behavior and psych Flashcards

1
Q

what criterion is the APGAR based off of

a score below what requires evaluation? what does the APGAR score relate about future childhood development

A

APGAR= NOT prognostic for future childhood developmental milestones

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2
Q

what are the infant reflexes and when do they disappear

A

moro reflex = extension of limbs when startled

palmar reflex= grasping of objects in palm

babinski reflex

rooting reflex= nipple seeking when cheek is brushed

disappear within first year

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3
Q

what is the finnegan scale

what are the criterion

A

assess neonates for the common signs and symptoms of neonatal drug withdrawal syndrome

CNS, respiratory, metabolic, and GI disturbances

-scare determines the severity of drug withdrawal sx and assesses the rsolution of sx after trx has begun

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4
Q

how to neonates with intrauterine opioid intoxication present

  • at birth
  • day 2-3

treatment at birth vs long term trx

A
  • at birth
    • respiratory depression, CNS depression, pinpoint pupuls
    • low birth weight, premature birth, intrauterine growth retardation syndrome
    • trx= naloxone
  • day 2-3
    • opiate withdrawal= neonatal abstinence syndrome
    • tachycardia, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, sympa hyperactivity, diarrhea and vomiting, excessive crying and agitation
  • long term trx= methadone to relieve the sx of withdrawal, eventually taper down to weane pt off
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5
Q
  • what are the four classic signs+sx of narcolepsy
  • what type of hallucinations are associated with narcolepsy
  • what kind of sleep does the patient immediately enter after a narcoleptic episode
  • how can narcolepsy be treated
A
  • cataplexy (sudden, transiety loss of M tone), sleep paralysis (inability to talk/move upon waking or falling asleep), hypnagogic hallucinations, excessive daytime sleepiness
  • associated with hypnagogic hallucinations = occur before falling asleep (‘gogic =’go to sleep’)
    • vs hypnopompic hallucinations= occur during waking, can also be associated with narcolepsy
  • REM sleep within 10 min of falling asleep
  • trx=
    • CNS stimulants (methylphenidate amphetamine) for excessive daytime sleepiness
    • TCAs (clomipramine and imipramine) for cataplexy (sudden loss of M tone)
    • +lifestyle changes (reducing stress, increasing exercise, and taking frequent daytime naps)
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6
Q

what EEG findings are associated with major depressive disorder

A

decreased REM latency and decreased stage 4, slow-wave sleep

-effective trx with antidepressants can reverse these findings

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7
Q

what are the 5 stages of falling asleep, with the associated EEF waveforms

what drugs affect stage 4 sleep

what physiological changes occur in REM

A
  • awake w eyes closed
    • alpha waves
  • stage 1
    • light sleep = 5%
    • theta waves
  • stage 2
    • deeper sleep (45%)
    • sleep spindles and K complexes
  • stage 3-4
    • deepest, non-REM sleep (25%)
    • delta waves= lowest frequency, highest amplitude, slow wave sleep
    • stage 4: shortened by imipramine (TCA) and benzos –> trx enuresis and night terrors, respectively
  • REM (25%)
    • dreaming, loss of motor tone
    • beta waves
    • inc in pulse rate and variability + REMs + inc BP with inc variability : penile/clitorial swelling/ vascular engorgement
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8
Q
  • at what stage of sleep does nocturnal enuresis occur
  • by what age is nocturnal enuresis a problem
  • what pharamcologic agent can treat the condition in older children
A
  • stage 4 sleep, the deepest form of sleep that’s not REM
  • girls can stop by 6 yo, and boys by 7 yo
  • imipramine= a TCA –> trx for primary nocturnal enuresis
    • decreases the duration of stage 4 sleep
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9
Q

what NT

  • initiates sleep,
  • promotes REM,
  • reduces REM
A
  • initiates sleep,
    • seretonin
  • promotes REM,
    • Ach
  • reduces REM
    • NE
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10
Q

what are night terrors and what drugs are used to treat them

A

night terrors = abdrupt awakenings from sleep, often with gasping/screaming. afterwords, the pt goes back to sleep and has no memory of the event

benzos are used to treat night terrors, bc they shorten stage 4 sleep

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11
Q

which antidepressant drugs …

  • x the metabolism of NE and 5-HT
  • x alpha-1 receptors on presynaptic noradrenergic receptors
  • x NE reuptake
  • x 5-HT reuptake
  • work on Dopamine
  • blocks H1 receptors
  • is a 5-HT(1A) partial agonist
  • is a nAchR partial agonist
  • is a 5HT(1A) agonist and 5HT(2) antagonist
A
  • x the metabolism of NE and 5-HT
    • MAO-inhibitors (MAO is in the pre-synaptic N and will breakdown the NE+5HT into metabolites
  • x alpha-1 receptors on presynaptic noradrenergic receptors
    • mirtazapine
  • x NE reuptake
    • TCAs, SNRIs, bupropion
  • x 5-HT reuptake
    • TCA, SSRI, SNRI, trazodone
  • work on Dopamine
    • MAO inhibitors and bupropion
  • block H1 receptor
    • trazodone (also 5HT2, alpha adrenergic)
  • is a 5-HT(1A) partial agonist
    • Vilazodone (+5HT reuptake inhib)
  • is a nAchR partial agonist
    • varenicline
  • is a 5HT(1A) agonist and 5HT(2) antagonist
    • vortioxetine
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12
Q

the ____pathway connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland is responsible for the tonic inhibition of prolactin secretion

A

tuberoinfundibular

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13
Q

differentiate between somatic symptom disorder, conversion disorder, factitious disorder

A
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14
Q

what drugs are used to end the craving for alcohol

  • what is the MOA

what drug ends the dopamine release from nicotine stimulation (end the reason for addiction)

A

naltrexone = mu opioid receptor antagonist

  • inhibits rewarding and reinforcing effect

acamprosate= modulating glutamate

  • modulate neurotransmission at the NMDA receptor

varenicline

  • ends the dopamine release from nicotine stimulation (end the reason for addiction)
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15
Q

what is the treatment with

  • serotonin syndrome
  • neuroleptic malignant syndrome
  • drug-induced antiparkinsonianism
  • akathisia
    *
A
  • serotonin syndrome
    • Cyproheptadine: 5HT2 blocker
  • neuroleptic malignant syndrome
    • Dantrolene: direct acting skeletal M relaxant
  • drug-induced antiparkinsonianism
    • (caused be D2 block in nigrostiatal pathway via antipsychotics/antiemetics)
    • benztropine: anticholinergic agent
    • DONT USE levodopa– can exacerbate/precipitate psychosis
  • akathisia
    • (subjective restlessn and inability to sit still rather than rigidity and tremor)
    • diazepam: benzodiazepine + propranolol: beta blocker
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16
Q

define the defense mechanism ‘reaction formation’

A
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17
Q

TCA’s cardiotoxic effects are due to action at which receptor

A
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18
Q

what is the treatment for narcolepsy first line

A

narcolepsy = modafinil (nonamphetamine stimulant, probably at D-receptor)

amphetamines are second line

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19
Q

what is the difference between brief psychotic disorder, schizophreniform disorder, schizophrenia

A
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20
Q

differentiate between oppositional defiant disorder and disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

A
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21
Q
  • what stage of sleep do nightmares happen (describe the EEG findings of this stage)
  • differentiate from night terrors
A

nightmares= REM

night terrors= stage 4 sleep

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22
Q

who are the low potency and high potency first generation generation antipsychotics

MOA

and what are their adverse effects and trx of them

A

MOA= block D2 receptors in mesolimbic and striatofrontal systems

all 1st gen=

  • highly lipophilic =slow to be removed from body
  • prolactinemia (via adverse effect of blocking D in tubuloinfundibular pathway)
  • metabolic syndrome = dyslipidemia, weight gain, hyperglycemia
  • inc risk SEIZURES
  • QT prolongation = torsades de pointes, sudden cardiac death
  • neuroleptoc malignant syndrome (all drugs, but inc risk with high potency)
  • Chlorpromazine= Corneal deposits: Thioridazine= reTinal deposits
  • (M-block in low potency)anti-muscruinc : dry mouth, constipation >> others
  • (H1 block in low potency) sedation
  • (alpha-1 block in low potency) orthostatic hypotension and tachycardia

1st gen, high potency = characterized by EPS

“ADAPT” = order of EPS sx AD-A-P-T

  • hrs: Acute Dystonia = M spasms and stiffness, oculogyric forced, sustained elevation of eyes
    • trx= benztropine, diphenhydramine
  • days-wks: Akathisia= restlessness + inability to sit still + Parkinsonism
    • trx akathisia- beta-block, benztropine, benzopiazepine ::::: trx parkinsonian= benztropine, amantadine
  • months-yrs: Tardaive Dyskinisia (chorea, esp orofacial= lip smacking, tongue protrusions, grimacing)
    • trx=atypical antipsychotics clozapine, valbenazine, deutetrabenazine
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23
Q

what are the big three symptom types seen in Huntington vs Freidrich Ataxia

A

HD:

  • chorea
  • psychiatric sx
  • subsequent dementia

Freidrich Ataxia:

  • neurologic dysfunction
  • cardiomyopathy
  • diabeted mellitus
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24
Q

what are the 4 mood stabilizers used in the treatment of bipolar ds and what are the AEs of each

-which of the above drugs can also be used as anticonvulsants

A

Valproate, carbamezapine, and lamotrigine are also anticonvulsants

25
Q
A
26
Q
A
27
Q

clozapine and olanzapine are both drugs in which class??

what AE are they both at high risk of causing, and how should patients on these meds be monitored

A
28
Q

which toxicities are the following antidotes used for:

  • physostigmine
  • flumazenil
  • naloxone
  • cycloheptadine
  • fomepizole
A

fomepizole= alcohol toxicity

29
Q

drugs and MOA used to treat opioid addiction

A
30
Q

what is the initial approach to parents who refuse to treatment for their family member (child, elderly parent..)

A
31
Q

describe the 3 types of neuropsych AEs that can be seen with chronic antupsychotic use

A
32
Q

what are the 4 dopaminergic pathways in the brain

which ones are affected by antipsychotics, and to what effect

A
33
Q

what drug class is chlordiazepoxide

A

benzodiazepine

34
Q
A
35
Q

what are the 4 most characteristic physiologic signs seen with marijuana use

A
36
Q

which anti-convulsant drugs can be used or

  • partial/focal seizures
  • absence seizures
  • tonic-clonic seizures
  • status epilepticux
A
  • partial/focal seizures
    • carbamezapine,
    • gabapentin, vigabatrin
    • lamotrigine, levetiracetam
    • phenobarbital, phenytoin, fosphenytoin
    • topiramate
    • valproic acid
  • absence seizures
    • ethosuximide
    • lamotrigine
    • valproic acid
  • tonic-clonic seizures
    • carbamezapine
    • lamotrigine and levetiracetam
    • phenobarbital and phenytoin+fosphenytoin
    • topiramate
    • valproic acid
  • status epilepticus
    • benzodiazepines
    • phenobarbital, phenytoin, fosphenytoin
37
Q

what drug is most effective for the trx of

  • acute status epilepticus
  • maintence + prophylactic trx of status epilepticus
  • trx of refractor status epilepticus
A
  • acute status epilepticus = benzodiazepine
  • maintence + prophylactic trx of status epilepticus = phenytoin
  • trx of refractor status epilepticus = phenobarbital
38
Q
  • what is the classic triad of autism
    • what association does autism have with mental retardation
  • what are three other, less pervasive developmental disorders that ought to be included in the ddx of autism
A

autism

  • impairments in social interaction (dec aware of social cues, failure to respond to name, inability to take turns)
  • severe language deficits (including echoing)
  • repetitive and stereotyped patterns of behaviors (including hand flapping, body rocking, or marked daily routines)
  • ~70% also are dx with mental retardation

ddx of autism:

  • Aspergers: no cognitive or language delay = repeptiive behaviors and problems with social relationsips; stiff, monotonus speech and clumsy, w unusually intense interest in a narrow subject area
  • Rett disorder: genetic syndrome in girls = regression in dev at ~1 yo
  • Childhood disintegrative disorder: onset of developmental delays @ ~3yo
39
Q

define psychosis and list the three characteristic findings that define it

A

psychosis= distorted perception of reality

  1. delusions: strongly held beliefs that are incongruent with reality
  2. disorganized thought: demonstrated by disorganized speech
  3. hallucinations: perception of a stimulus when there is not stimulus present (vs illusion= misperception of a present stimulus)
40
Q

the follow types of hallucinations are associated with what setting

  • visual
  • auditory
  • olfactory
  • tactile
A
  • visual
    • medical illness (often in hospital) + drug intoxication
  • auditory
    • psychiatric illness
  • olfactory
    • aura associted with temporal lobe epilepsy + brain tumor
  • tactile
    • alcohol withdrawal or stimulant intoxicity (cocaine, amphetamines)
    • “cocaine crawlies”
41
Q

which antiepileptic drugs work by

  • blocking voltage gated Na channels
  • blocking SV2A
  • blocking voltage gated Ca channels
  • agonizing GABA(A)
  • antagonizing NT re-uptake
  • inhibiting the formation of siccininc semi-aldehyde (SSA)
A
  • blocking voltage gated Na channels
    • –> block release of glutamate
    • carbamezapine, (fos)phenytoin, lamotrigine, topiramate, valproic acid
  • blocking SV2A
    • block glutamate vesicle activation towards the membrane for glutatmate release
    • levetiracetam
  • blocking voltage gated Ca channels
    • block Ca influx–> glutamate vesicle activation towards the membrane for glutatmate release
    • ethosuximide, gabapentin
  • agonizing GABA(A)-R
    • GABA(A)-R activation –> Cl- influx –> inhibit AMPA and NMDA receptor-influenced depolarization
    • benzos, phenobarbital, topiramate, propofol
  • antagonizing NT re-uptake
    • inhibit GABA reuptake receptor
    • tiagabine
  • inhibiting the formation of siccininc semi-aldehyde (SSA)
    • inhibit GABA transaminase = x(GABA–>SSA)
    • valproic acid, vigabatrin
42
Q

what is the difference between OCD and obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

A

OCD= disorder involving obsessions and compulsions that are irresistable and unpleasant to the patient

  • egodystonic

OCPD= patients have a rigid preoccupation with order and control, but they view their beliefs and behaviors as simply part of who they are

egosyntonic

43
Q

what are the three clusters of personality disorders and what disorders fall into each cluster

A

cluster A: odd or eccentric, “weird”

  • paranoid PD
  • schizoid PD
  • schizotypal PD

cluster B: dramatic, emotional, or erratic “wild”

  • antisocial PD
  • borderline PD
  • histrionic PD
  • narcissistic PD

cluster C: anxious or fearful “worried”

  • avoidant PD
  • dependet PD
  • OCPD

Weird, DramaW, Worried

44
Q

serotonin syndrome is highly associated with these drugs because their effects are irreversible

A

MAO-inhibitors

45
Q

Rett Syndrome

  • etiology
  • presentation + clin sx
  • trx+ prognosis
A

-etiology

  • X linked xMECP2 gene: methyl-binding protein in brain, gene suppressor during fetal and childhood development
  • affected males die in utero, only females are affected in life

-presentation + clin sx

  • stage 1= 6-18mo
    • subtle delays in gross mototr skills, less eye contact, reduced interest in play
  • stage 2- 1-4 years
    • rapid loss of purposeful hand movements and loss of speech, with periods of apnea and hyperventilation
  • stage 3= 2-10 years
    • ataxia, motor problems, seizures
  • stage 4= reduced mobility, curvature of the spine (scoliosis), and M rigidity

-trx+prognosis

  • allevaiting sx w careful management of nutrition, pharm for seizures, speech therapy, physical therapy
  • patients can live for decades with successful treatment
46
Q
  • what drugs can induce a manic episode
  • what are the signs, sx, and lab findings in drug induce mania
  • trx
A
  • cocaine, amphetamines, and corticosteriods MC associated with drug induced mania
  • sx: dilated pupils, HTN, mood elevation+general inc activity, tachycardia
  • ECG shows arrhythmia/ischemia: can order urine+serum toxicology to assess for drug
  • trx: lower dose of steroids: haloperidol, lorazepam: CCB for autonomic sx
47
Q

what risk factors increase risk of EPS sx with the use of anti-psychotics

A

DM

hx of movement disorders

tobacco use

typical antipsychotics, at higher doses for longer times

48
Q

what is the treatment of tourrettes

A

in many cases: education and reassurance may be sufficient

if tics are significantly interfering with social interactions

  • first line- guanfacine (alpha blocker)-
  • haloperidol, risperidone
49
Q

co-administration with what drugs can lead to lithium toxicity

signs and sx of acute + chronic lithium toxicity

A

any drug that dec GFR : lithium build up

50
Q

serotonin is derived from which AA

A

tryptophan

51
Q

in patients with pre-disposed risk of having bipolar disease, what medication can precipitate a manic episode?

A

antidepressants

52
Q

which drug is the sedative-hypnotic that is proven to be safe in the elderly

where in the CNS does it work

A

ramelteon

suprachiasmatic nucleus, binds the melatonin receptors

53
Q

what PE findings are associated with anorexia nervosa..

differentiate between the fears and behaviors associated with anorexia vs bulimia

A

anorexia : low weight, amenorrhea, small hairs inc on arm, parotid gland swelling (if associated with vomiting)

54
Q
A
55
Q

differentiate between borderline personality disorder, dependent personality disorder, and histrionic personality disorder

A
56
Q

define classical vs operant conditioning

A
57
Q

what ways should you conduct a motivational interview with patients at the following stages of change

  • precontemplation
  • contemplation
  • preperation
  • action
  • maintenence
  • identification
A
58
Q

distribution of what drug can precipitate opioid withdrawal in a patient with opioid dependence

A
59
Q

what assessments can be done in the ED to assess for

  • orientation
  • comprehension
  • concentration
  • short term memory
  • long term memory
  • langiage
  • visual spatial
  • executive function
A