endo Flashcards

1
Q

what drugs increase the risk of gout

A

thiazide diuretics

cyclosporines +tacrolimus

allopurinol + probenecid *initial increase in risk of acute gout attacks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

describe the HPA axis for prolactin

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what effect do mental/emotional and physical stress have on blood glucose levels

A

physical stress (i.e. excercise) –> hypo-glycemia

mental/emotional stress –> hyper-glycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

general symptoms seen in glycogen storage disorders vs lysosomal storage disorders

(list the big examples of each)

A

GLYCOGEN STORAGE DS

  • hypoglycemia, change in blood lactate levels, change in skeletal M tone, myoglobinurea
  • secondary effects on cardiac myscle
  • GLYCOGEN ACCUMULATIONS WILL STAIN PAS+
  • 1= von gierke : 2=pompe : 3= cori : 4=mcardle

LYSOSOMAL STORAGE DS

  • neurodegeneration/demyelination, angiomatosis-like processes, changes in marrow EPO
  • secondary effects on liver+spleen (extramedullary hematopoeisis)
  • SPHINGLIPIDOSES (tay-sachs, niemann pick, gaucher, fabry, kravve, metachromatic leukodystrophy) + MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDOSES (Hurler+Hunter)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

who are the three regulators of glycogen levels in the body and how do they exert their effect

A

glycogen is stored in the liver and in skeletal M

  • glucagon + epinephrine –> stimulate glycogen phosphorylase kinase –> phosphorylate glycogen phosphorylase –> breakdown of glycogen into glucose
    • glucagon: liver glucagon receptors = Gs-linked –> cAMP–> PKA–> inc GPK
    • epinephrine: liver+M (beta)R = Gs-linked –> cAMP–> PKA–> inc GPK
    • epinephrine: liver alpha-R = inc Ca release from ER –> inc GPK
  • insulin –> stimulate glycogen synthase –> build glucose into glycogen
    • TRK dimerization on liver –> inc protein phosphotase –> inc GS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

where in the body do these occur?

  • glycogenesis
  • glycogenolysis

who are the big enzymes in these processes

which diseases are associated with each?

A

liver and sk. M >> adipose - CYTOPLASM

GLYCOGENESIS: glucose –> glycogen

  • glucose –> G6P –> G1P…
  • G1P –> UDP glucose = UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase
  • UDP-glucose –> glycogen = glycogen synthase
  • add a branch to glycogen = branching enzymes

GLYCOGENOLYSIS: glycogen –> glucose

  • first step= RATE LIMITING STEP = glycogen phoshphorylase will take G1Ps off the end of a branch until there are just 4 G1Ps left on the branch
    • x (in M cells only) = McArdle Ds
    • OR lysosomal alpha-1,4 glucosidase can break down branched glycogen into glucose directly
      • x= Pompe Ds
  • debranching enzymes : x= Cori Ds
    • will relocate the 3 G1Ps at the end of the branch to the end of the main stem =4-alpha-D glucanotransferase
    • debranch the last G1P = alpha 1,6 glucosidase
  • once debranched, removed each G1P at a time –>
    • G1P –> G6P –> glucose
      • G6P –> glucose = glucose 6 phosphatase x = Von Gierke Ds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

McArdle Ds, Cori Ds, Pompe Ds, Von Gierke Ds

  • x enzyme –> what builds up, what cannot be made
  • clin features
  • blood glucose levels
  • other key lab findings
A

McArdle Ds <em>McArdle McMuscle Man</em>

  • x enzyme
    • x glycogen phosphorylase IN THE SKELETAL M, enzyme intact in the liver
    • build up of muscle glycogen, but defiency of glucose in the skeletal M
  • clin features
    • only have M sx = M cramps and myoglobinuria after intense excercise / high glucose demand on Muscles that can’t be met
    • pain with excercise
  • blood glucose levels
    • normal
  • other key lab findings
    • inc CK, urine is red but MYOglobin= no RBCs in urine, inc M BF in an attempt to provide more nutrients and glucose
    • electrolyte abnormalities –> arrythmias
    • no lactic acid production during excercise, normal ammonium production

CORI DS *Cori Coral Branches on Mild Beaches*

  • x enzyme
    • = debranching enzymes: α-1,6-glucosidase and 4-α-d-glucanotransferase
  • clin features
    • mild hypoglycemia, mild inc TG
    • gout, liver and renal inc size
    • cardiomyopathy
  • blood glucose levels
    • mild hypoglycemia
  • other key lab findings
    • normal blood lactate
    • NORMAL gluconeogenesis (pyruvate–>glucose), impaired glycogenolysis (glycogen–>glucose)

POMPE DSAbn Cell-Volcano (lysosome) –> systemic destruction, death

  • x enzyme
    • x lysosomal acid α-1,4- glucosidase (acid maltase) (cannot break linked G1Ps)
    • n lysosomal acid α-1,6- glucosidase
  • clin features
    • hypotonia, proximal M wknss+dystrophy, resp M wknss
    • excercise intolerance
    • cardiomegaly+hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    • early systemic findings + death
  • blood glucose levels
    • normal
  • other key lab findings
    • x heart, liver, and muscle activity

VON GIERKE DS

  • x enzyme
    • x glucose-6-phosphatase
    • build up of G6P, glucose deficiency
  • clin features
    • SEVERE FASTING hypoglycemia,
    • inc uric acid –> inc GOUT
    • hepatomegaly, renomegaly
  • blood glucose levels
    • severely low
  • other key lab findings
    • inc TGs
    • INC BLOOD LACTATE (vs Cori)
    • inc glycogen build up in liver and kidneys
    • x glycogenlysis AND gluconeogenesis –> require frequent oral glucose intake
    • AVOID FRUCTOSE AND GALACTOSE (bc cannot make glucose)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ketoacidosis develops from the lack of insulin due to what function of insulin failiing to be carried out

A

inhibition of lipolysis and ketogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

tingling and M cramps results from ____calcemia

A

HYPOcalcemia i..e chvostek’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

at what step does insulin affect glycolysis

A

insulin –> inc phosphofructokinase-2 (PFK2)

fructose 6-phosphate –> fructose1,6 bisphosphate

=inc glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what pathways induce releases insulin from the pancreatic beta cells

A

GLUCOSE-GLUT2

  1. glucose enters the beta cells through GLUT-2
  2. glucose–glucokinase–> glucose-6-phosphate
  3. G6P enters glycolysis, produces ATP
  4. inc ATP –> closure of ATP-sensitive K channels on the beta cell membrane –> stop outflow of K+ –>depolarize beta cells
  5. depolarization of beta cells triggers opening of voltage-dependent Ca channels on membrane –> inc Ca influx into beta cells
  6. inc Ca levels –> insulin release

GLP-1

  1. glucagon-like peptide 1 binds to GLP-1 receptor on beta cells
  2. inc intracellular cAMP
  3. insulin release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

embryologic malfunction in digeorge syndrome that leads to hypocalcemia?

A

failure of neural crest migration into the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches

  • x third pouch –> x inferior parathyroid+ thymus
  • x fourth pouch –> x superior parathyroid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how do defects in fructose metabolism present

  • etiology +pathophys
  • clin
  • trx
A

essential fructosuria =

  • x fructokinase = x fructose–>fructose-1P
  • benign, fructosuria because of compensatory hexokinase activity (converts fructose–>F6P so it can enter glycolysis)

hereditary fructose intolerance =

  • AR x adolase B = x fructose1P–> DHAP –>GAP-3P (enter gluconeogenesis
    • build-up of toxic fructose 1P–> depletion of intracellular phosphate + inhibition of gluconeogenesis
  • present with severe, lifethreatening hypoglycemia when baby starts to consume formula or real food
    • not only are they not breaking down fructose, but they are not producing glucose from gluconeogenesis
    • hypoglycemia –> pale, diaphoretic, lethargy, V/D
  • trx = stop intake of fructose, sucrose (fructose+sucrose), and sorbitol (metabolized into fructose)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what four functions will pyruvate go on to play in the body and what cofactors are needed for each function

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what essential substances are derived from the following amino acids

  • phenylalanine
  • tyrosine
  • tryptophan
  • histidine
  • glycine
  • glutamate
  • arginine
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how deficiencies in the enzymes needed for glycolysis typically present?

what are the important enzymes in this pathway?

A

hemolytic anemia –> without glycolysis, RBCs will die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

in what 3 ways can a 21-alpha hydroxylase deficiency present

what changes will be seen in the adrenal gland

A

=adrenal cortex hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the clinical indication for thiazolidinediones and what is their mechanism of action

A

thiazolidinediones

=class of drugs use to treat insulin resistance

  • bind to PPAR-y (peroxisome-proliferator-activated receptor gamma) in the nucleus
  • PPAR-y is a nuclear receptor and transcription factor that will bring RXR when activated by the TZD
  • PPARy-TZD binding to DNA will result in
    • inc FA uptake and adiponectin production, dec leptin production
    • inc insulin sensitvity in liver and M
    • dec TNF-alpha production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the pathway that leads to creation of ketone bodies

A

hormone sensitive lipase is activated by: stress hormones (ACTH, catecholamines, glucaon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which endocrine hormones are NOT lipophilic and must bind surface

  • G protein coupled receptors
  • tyrosine kinase receptors
A
  • G protein coupled receptors
    • ACTH, ADH, epinephrine, glucagon
  • tyrosine kinase receptors
    • insulin, growth hormone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the clinicial indication for and MOA of dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors

A

improves glycemic control and decreases hgbA1C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how does congenital hypothyroidism present

A

as maternal T4 wanes (a couple months): baby becomes difficult to rouse from naps + lethargic

–>puffy face and irreversible intellectual disability

-trx with levothyroxine starting at 2 weeks can prevent the development of sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

phenylalanine metabolism requires what cofactors

A

dihydrobiopterin reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

list the 6 big lysosomal storage diseases

  • x enzyme, inheritance
  • accumulation of what
  • clinical features
  • special lab/test/histo findings
A

Tay Sachs Ds

  • x AR hexosaminidase A heXosaminidase x in taysaX(1)
  • accumulate GM2 ganglioside
  • neurodegeneration+developmental delay, hyperreflexia,
  • cherry red spot on macula, onion skinning of lysosomes

Niemman-Pick Ds

  • x AR sphingomyelinase (6)
  • accumulation of sphingomyelin,
  • progressive neurodegeneration, hepatomegaly (in contrast to taysachs)
  • cherry red spot on macula, foam cells (lipid laden macrophages)

gaucher ds

  • x AR glucocerebrosidase (5)
  • inc glucocerebroside
  • MC OF ALL DSs: hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia, osteoporosis, avascular necrosis of the femur
  • Gaucher cells= lipid laden macrophages that looked like crumpled up tissue paper

Fabry ds

  • XR x alpha galactosidase A (2)
  • inc ceramide trihexodase
  • early= TRIAD : episodic peripheral neuropathy + angiokeratomas (small dark spots on the skin) + hypohidrosis (dec sweating)
  • late= progressive renal failure + CV ds

Krabbe ds

  • AR x galactocerebrosidase (4)
  • inc galactocereroside
  • peripheral neuropathy, destroyed oligodendrocytes, developmental delay
  • optic atrophy, globoid cells (giant multinucleated cells)

metachromatic leukodystrophy

  • AR xarylsulfatase
  • cerebroside sulfate
  • central and peripheral demyelination w ataxia+dementia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the mechanism of action of glyburide

what other medication is in the same class as this drug

A

glyburide = a sulfonylnurea second generation

  • close ATP-sensitive K-channels on pancreatic beta cell membrane –> inc intracellular Ca –> release insulin INDEPENDENT OF GLUCOSE LEVELS

glipizide + glyburide = 2nd gen sulfonylurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the 4 big MOAs of DM drugs

what are the drug classes

A
  1. inc insulin sensitivity
    1. metformin : inhibit mGPD–> x hepatic gluconeogenesis , inc glycolysis and peripheral glucose uptake
    2. glitazones (aka thiazolidinediones) : activate PPAR-y = regulate glucose metabolism and fatty acid storage
  2. inc insulin secretion (glucose independent)
    1. sulfonylurea (1st gen= chlorpropamide, tolbutamide) (2nd gen= glipizide, glyburide), meglinitides (“-glinide”) = close K+ channels–> release insulin via inc Ca
  3. inc glucose induced insulin secretion
    1. GLP-1 analogs= exenatide, liraglutide –> dec glucagon release and gastric emptyinh, inc insulin release w glucose
    2. DPP-4 inhibitors (-glips) –> inhibit the GLP-1 inhibitors, so increase the actions of GLP-1
  4. decrease glucose absorption
    1. Na-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors “-gliflozin” –> block reabsorp of glucose in PCT
    2. alpha-glucosidase inhibitors (acarbose, miglitol) –> inhibit intestinal brush border alpha glucosidase –> dec prostprandial hyperglycemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what type of insulin is prescribed for

  • once daily use
  • twice daily use
  • post-prandial use
  • IV use for DKA
A
  • once daily use
    • basal long acting: glargine, detemir, degludec
  • twice daily use
    • basal intermdiate acting: NPH (isophane)
  • post-prandial use
    • short acting (peak 0.5-3 hrs): lispro, aspart, glulisine
  • IV use for DKA
    • short acting, regular insulin: peak 2-5 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what process is disrupted by anti-TPO enzymes

A

thyroglobulin iodinization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how do the following affect the pathway that leads to Vit D synthesis

  • sunlinght
  • PTH
  • Ca
A

7-dehydrocholesterol –UV LIGHT–> cholecalciferol –> 25 hydroxy-VitD

PTH and Ca work on 25VitD –1-alpha-hydroxylase–> 1,25 VitD in the liver

PTH= inc, Ca= dec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

in general, patient’s with DM are most likely to die from what

A

coronary heart ds (MI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are the endocrine effects of a prolactinoma

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

describe the mechanism by which CKD can lead to changes in serum Ca and bone density

A

CKD –> dec 1,25VitD production

  • –> dec Ca reabsorption from small intestine
  • –> secondary inc in PTH = secondary hyperparathyroidism
  • –> inc osteoclast activity = renal osteodystrophy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

which class of anti-hyperlipidemics is most effective at

  • dec LDLs
  • dec TGs
  • inc HDLs
A
  • dec LDLs
    • statins
  • dec TGs
    • fibrates
  • inc HDLs
    • niacin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

does oral glucose or IV glucose have a greater effect on insulin release into the body

why

A

oral glucose : bc will stimulate incretins which will further inc insulin release

  • GLP-1
  • gastric inhibitory protein (GIP)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

which substance will provide feedback to determine whether pyruvate will enter the TCA cycle or gluconeogenesis

what enzymes are involved?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what changes are seen in the pancreas in DM type 1 vs type 2

A

Type 1 DM = islet infiltration with leukocytes (associated with HLA and anti-islet Abs)

Type 2 DM= amyloid deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the clinical manifestations of a urea cycle disorder

what is the most common urea cycle disorder

A

characterized by high blood ammonia levels (hyperammonemia)

  • metabolic emergency : episodes of vomiting and confusion/coma
  • tachypnea with central hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis
  • presents in young age: the acute decompensation is triggered by a preceding illness (viral URI, otitis media), prolonged fasting time, or inc protein intake

MC cause = ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency

–> excess carbamoyl phosphate –>inc urinary orotic acid

38
Q

what is pituitary apoplexy

in whom does it occur

how does it present

A
39
Q

the effectiveness of SGLT-2 inhibitors is dependent on ____, which means patient’s should have their ____ measured before starting therapy

A
  1. glomerular filtration rate of glucose
  2. serum creatinine (estimate of GFR)
40
Q

3 major precautions/ contraindications to metformin therapy

A
41
Q

what are the two major side effects of “-glitazone” therapy for DM?

A

inc fluid retention (edema, decompensation of congestive heart failure)

weight (fat) gain

42
Q

clinical presentation of hypercalcemia

what can cause this

A

hypercalcemia:

-lethargy, loss of appetite, constipation, weakness, inc thirst and urination, stupor, dry mucus membranes, nephrolithiasis, bone pains (long term)

occur in: Vit D toxicity, sarcoidosis/TB (granulomatous ds), hypercalcemia of malignancy, hyperparathyroidism, Hogkin lymphoma, some NHLs

43
Q

what is the function of the smooth ER

A

producle lipophilic compounds = lipids, phospholipids, cholesterol and their derivatives (STEROID HORMONES)

44
Q

how will defects in fatty acid metabolism / beta oxidation present clinically

A

they’ll present after a long period of fasting (~ a day for kids, longer for adults)

  • normally, the body will start to break down ketones after a certain period of fasting
  • in patients with abn beta oxidation, they can’t break make ketones so their body will be unable to cope to long periods of fasting (ie. no glucose intake)
  • –> HYPOKETOTIC HYPOGLYCEMIA =labs will show undetectable acetoacetate levels
  • they’ll also have liver disfunction, and a metabolic crisis (seizure, coma, death)
45
Q

which diabetic treatment medications can result in AE of weight change

which can have the AE of diarrhea

A

weight gain= sulfonylureas, meglinitides, pioglitazone

weight loss= exinatide, liraglutide

diarrhea= metformin, acarbose, miglitol

46
Q

what is heriditary orotic aciduria and how does it present clinically

what drugs can disrupt the same pathway that is disrupted in HOA

A

xUMP synthase = disrupt pyrimidine synthase pathway –> inc orotic acid crystal build up

  • babies with physical and mental retardation, megaloblastic anemia, and elevated orotic acid crystal build-up

hydroxyurea, 5FU, MTX, TMX, pyrimethamine

47
Q

what is the pathogenesis and trx of exophthalmos

A

pathogenesis–> inflammatory infiltrate and T-cell activation in response to TSH activation of orbital fibroblasts

trx= steroid immunosuppression

48
Q

when and how are triglycerides broken down for E

which enzymes are involved

A

broken down when in a state of fasting / low insulin

lipase, glycerol kinase,

49
Q

how does somatostatin affect the gallbladder

A

inhibit CCK–> dec biliary motility = biliary stasis –> inc risk gallstones

50
Q

what are the 4 big enzymes in the pentose phosphate pathway

what cells/organs is the PPP really important for

A

G6PD, 6PGD, transketolase, transaldolase

PPP needed in:

  • cells with high oxidative stress (erythrocytes) bc they need the PPP to make glutathione = an antioxidant
  • liver and adrenal cortex: fatty acid+cholesterol+steroids synthesis,
  • phagoyctic cells: NADPH needed for the respiratory burst
51
Q

MOA of drugs used to treat hyperthyroid

A
52
Q

how does TNF-alpa affect insulin function

A

TNF-alpha (inflammation) causes insulin resistance

when insulin binds, it the RTK activates intracellular IRS-1–> GLUT4 moved to the membrane

-TNF-alpha stimulates serine phosphorylation which inactivates IRS-1

53
Q

how does pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency present

what is the treatment

A
54
Q

via what intracellular mechanism does insulin cause glycogen breakdown

A
55
Q

what are the clinical complications of fabry ds

A
56
Q

what are the three categories of drugs used for weight loss

A
57
Q
A

AFTER 24 HOURS- glucose is maintained by GLUCONEOGENESIS not glycogenlysis anymore

58
Q
A
59
Q

what histology is seen in hashimoto’s thyroiditis vs de quervain’s thyroiditis

A
60
Q
A
61
Q

what effect does hypothyroid have on cholesterol levels

be specific

A
62
Q

what physical findings are specific to graves disease

A
63
Q
A
64
Q

MOA of diabetic medications “-gliflozin”s

how do they treat diabetic nephropathy

A

reduce glomerular hyperfiltration

65
Q

histology of follicular adenoma va follicular carcinoma in the thyroid

A
66
Q
A
67
Q
A
68
Q
A
69
Q

SIADH = (hyper/hypo/eu) volemic & (hyper/hypo/eu)natremic

A
70
Q

compare the onset and duration of the diff insulins

A

aspart, lispro, glulisine = short onset, short acting

Gals And Lads

regular, NPH = short onset, med acting

Rest Now

detemir, glargine = long onset, long acting

Don’t Go

71
Q

will SIADH present with peripheral edema?

A

no:

  • inc water resorption without Na resorp –> hypervolemia
  • suppress RAAS and inc ANP = atrial natriuretic peptide
  • –> natriuresis = lose the fluid but still lose NA
  • =euvolemic hyponatremia

no signs of hypervolemia = no peripheral edema, elevated JVP, pulmonary edema/crackles

72
Q

how will a high carb diet / the fed state affect the biochemistry of fatty acid metabolism

A

= inc fatty acid synthesis, and dec beta oxidation

-main mechanism of finding the correct balance is at the carnitine shuttle, which seperates the two systems

  • synthesis in the cytosol
  • beta oxidation in the mitochondria

malonyl Co-A = the product of the rate limiting step of fatty acid synthesis

  • negative regulation of the carnitine shuttle between cytosol and mitochondria
  • block precursors from entering mitochondria = no beta oxidation
73
Q

clin presentaiton of

primary carnitine deficiency

mitochondrial acetyl Coa dehydrogenase deficiency

A
74
Q

describe levels of serum Na, K, bicarb, H, renin in Conn Syndrome

A

Conn Syndrome = primary hyperALD

75
Q

in T1-DM patients treated with exogenous insulin, how does risk of hypoglycemic episodes change over time

A

increase: because exogenous insulin is not subject to regulation by glucagon, alpha cells eventually atrophy overtime secondary to non-use

dec glucagon –> inc risk of hypoglycemia

(they’ll also have blunted autonomic response to hypoglycemia (epinephrine), but the effect is not as significant on blood glucose levels

76
Q

differentiate the major clinical manifestations of

  • familial hyperchylomicronemia
  • familial hypercholesterolemia
  • familial dysbetalipoproteinemia
  • familal hypertriglyceridemia
A
77
Q

which enzymes catalyze the production of dopamine, NE, and epinephrine respectively

A

PNMT= phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase

78
Q

what is the biochemistry and clinical presentation of Maple Syrup Urine Ds

A
79
Q

differentiate treatment of

  • maple syrup urine disease
  • PKU
  • homocysteinuria
A
80
Q

what three reaction require biotin (vitamin b_) as a cofactor

what leads to biotin deficiency and how will a deficiency present

A
81
Q

etiology and presentation of Hartnup Ds

A
82
Q

what does leuprolide change levels of T and DHT in the serum

A

=GnRH agonist

initial rise, then fall –> trx prostatic hyperplasia

83
Q

what does the metyrapone stimulation test reveal?

how does it work/what changes are seen in n and abn test?

A
84
Q

what is the pathogenesis of stress hyperglycemia

A
85
Q

what substance is given to patients exposed to large amounts of radiation in order to protect the thyroid

A

potassium iodide

will competitively inhibit the uptake of RADIOACTIVE iodine

86
Q

what formation of insulin will best mimic the natural release of insulin in the body

A
87
Q

what is the clinical presentation of sufonylurea abuse?

what is the whipple triad?

A
88
Q

describe pancreatic function in cystic fibrosis

A
89
Q

mutations, inheritance, and tumors seen in

MEN1

MEN2A

MEN2B

A

ALL ARE AD

MEN1

  • AD xMEN1 gene (chr 11)
  • pituitary, pancreas, parathyroid

MEN2A

  • AD xRET (neural crest)
  • parathyroid, medullary thyroid, pheochromocytoma

MEN2B

  • AD xRET
  • medullary thyroid, pheochromocytomas, mucosal neuromas (ganglionomas on tongue/lips)
  • +marfanoid habitus
90
Q

how do serum levels of FFA contribute to the pathophysiology of T2DM

A
91
Q
A
92
Q

what is reverse T3

how does treatment with exogenous T3 affect levels of rT3

A

rT3 is an inactive form of T3 that is made entirely from the conversion of peripheral T4

w exogenous T3 supplementation –> dec TSH+T4 –> dec rT3