.

This study design has no comparison group; therefore, it cannot establish associations between risk factors (eg, treatments) and outcomes (eg, diseases)

76
Q

In patients with patent ductus arteriosus, left to right shunting of oxygenated blood from the aorta into the pulmonary artery results in?

A

a higher-than-expected oxygen concentration in the pulmonary artery.

Oxygen saturation in the left and right heart chambers is unchanged.

77
Q

What is the most common pathologic lead point for intussusception?

A

Meckel diverticulum is the most common pathologic lead point for intussusception, a condition in which a portion of the intestine telescopes into itself.

Meckel diverticula frequently contain ectopic gastric mucosa, which can aid in diagnosis.

78
Q

What does the femoral triangle consist of? (lateral to medial)

A

femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, and deep inguinal nodes/lymphatic vessels.

Cannulation of the femoral vein should occur approximately 1cm below the inguinal ligament and just medial to the femoral artery pulsation.

79
Q

Where are beta1 adrenergic receptors found?

A

in cardiac tissue and on renal juxtaglomerular cells, but not in vascular smooth muscle.

Selective blockade of the beta1 receptor (eg, with atenolol) leads to decreased cAMP levels in cardiac and renal tissue without significantly affecting cAMP levels in vascular smooth muscle.

80
Q

function of the aminoglycoside streptomycin

A

inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating the 30S (small) ribosomal subunit.

81
Q

What is a mechanism of mycobacterial resistance to isoniazid?

A

decreased activity of bacterial catalase-peroxidase.

82
Q

What is the mechanism through which organisms become resistant to rifampin?

A

structural alteration of enzymes involved in RNA synthesis (DNA-dependent RNA polymerase)

83
Q

Which types of medications should be avoided in hypertropic cardiomyopathy?

A

Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy worsens with decreased left ventricular blood volume.

Therefore, medications that decrease preload (eg, nitrates), afterload (eg, hydralazine), or both (eg, dihydropuridine calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors) should be avoided.

84
Q

Temporomandibular disorder is associated with?

A

dysfunction of the temporomandibular joint and hypersensitivity of the mandibular nerve (CNV3).

This can result in pathologic contraction of the pterygoid muscles (eg, jaw pain/dysfunction) and the tensor tympani in the middle ear (eg, ear pain, muffled hearing)

85
Q

What are the echocardiographic findings consistent with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy may be asymptomatic.

Echocardiographic findings consistent with HCM include an overall increase in left ventricular mass, reduced LV cavity size with impaired diastolic function, LV hypertrophy predominantly affecting the septum, and normal or increased LV ejection fraction.

86
Q

What is myocardial stunning?

A

Loss of cardiomyocyte contractility occurs within 60 seconds after the onset of total ischemia.

When ischemia lasts less than 30 minutes, restoration of blood flow leads to reversible contractile dysfunction (myocardial stunning), with contractility gradually returning to normal over the next several hours to days. However, after about 30 minutes of total ischemia, ischemic injury becomes irreversible.

87
Q

What is erythrocytosis?

A

defined as a hematocrit level >52% in men and >48% in women.

Measurement of red blood cell mass is necessary to distinguish absolute from relative erythrocytosis.

A normal red blood cell mass indicates plasma volume contraction as the cause of polycythemia.

88
Q

What is the most common cause of digital clubbing in adults?

A

pulmonary malignancy (especially lung adenocarcinoma).

More generally, clubbing is a sign of chronic cardiopulmonary diseases associated with activation of hypoxic-inflammatory signaling (eg, chronic chest infections, right to left shunting)

89
Q

What can treat the symptoms of thryrotoxicosis?

A

Beta blockers provide rapid relief of the adrenergic-mediated symptoms of thryrotoxicosis and can be given while awaiting diagnostic evaluation and definitive management.

90
Q

Synchronization of glycogen degradation with skeletal muscle contraction occurs due to?

A

release of sarcoplasmic calcium following neuromuscular stimulation.

Increased intracellular calcium causes activation of phosphorylase kinase, stimulating glycogen phosphorylase to increase glycogenolysis.

91
Q

What is lipofuscin?

A

a yellow-brown pigment composed of lysosomal breakdown products of lipid polymers and protein-complex phospholipids.

It is considered a wear and tear product and marker of aging because it accumulates over time, and residual bodies containing lipofuscin are prevalent in low turnover cells (eg, heart, liver, central nervous system) of the elderly.

92
Q

What are the neurologic symptoms of vitamin E deficiency?

A

closely mimic those of Friedreich ataxia and include ataxia (spinocerebellar tract degeneration), loss of position and vibration sense (dorsal columns degeneration), and weakness and hyporeflexia (peripheral nerve degeneration)

93
Q

What is fibromuscular dysplasia?

A

abnormal tissue growth within arterial walls, resulting in stenotic and tortuous arteries that can cause tissue ischemia and are prone to aneurysm formation.

Pathology typically demonstrates alternating fibromuscular webs and aneurysmal dilation with absent internal elastic lamina (string of beads appearance).

Renovascular hypertension occurs due to renal artery stenosis and activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

94
Q

What increases the risk of HPV infections?

A

HPV infections, particularly type 16 and 18, are the primary cause of cervical dysplasia and cancer. The risk is higher in patients with increased HPV exposure (eg, multiple sexual partners, lack of barrier contraception use) or impaired immunity (eg, HIV) due to persistent HPV infection.

95
Q

What is seen microscopically for pulmonary actinomycosis?

A

Pulmonary actinomycosis develops most commonly following aspiration and can be confused with lung abscess, malignancy, or tuberculosis.

Microscopic findings include filamentous, branching, gram+ bacteria and sulfur granules.

96
Q

What is the leading respiratory pathogen in adult patients with cystic fibrosis?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the leading respiratory pathogen in adult patients with cystic fibrosis.

Persistent colonization is promoted by biofilm formation, conversion to a mucoid phenotype with alginate production, and downregulation of virulence factors.

97
Q

Where is S4 best heard?

A

near the cardiac apex at the point of maximal impulse with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position.

It results from the atrial contraction, which forces blood into an LV that has reached its limit of compliance.

Chronic hypertension causes left ventricular hypertrophy, which itself may promote the generation of an S4 sound.

98
Q

What are the renal changes in hypovolemia?

A

Hypovolemia results in a reduced renal plasma flow and glomerular filtration rate.

This leads to compensatory efferent arteriolar vasoconstriction, which raises the filtration fraction and maintains GFR at near-normal levels.

As RPF continues to decline, increasing glomerular oncotic pressure will eventually overwhelm the compensatory increase in hydrostatic pressure, leading to a precipitous drop in GFR and renal failure.

99
Q

When will carcinoid tumors result in carcinoid syndrome?

A

Carcinoid tumors confined to the intestine do not cause carcinoid syndrome as their secretory products are metabolized by the liver before entering the systemic circulation.

In contrast, intestinal carcinoids that metastasize to the liver and extraintestinal (eg, bronchial) carcinoids release vasoactive substances that avoid first-pass metabolism, resulting in carcinoid syndrome (eg, flushing, diarrhea, and bronchospasm)

100
Q

What is tumor lysis syndrome?

A

primarily develops during chemotherapy for cancers with rapid cell turnover, substantial tumor burden, or high sensitivity to chemotherapy.

It is characterized by hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, and hyperuricemia.

Prevention involves intravenous fluids to flush the kidneys and the use of hypouricemic agents (eg, rasburicase, allopurinol, febuxostat)