uworld rheumatology/orthopedics/MSK Flashcards

1
Q

explain the etiology of RA @ the joint, step by step

A
  1. activation of T lymphocytes in response to rheumatoid Ags (i.e. citrullinated peptides, type II collagen)
  2. activated T cells release cytokines that cause synovial hyperplasia w recruitment of additional mononuclear cells
  3. accelerated metabolic rate of the inflammed synovial tissue –> local hypoxia + inc production of HIF-1 (hypoxia induced factor)
  4. inc VEGD by local møs and fibroblasts –> synovial angiogenesis (neovascularization)
  5. w progression of ds, inflammed synovium expands into a rheumatoid pannus = invasive mass composed of fibroblast-like synovial cells, granulation tissue, and inflammatory cells
  6. over time, pannus encroaches into joint space and can destroy the articular cartilage and erode the underlying subchondral bone
  7. ossification of the pannus can lead to fusion of the bones across the affected joint = bony ankylosis
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2
Q

what is the etiology of osteoarthritis at the joint

what are the perarticular findings in OA vs RA

A

progressive fibrillation (fissuring and fracturing) and erosion of articular cartilage due to inc biomechanical stress

extensive bone remodelling –>perarticular osteophyte formation and subchondral sclerosis

vs RA = perarticular bone erosions

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3
Q

what structures derived from the 4 pharyngeal pouches

pharyngeal membrane?

pharyngeal groove?

A

pharyngeal pouch 1:

-epithelium of middle ear and auditory tube

(pharyngeal membrane ==> tympanic membrane: pharyngral groove= epithelium of external ear canal)

pharyngeal pouch 2:

-epithelium of palatine tonsil crypts

pharyngeal pouch 3:

=thymus, inferior parathyoid glands

pharyngeal pouch 4:

=superior parathyroid glands, ultimobranchial body

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4
Q

when is colchicine the preferred trx of choice for acute gouty arthrirtis

be specific

what is the MOA of colchicine

A

when NSAIDs are contraindicated

=mild to moderate renal failure, peptic ulcer ds,

MOA colchicine= anti-infl via binding intracellular tubulin to prevent polymerization = x leuokocyte migration and phagocytosis

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5
Q

leukocyte adhesion deficiency

etiology + presentation

A

LAD = AR absence of CD18 ag = x formation of integrins

  • x integrins –> x leukocyte adhesion to endothelial surfaces, x migration to peripheral tissues in response to infection and inflammation

present w

  • recurrent skin and mucosal bacterial infections (of umbilical stump, periodontitis) ∝ staph aureus, G- rods
  • lack of pus (x purulence) bc no nøs in peripheral tissues + poor wound healing
  • delayed umbilical cord seperation (>21 days)
  • marked, persistant leukocytosis w neutrophilia (bc leukocytes cannot migrate out the BVs)
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6
Q

inability to form the complement MAC complex, results from a deficiency in what

predisposes to recurrent infections by what

A

x C5b-C9 –> x MAC formation

recurrent Neisseria infections

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7
Q

which joints are involved in RA? be specific?

x-ray findings?

A

small joints: PIP, MCP, MTP — spare DIP joints

cervical spine subluxation, cord compression

xray–> ST swelling, joint space narrowing, bony erosions

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8
Q

decreased sensation over 5th digit, flattened hypothenar eminence with no change in triceps function suggests a lesion of what

where is the N lesion? be specific

A

ulnar N (C8-T1)

@ Guyon’s canal

N enters Guyon’s canal: between the hook of the hamate and the pisiform bone, = fibroosseous tunnel

but most comonly injured @ elbow due to trauma or N compression

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9
Q

what drugs have been implicated for causing drug induced lupus

what genetic abnormality is associated

how does this ds present

labs?

A

causes of drug induced lupus: procainamide, hydralazine (vasodilator used in HTN), isoniazid, micocycline, TNF-α inhibitors (etanercept)

-inc risk in patient’s with slow/abn liver acetylation (N-acetyltransgerase): esp of isoniazid-related sx

= lupus, but usually w/o the skin, neuro, or renal sx

∝ fever/fatigue, arthralgias/arthritis, serositis

labs= anti-histone Abs in >95% of pts : anti-dsDNA Abs are rare (v specific for SLE NOT DLE)

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10
Q

what is osteomyelitis and how does it happen

list the typical pathogen and location of osteomyelitis in

  • children
  • sickle cell ds
  • Potts ds
  • DM
  • recumbant pts w impaired mobility
  • recent trauma or orthopedic surgery
A

osteomyelitis= infection of bone and BM :

  1. hematogenous seeding 2° to episode of bacteremia
  2. spread from a contiguous focus of finection, i.e. infected DM foot wound
  3. direct inoculation of bone, i.e. compound frx
  • children
  • Staph aureus: long bones : **2° to bacteremia**
  • sickle cell ds
  • Salonella, Staph aureus : long bones : **hematogenous from infarcted bone**
  • Potts ds
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis : vertebrae: **hematogenous seeding from lungs**
  • DM
  • polymicrobial : bones of the feet : contiguous from infected foot ulcer
  • recumbant pts w impaired mobility
  • polymicrobial : sacrum and heels : contiguous from pressure sores
  • recent trauma or orthopedic surgery
  • polymicrobial : variable **from direct inoculation**
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11
Q

what is the function of MMPs (matrix metalloproteinases)

what occurs when there is too many MMPs

A

MMP is imporant in wound healing – encourage both myofibroblast accumulation @ wound edges + scar tissur remodeling

-amassed myofibroblasts intiate wound contraction during healing by second intention

too many MMPs –may–> contractures

= excessive wound contractures = short and hard Ms, tendons, and other tissues -> rigid tissue and joints

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12
Q

keloids formed from what

A

= a hypertrophic scars = excessive collagenous scar tissue deposited by fibroblasts permanently extends beyond the margins of the original wound

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13
Q

what are the causes/risks of gout

be specific

A

increased urate production

  • primary gout (idiopathic)
  • myeloproliferative ds: i.e. polycythemia vera, inc platelets, inc eosinophilia, systemic mastocytosis
  • lymphoproliferative ds: i.e. multiple myeloma/waldenstroms macroglobulinemia, EBV associated lymphoproliferative ds, CLL/ALL/hair cell leukemia/ B-cell lymphoma/ T-cell lymphoma/ follicular lymphoma
  • tumor lysis syndrome
  • hypxanthine guanine PB-transferase deficiency

dec urate clearance

  • CKD
  • thiazide/loop diuretic
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14
Q

pathology and sx of Duchenne Muscular dystropgy

A

= X linked recessive xdystrophin

sx:

  • clumsy, slow, wadding gait : can’t keep up w peers
  • Gower’s sign: progressive wknss in proximal Ms= use hands to support weight on standing
  • cald pseudohypertrophy = initialy calf M hypertrophy in response to proximal M wknss, later replaced by fat and CT
  • asymmetric weakening of paraspinal Ms –> kyphoscoliosis –> restrictuve pulmonary function (dec vital capacity and total lung capacity)
  • most pts are wheelchair bound by age 12
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15
Q

what are the structures that make up the rotator cuff: what is the purpose of the rotator cuff

which structure within the rotator cuff is most commonly affected/injured, and why

A

rotator cuff= contribute to stability and motion of glenohumeral joint

**SITS**= tendons of supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis

most commonly affected: supraspinatous tendon

=vulnerable to chronic repated trauma from impingement between head of the humerus and acromion during ABduction

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16
Q

what drugs are TNF-alpha inhibitors

when are TNF-alpha inhibitors indicated

how do they work

what possible sideeffect requires proactive screening before starting on a TNF inhib

A

i.e. etanercept, infliximab, adalimumab

=trx mod to severe RA in patients who’ve failed methotrexate therapy

= a fusion protein of IgG1-Fc portion and TNF-receptor 2 = act as decoy receptor for TNF-alpha

-can promote reactivation of latent TB and increase the risk of disseminated ds : all potential pts need to TB skin test/ IFN-y release assay to screen for latent TB furst

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17
Q

when is methotrexate indicated

what baseline tests are should be given before starting a patient on methotrexate

A

methotrexate = RA, psoriasis, + CA

-can cause lung or liver toxicity, so baseline CXR and liver function tests are recommended

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18
Q

what are the indications for hydroxychloroquine use?

MOA?

what irreversible possible AE of the drug requires baseline tests and regular monitoring?

A
  • hydroxychloroquine is indicated in malaria and rheumatoid arthritis/SLE (without organ involvement)

MOA

  • antimalarial: forms a heme-chloroquine complex that is highly toxic to plasmodium, causing membrane damage and killing the parasite
  • anti-rheumatic: decrease the formation of peptide-MHC protein complexes –> downregulate immune response against autoantigenic peptides

can cause irreversible retinal damage w long term use

– rrequire baseline and regular follow up w opthalmology

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19
Q

what baseline tests should be performed before starting a [atient on amiodarone

A

PFTs due to AE of pulmonary fibrosis

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20
Q

fecal occult blood testing should be done when in patients taking NSAIDs?

A

bc of inc risk of peptic ulcers, do a FOBT with any suspicion of GI bleed

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21
Q

Pott’s Ds

pathology

presentation

A

Potts ds= hematogenous seeding of TB-bacteremia into highly vacular organs (spleen, liver, bones)

  • esp likely in vertebrae bc of extensive venous plexus : frequently, infection spreads to adjacent vertebrae fron behind the ant. L. and IV disk space –> contigious bone destruction and abscess formation

clin

  • present months to years after the primary pulmonary infection seen w TB
  • ∝ intermittant fevers and slowly worsening lumar/lower thoracic back pain with vertebral bone destruction and adjacent fluid collection (abscess)
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22
Q

what is the most common cause of spinal epidural abscess

how does it present

A

S. aureus = most common cause of spinal epidural abscess

most cases present in IV drug users, from a hematogenous spread of distant infection (i.e. endocarditis) or direct inoculation during a spinal procedure

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23
Q

increased serum markers indicate increased osteoblast activity?

A
  • inc alk phos = expressed by osteoblasts (tho nonspecific)
  • N-terminal propeptide of Type 1 collagen = PINP = released during maturation process of type 1 collagen fibrils during bone matrix synthesis
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24
Q

increase urine levels of what are indicative of osteoclast activity

A
  • hydroxyproline
  • collagen telopeptides

both seen in inc bone resorption

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25
Q

what is achondroplasia

etiology

presentation

A

AD xFGFR3 (90% de novo, 10% inherited)

  • abn endochondral ossification of long bones and portions of skull/face
  • constitutive FGFR3 –> exxagerated inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation –> bone shortening and craniofacial abn

clin:

-short limbs w normal torso length, frontal facial bossing w madfast hypoplasia, macrocephaly, genu varum

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26
Q

what medications are associated inc risk of osteoporotic frx

by what MOA?

A
  • inc Vit D breakdown ∝ anticonvulsants that induce CYP450 = phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine
  • dec estrogen ∝ aromatase inhibitors and medoxyprogesterone
  • dec T and estrogen ∝ GnRH agonists
  • dec Ca absorption ∝ PPIs
  • dec bone formation ∝ glucocorticoids
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27
Q

what system preventsthe overstretching / overburden of Ms

given an example of when this system would be used

A

golgi tendon organs: sensory receptors located @ junction of Ms+tendons that are innervated by group Ib sensory axons, and are conected w contracting extrafusal sk. M fibers

  • when a M actively contracts against resistance, the increase in tension activates the GTO –> Ib sensory axons in the GTO contact inhibitory interneurons in the SC -> synapse on the α-motor neurons that innervate the same M –> if the M exerts too much force, the GTO will inhibit contraction and cause sudden M relaxation
  • GTO is NOT sensitive to change in length

i.e. when you lift a heavy load and your arms involuntarily give way and drop the weights to the ground

28
Q

what specific N fibers are associate w the reflex that pulls away from noxious stimuli

A

A-delta fibers = thin, myelinated N fibers whose free N endings detect T and nociceptive stimuli

∝ w acute, sharp pain : = the afferent portion of the reflex arc that mediates withdrawal from a noxious stimuli

29
Q

what type of M reflex is tested with DTRs testing on PE

what are involved fibers and Ns in this system

A

M spindles (intrafusal M fibers), innervated by group Ia and II seonsey axons

  • =sensitive to change in M length
  • mediate stretch reflex (myotatic reflex) : the one tested on DTRs in neuro exam
  • when a M is stretched, there is monosynaptic reflex activation of the α motor neuron of the same M –> contraction that resists the stretch
30
Q

what are the pacinian corpuscles and ruffini’s end organs

function and innervation?

A

pacinian corpuscles

  • rapidly adapting mechanoreceptors in the subQ tissue of skin + mesentery, peritoneum, and joint capsules

ruffini’s end organs

  • slowly adapting mechanoreceptors in the skin, subQ tissue, and joint capsule

FUNCTION: both help mediate touch, proprioception, and vibratory sensation

INNERVATION: both innervated by myelinated A-beta fibers

31
Q

the antismith Abs seen in SLE affect what genetic process

A

anti-smith = antisnRNP

smith proteins are synthesized by RNA polymerase into snRNAs , which complex w proteins to become snRNPs, which are essential to RNA splicing (removing introns by spliceosomes)

32
Q

cutaneous small vessel vasculitis

pathology and causes

presentation and lab/imaging

A

=a vasculitis that only affects the skin, typically arises due to drug or pathogen exposure (HepB/HepC)

  • use of certain drugs can case ∝ penicillins, cephalosporins, sulfonamide, phenytoin, allopurinol

clin

  • present w nonblanching, palpable purpura often w the LEs
  • biopsy of skin purpra = markedly inflammed small BVs w fibrinoid necrosis
    • primary consists of neutrophils and fragmented neutrophilic nuclei (leukocytoclastic vasculitis)
33
Q

paget ds

etiology

presentation

labs

diagnostic findings

A
  • =osteitis deformans = chronic ds from excessive and disordered bone formation
    • bone weaknes –>bone pain–> bowing, frx, or arthritis of adjacent joints
    • xOPG(osteoprotogen-physiologic regulator of osteoclasts)–> juvenile pagets
  • sk pain and deformities, focal warmth or bruits at areas of pagetic bone lesions
    • can sometimes lead to high out heart failure
    • pain and new protuberances of the long bones
    • change in hearing due to abn skeletal bone changes
  • labs = elevated serum alk phos ∝ inc bone formation
    • BUT n Ca, Phosphate, and PTH as homeostasis stays intact
  • diagnostic findings
    • x-rays showing mixed lytic-sclerotic lesions, thickening of corticol and trabecular bone, bony deformities
    • biopsy of bone will show enlarged osteoclasts, w up to hundreds of nuclei
34
Q

CREST syndrome

associated Ab

sx

A
  • anti-centromere (scleroderma, nondiffuse type)

CREST

  • calcinosis
    • subQ Ca depo: asx or painful
  • raynauds
  • esohageal dysmomtlity
    • –>heartburn and regurge, GERD like sx: i.e.retrosternal burning and regurge when lying supine
  • sclerodactyly
    • thickening of skin of hands and feet, presentation begins w non-pitting edema of hands and fingers
  • telangiectasia
35
Q

thin myofilament = __

thick myofilament= ____

what are each of the labelled areas seen

what structures are each of the monofilaments bound to

A

thin myofilament = actin

thick myofilament= myosin

actin in I band are bound to Z-line structural proteins

myosin filaments in A band are bound to structural proteins at M-line

36
Q

displaced supracondylar dracture of the humerus may injure what BV and N

A

brachial A, radial N

37
Q

what BV runs with the radial N at the humerus, mid shaft

A

deep brachial A and radial N : run behind the midshaft of the humerus

38
Q

the axillary N travels in close proximity to what BV, and what kind of frx can hit them both

A
  • axillary N runs with the posterior circumflex A, and a frx to the surgical neck of the humerus may damage them
39
Q

what are the 4 medicatino classes that can be used for osteoporosis, and what is their MOA

A
  • Ca + Vit D
    • given as needed to ensure adequate intake
  • bisphosphonates
    • alendronate, risedronate
    • attach to hydroxyapatite bindings sites on bone surfaces
    • inhibit osteoclast mediated bone resorp = slow the rate of bone loss
  • denosumab
    • bind RANK-L and inhibits RANK
    • = less differentiation and survival of osteoclasts
  • recombinant PT analog
    • teriparatide
    • stimulates maturation of preosteoblasts into bone forming osteoblasts
    • increases GI Ca absorption and renal tubular Ca reabsorption
40
Q

what is the most commonly frx carpal bones, and how does it often happen?

this can lead to what? how does it present

A

scaphoid frx

from falling on an outstretched hand (FOOSH)

x dorsal scaphoid branch of radial A –> avascular necrosis of the scaphoid bone with , which presents as pain in the anatomic snuffbox (dorsal lateral wrist)

41
Q

what components make up the anatomic snuffbox of the hand

what are the contents of the snuffbox

what is the clinical significance

A

triangle @ dorsoradial wrist

medial side= extensor pollicis longus tendon

lateral side= ABductor pollicus longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons

proximal= styloid process of radius

floor= scaphoid and trapezium bones

contents

  • radial A
  • branch of radial N
  • cephalic V

this is where most of the blunt force of a FOOSH goes, which is why the scaphoid is the most frx bone in the hand

42
Q

what is the most common cause of inc Alk Phos in the setting of normal Ca and PTH levels

A

Paget ds of the bone

43
Q

a patient comes in with progressive M wkns (climbing stairs, reaching overhead) and unexpecte weight loss. the pt also has abd discomfort and wknss of the shoulder and hip girdle Ms..

  • likely diagnoses, with the etiology?
  • what PE finding is seen in this picture what would be seen on M biopsy?
  • compare and contrast the etiology and biopsy findings w the related versions of this ds that don’t not have skin sx..
A

dx: Dermatomyositis

  • anti-Mi2 Abs, anti-Jo1 Abs, anti-PI55/PI40 Abs
  • as a paraneoplastic syndome, most commonly to an adenocarcinoma of the ovary, lung, or pancreas

Gottron papules = raised, erythematous plaques over the joints and bony prominences of the hand

M biopsy= daignostic finding: perifascicular inflammation and atrophy of the M @ the periphery of the fascicle

vs. polymyositis

  • also can be paraneoplastic to adenocarcinoma of the ovary, lung, or pancreas
  • biopsy= endomysial and perimysial inflammation and inc CT

vs inclusion body myositis

  • no Abs, no respond to trx, is the most common form of inflammatory Abs in 65+, can be associated w IBD
  • endomysial inflammation, with “rimmed vacuoles”, w tubulofilamentous inclusions in themyofibrils –> chronic ds=fatty replacement of M
44
Q

osteoclasts vs osteoblasts

  • origin
  • appearance(size)
  • positive and negative regulators
A

osteoclasts

  • from mononuclear phagocytic cells
  • mature cells are multinucleated
  • two most important factors for differentiation = MCSF (mø-colony stimulating factor) and RANKL = made by osteoblasts and BM stromal cells
  • osteoprotegerin (OPG) = decoy RANK-L receptor –> dec bone resorption

osteoblasts

  • from mesenchymal stem cells
  • single nucleus
  • IGF-1 (insulin like growth factor-made by liver and bone) : inc osteoblast replication and collagen synthesis + dec collagen breakdown
  • TGF-beta inc replication of osteoblast precursors
45
Q

what is the most specific serology finding that can be used for diagnosing RA

A

anti-CCP Ab

(RF is not specific)

46
Q

what part of the M allows for synchronized contraction of all M fibers

how does defect of this unit present clinically

A

T tubules = ‘transverse’ tubules

=invaginations in the sarcolemma that allow depolarization to rapidly propogate through the interior of the M –> allows uniform Ca release from the sarcolemma –> synchronized contraction of myofibrils in each M cell

uncoordinated firing of M fibers presents as M weakness

47
Q

what is the function of an osteocyte

A

cytoplasmic processes of osteocytes lie w/in cannaliculi that span throughout the bone matrix

via gap junctions btwn these processes, osteocytes can..

  • send signals
  • exchange nutrients and waste products
  • serve their function to maintain the structure of the matrix and maintain Ca homeostasis
    • plasma concentration of Ca will directly the metaboic activity of osteocytes
    • PTH and calcitonin indirectly signal to osteocytes
  • also regulate osteoblasts in response to changes in mechanical stress
48
Q

what is the cubital fossa and what runs through it

what are the consequences of injury to this area

A

the cubital fossa = proximal forearm, just lateral to the medial epicondyle (the inside of the elbow)

  • medial border= pronator teres M
  • lateral border =brachioradialis M
  • base= line between medial and lateral epicondyle

running through are the median N and the brachial A (right before it splits into the ulnar and radial As)

injury to median N =

  • sensory loss over median N pattern
  • loss of forearm pronation
  • loss of proximal IP joint flexion (x flexor digitorum superficialis innervation)
49
Q

contrast the etiology of senile osteoporosis and postmenopausal osteoporosis

A

senile Oporosis= low turnover = dec osteoblast proliferation and bone synthesis

postmenopausal Oporosis= high turnover = inc osteoclast activity that outpaces osteoblast ability

50
Q
  • compression frx / other pathologic frx in the setting of normal Ca, PTH, and phosphorous levels indicates what etiology??
  • serum lab resuls w high PTH and low Ca indicate ??
  • serum lab results w low PTH and hgh Ca indicate??
A
  • primary osteoporosis
  • renal failure or vitamin deficiency
  • PTH-ind hyperCa = hyperCa of malignancy and Vit D toxicity
51
Q

what is azathioprine indicated for

MOA

what possible AE requires routine monitoring of pts on azathioprine

A

= an immunosuppressant used in transplant pts, RA, IBD, autoimmune hepatitis

  • inhibit PRPP amidotransferase –> x purine synthesis
  • act as false nucleotides to interrupt DNA replication..

=can cause pancytopenia

  • require routine CBC monitoring
52
Q

what is the most important mediator of the sx seen in giant cell arteritis

what does this imply for trx of GCA

A

IL-6 : mediates the inflammatory infiltrate of the BV walls

trx= anti-IL6 abs = tocilizumab

53
Q

what is the long term trx for RA

what must be taken into consideraton when initiation pts on this trx

what are the AE assocated with the first line trx?

A

DMARDS= disease monitoring anti-rheumatic drugs = alleviate pain and inflammation, and reduce long term joint destruction and disability

  • = methotrexate (first line) , salfasalazine, hydroxychloroquine, minocycline, TNF-alpa inhibitors (etanercept)
  • DMARDs take up to 3 weeks to set in, so gap that with glucocorticoids or NSAIDs to relive sx in the mean time

Methotrexate: competitive inhibitor of DHF reductase = x purine/pyrimidine synthesis

AE=

  • oral ulcerations
  • GI mucosal ulcerations
  • alopecia
  • hepatotoxicity (cirrhosis, fibrosis, hepatitis)
  • pulmonary fibrosis
54
Q

what M is innervated by the thoracodorsal N

what is its function

A

the latissimus dorsi

humerus extension, ADduction, + IR

=C on the picture

55
Q

in the knee, the ACL and PCL prevent what movements, respectively

A

the ACL = prevent anterior movement of the tibia relative to the femur

the PCL= prevent posterior movement of the tibia relative to the femur

*in injury of either, you’ll see excessive movement that it was supposed to prevent (too much anterior tibia= x acl)

56
Q

what is the clinical presentation of Churg Strauss

A

= eosinophilic granulomatosis w polyangitis

  • late onset asthma, rhinosinusitis, eosinophilia
  • mononeuropathy multiplex = assymetric, multifocal neuropathy
    • ∝ vasculitis of the epineural vessels = i.e. wrist drop
  • skin nodules
  • migratory/transient pulmonary infiltrate
  • peripheral eosinophilia w + anti-MPO Abs
57
Q

what Ms exert forces on the clavicle

A

proximal clavicle: pulled superior by SCM and trap

distal clavicle: pulled inferolateral by deltoid

58
Q

what N supplies the Ms of foot dorsiflexion

what N supplies the Ms of foot plantarflexion

lesions of each looks like what

A

dorsiflexion= common fibular N

  • lesion= foot drop

plantarflexion = tibial N

  • also does inversion, and toe flexion + sensation of plantar surface
  • lesion = stuck dorsiflexed and everted, dec sensation on plantar foot
59
Q

use of what HTN- trx drug class is recommended for patients at risk of osteoporosis

why

A

thiazides - they inc Ca reabsorption in the DT

**NOT loop diuretics = lose Ca = inc risk of osteoporosis**

60
Q

what is the clinical presentation of acute rheumatic fever

what is the patient at greatest risk of dying from

A

acute rheumatic fever = migratory arthritis + (+)streptolysin O Ab + fever + new onset murmur (associated w mitral regurge= holosystolic)

greatest risk of death is from pancarditis/myocarditis

  • severe mitral regurge –> myocarditis –> cardiact dilation –> heart failure–> death
61
Q

polyarteritis nodosa

  • clin presentation
  • biopsy findings
  • etiology
A

=episodes of systemic, muscular, and GI sx

biopsy=

  • transmural inflammation of segments of midsized arteries, w areas of amorphous eosinophilic necrosis of the arterial wall
  • internal elastic lamina disruption
  • if associated w HepB, can see ab-ag complexes in the affected tissue

=usually idiopathic BUT 30% are secondary to HepB (i.e. hx of IV drug use..)

62
Q

what abn is seen in this CT

what nerve can be affected from this abn

A
  • retroperitoneal hematoma (associated w chronic warfarin use)
  • pts present w acute, severe groin, lower abd, or back pain
    • the femoral N can also be injured: femoral neuropathy = quadriceps wknss, dec patellar wknss, sensory loss over the anterior and medial thigh and leg
63
Q

how does infection w T. whipplei present

A

=systemic infectious ds that primarily presents as malabsorption

  • associated w weight loss, diarrhea, joint pain, and arthritis
  • may present as migratory, non-deforming arthritis mainly in the big joints, years before any other sx appear
  • advanced ds: malapsorption leads to wasting and enlarged lymph nodes
    • steathorrhea
    • loss of albumin –> peripheral edema

Non-GI sx include

  • hyperpigmentation, uveitis,
  • endocarditis (rare)
  • neuro (more associated w advanced ds) =
    • dementia, memory loss, confusion, dec level of consciousness
    • eye movement abn, random twitching of facial Ms
    • weakness, poor coordination, seizures
64
Q

differentiate between presentation of sciatic N injury at the

  • femoral head
  • fibular neck
  • anterior leg (shin)

and also the presentations seen w …

  • anterior compartment syndrome (leg)
  • lateral compartment syndrome (leg)
A
  • femoral head
    • x knee flexion
  • fibular neck
    • x common fibular N
    • x dorsiflexion, eversion : x sensation to lateral leg and dorsal foot
  • anterior leg (shin)
    • x tibial N
    • xplantar flexion, inversion
    • x sensation to plantar surface of foot
    • x achilles reflex

compartment syndrome: initially present w pain out of proportion to the degree of injury –> wknss and sensory loss

  • anterior compartment syndrome (leg)
    • x deep branch of fibular N
    • x dorsiflexion, sensory loss btwn first and second toes,
  • lateral compartment syndrome (leg)
    • x superficial branch of fibular N
    • x eversion
    • x sensation of lateral shin and dorsum of foot
65
Q

which Ms are innervated by the

  • recurrent laryngeal N
  • external laryngeal N
A
66
Q

anatomical location of teh SA and AV nodes

A

SA node = R atria, upper part of the crista terminalis near the SVC opening

AV node= R atria side of interatrial septum near the opening of the coronary sinus (venous collection site for heart M)

67
Q
A