repro/embryo Flashcards

1
Q

what embryonic function of these genes + specific malformations from mutations if applicable SHH Wnt-7 FGF gene HOX gene

A

SHH = AP-axis growth + CNS -holoprosencephaly Wnt-7 = ectoderm growth at distal end of limbs + dorso-lat growth FGF-gene= fetus grow fingers x–> short limbs HOX= craniocaudal growth x= appendages in the wrong location

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2
Q

what are the highlights of activity that happen in wk 1-8+wk 10 of embryogenesis

A

wk 1= blasto’cyst’ ‘sticks’ at day ‘six’ -blastocyst implats and begins secreting hCG, pregnancy is detectable at day 6 wk 2= bilaminar disk (2 layers) wk 3= gastrulation (3 layers form) -form primitive streak (which will give rise to all 3 layers) -mesoderm -> notochord (music=mess of notes and chords) -ectoderm= neural plate (plate for eggs) -neural tube formed by neuroectoderm (future CNS), closes by wk 4 wk 4= 4 limb buds, heart begins to beat (bc have 4 heart chambers) wk 6= fetal cardiac activity visible by transvaginal US wk 10= genitalia have M/F characteristics -TENitalia

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3
Q

derivatives of

  • ectoderm
    • (3) types
  • mesoderm
    • +mnemonic for defects
  • endoderm
A
  • ectoderm
    • surface ectoderm = rathke puch, lens, ear sensory organs, parotid+sweat+mammary glands, hair, skin, and nails
    • neural tube –> neuroectoderm = SC+brain
    • neural crest – MMOtEL PPASS
      • Melanocytes, Myeteric plexus, Odontoblasts (teeth cells make dentin), Endocardial cushions (septums of heart), Laryengeal cartilage, Parafollicular C cells in thyroid, PNS (dorsal root ganglia, CNs, autonomic ganglia), Adrenal medulla, Spiral membrane (x–>TOF, TGA, tricuspid atresia, abn pulm venous connections), Schwann cels,
      • +pia, arachnoid, endocraniam bones + facial bones
  • Mesodern
    • CV structures, lymphatics, blood, spleen
    • adrenal cortex+kidneys
    • upper vagina, testes, ovary
    • perotineum, pleura, percardium, dermis
    • (notochord–>) nucleus pulposus
    • defects –> VACTERL
      • Vertebral defects, Anal atresia, Cardac defects, Tracho-Esophageal fistula, Renal defects, Limb (bone and M) defects
  • endoderm
    • digestive tract (esophagus, stomach, SI+LI), most of urethra and ENd of vagina
    • ENside luminal (epithelial) lining of lungs, liver, GB, pancreas, eustachian tube, thymus, parathyroid, thyroid follicles
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4
Q

what are the contents +purpuse of the umbilical cord

A

umbilical cord connects fetus to placenta (aka nutrient and blood supply)

contains wharton jelly, allantoic duct, ONE umbilical V, and TWO umbilical As

POV=fetus

  • 2 As: 2 leave the fetus to placenta, take away deox
  • 1 V: enter fetus w ox
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5
Q

branchial cleft derivatives

defects –> ?

A

1st= external auditory meatus

  • defect= pre-auricular cyst/fistula

2-4th= obliterated

  • persist = cervical cyst/fistula along anterior SCM border
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6
Q

branchial arches w associated deived CN /function

A

1st arch = CNV3 –> chew

2nd arch= CN VII –> smile

3rd arch= CN IX –> stylopharyngeus for swallow

4th arch= CN X superior laryngeal branch = swallow Ms

6th arch = CN X recurrent laryngeal branch = speak

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7
Q

what teratogenic effects can be seen w

  • ace-inhibitors/ ARBs
  • warfarin
  • lithium
  • isotretinoin
  • thalidomide
  • diethystilbestrol
  • methimazole
A
  • ace-inhibitors/ ARBs
    • if taken in Tri2/3 –> oligohydramnios –> renal failure, Potter’s syndrome w pulm/limb/skeletal ab
  • warfarin
    • classic= stippled epiphyses @ x-ray
      • vision loss, nose/limb hypoplasia
    • fetal hemorrahge or abortion
  • lithium
    • Ebstein’s anomaly = apical dsiplacement of the tricuspid valve
  • isotretinoin
    • (Vit A derivative- used to treat acne) : need to give with birth control
    • 20%–> SAB: low wars, wide eyes, hydrocephalus
  • thalidomide
    • old drug: –> flipper limbs (small, abn shape)
  • diethystilbestrol
    • “DES” used in 50s
    • cause genital defects in F babies: hypoplastic uterus/cervix, infertility, persstant mullerian tissue, vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma
  • methimazole= used for hypothyroid
    • aplasia cutis congenita= patches of no epithelium (skin or hair growth) on the fetal head : hypothyroid in baby
    • used in TRi 2/3 bc so effective (use PTU in Tri 1 bc safer)
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8
Q

which drugs are teratogenic because of their effect on folate/folic acid levels

what are the effects seen

A

neural tube defects : give folate supplements (high dose if mom on these meds)

–antiepileptics

  • valproic acid (esp ^^ levels of neural tube defects)
  • carbamezapine, phenobarbital
  • phenytoin –> fetal hydantoine syndrome ==> microcephaly + cleft lip/palate (+broad/short nose, wide spread eyes, malformed ears)

–folate antagonists

  • trimethoprim (an abx)
  • methotrexate = x folate metabolism, induceses abortion, used in RA and anti-CA
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9
Q

what chemo drugs are especially teratogenic: what CA is known to arise during pregnancy

A

Hodgkin lymphoma is known to appear during pregnancy- defer chemo trx till after birth if can, at least Tri 2/3

highest risk =

  • alkylating agents (cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide, busulifan) –> classically present as missing digits
  • antimetabolites
    • methotrxate, 5-FU, hydroxyurea, azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine, cyterabine, gemicitibine
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10
Q

which abx have teratogenic effects

A
  • aminoglycosides (gentamycin, tobramycin, plazomicin)
    • ototoxicity (A mean guy heat the baby in the ear)
  • tetracycline= doxycycline, tetracycline
    • discolored teeth (teethracycline)
  • flouroquinolones (-floxacin)
    • fetal cartilage damage
  • trimethoprime
    • folate defieincy –> neural tube defects
  • sulfanomides = sulfasalazine, sulfasoxazole, sulfadiazile, zonisamide, trimethprim/sulfamethazole
    • kernicterus (displace bilirubin–> permanent brain damage secondary to bilirubin build up post-birth
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11
Q

describe the teratogenic effect of

  • alcohol
  • cocaine
  • smoking
  • mercury
  • iodine (lack or excess)
  • vit a excess
  • x-rays
  • maternal PKU
  • maternal DM
A
  • alcohol –> failure of cell migration
    • tri 1= abn face/brain/heart structure : tri 3= small baby/brain
    • intellectual disability
    • fetal alcohol syndrome= leading cause of intellectual disability in US
      • `small brain structures (abn reflexes, hypotonia, CN deficits, dec IQ) –severe–> holoprosencephaly
      • face: short palpebral fissures (eye openings), smooth philltrum (nose to lip spot): thin vermillon (upper lip)
      • heart-lung fistula; ASD, VSD, ToF
  • cocaine
    • vasoconstriction –> low birth weight/IUGR/preterm : placental abruption
  • smoking –> low O2 delivery to baby
    • nicotine–> constriction –> xplacental BF
    • carbon monoxide –> dec mom (Hgb-O)
    • ==> IUGR, inc risk SIDS, ADHD, placental abruption/previa/premature rupture
  • mercury
    • found in fish, king mackeral shark not cooked
    • –> neurotoxicity w delayed milestones, rarely lead to blindness/deafness/cerebral palsy
  • iodine (lack or excess)
    • congenital goiter/hypothyroid
  • vit a excess (w megadose)
    • high risk SAB,
    • cleft palate
    • microcephaly,
  • x-rays
    • minimize w lead shielding: microcephaly, inc risk between wk 8-15
  • maternal PKU
    • if mom takes phenylalanine, check serum levels
    • too much = teratogenic –> IUGR, microcephaly, intellectual retardation, coarctation of aorta, hypoplastic L heart defect
  • maternal DM
    • macrocephaly (shoulder dystocia): hypoglycemia of neonate (frst 24 hours)
    • transposition of great vessels (classic) >>> VSD
    • insulin dependent moms ∝ caudal regression syndrome = anal atresia, incompetent sacral development, sirenomelia (mermaid syndrome)
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12
Q

what cells in Ms and Fs are stimulated by LH and FSH and what is the effect/purpose?

A

MALES

  • LH–> Leydig Cells –> make Testosterone
  • FSH –> sertolie cells –> make inhibin to negatively regulate the further relase of FSH
    • Temp sensitive: dec sperm production and inhbin B release with inc Temp

FEMALES

  • LH–> Theca cells–> trigger ovulation (luteal phase) and formation of corpus luteum
    • corpus luteum will make progesterone
  • FSH–> Granulosa cells–> activate aromatase in granulosa cells to make estrogen = end MENSES, and begin proliferation of endometrial lining
    • stimulate devevloping follicle to make estrogen throughout uterine cycle –> endometrial proliferation
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13
Q

what is the role of progesterone?

when are low levels of progesterone seen?

A

progesterone= pro-gestation

  • remain elevated during pregnancy

(prolactin= pro-lactatin)

inc progesterone during ovulation (formation of corpus luteum)

all in progesterione =

  • failure of fertilization and corpus luteum death –> menses
  • after delivery: falls in progesterone = disinhibition of prolactin –> lactation can occur
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14
Q

outline the phases of the ovarian cycle and how those phases effect the uterine cycle

be specific about which hormones are doing what when

(at what point does hCG come into play)

A
  • ovarian cycle
    • –> uterine cycle
  • start at follicular phase: inc in FSH>LH stimulates developing follicle to make estrogen
    • –> end menses, estrogen boost starts endometrial proliferation
    • during follicular phase, estrogen positively feedbacks self: inc estrogen levels –> inc proliferation
  • estrogen surge causes surge in LH>FSH –> set off ovulation, formation of corpus luteum (also slight inc in estrogen bc of FSH) = thus, LH surge directly causes surge in hCG
    • –> more endometrial proliferation: corpus luteum produces progesterone–>more estrogen
    • the endometrium is ready for implantation
  • failure of fertilization –> corpus luteum death
    • –> fall in progesterione (+–> fall in estrogen) sets off menses
    • endometrial lining is shed
  • repeat
    *
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15
Q

twins of dif sexes are always dizygotic and mostly __chorionic/__amniotic

for monozygotic same sex twins, division in

0-4 days

4-8 days

8-12 days

13+ days

results in what

A

dichorionic/diamniotic

0-4 days = dichorionic, diamniotic

4-8 days = monochorionic, diamniotic

8-12 days = monochorionic, monoamniotic

13+ days = conjoined

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16
Q

DiGeorge’s syndrome

CATCH22 =?

which pharyngeal pouches are messed up? what does than mean for LN anatomy

  • what other disease will cause hypoplasia of a specific part of the LN? what is the difference?
A

CATCH 22

  • congenital heart ds (esp truncus arteriosis, ToF)
  • abn facies
  • thymic hypoplasia
  • hypoparathyroid –> hypocalcemia
  • 22q11 deletion

pharyngeal puches 3+4

  • x T cell and dendritic cell formation = hypoplastic paracortex formation (where T cells and DC are)
  • –> recurrent sinus infections

vs- agammaglobulinemia ( no B cell formation) –> no primary lymphoid follicle and germinal center formation

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17
Q

what is adenomyosis

  • etiology
  • population associated w
  • sx
    • vs endometrial hyperplasia
  • PE findings?
    • vs PE findings of leiomyomas
    • vs PE of endometrial hyperplasia
A
  • = endometrial glandular tissue within the myometrium
    • uterine enlargement bc the endometrial glands will continue to respond to hormonal stimulation
  • middle aged, parous women
  • heavy menstrual bleeding, dysmenorrhea,
    • vs endometrial hyperplasia, which shows up w irregular but NOT painful bleeding
  • uniformally enlarged uterus: biopsy shows secreatory endometrial glands
    • leiomyomas= irregular uterus
    • endometrial hyperplasia will cause polyp growth, but NO increase in uterus size
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18
Q

what are the greatest risk factors associated with cervical CA

A
  1. HPV 16/18 (immunosupp)
  2. hx of STD
  3. early onset sexual activity
  4. multiple / high risk sex partners
  5. immunosuppression
  6. oral contraceptive use
  7. low SES
  8. tobacco use
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19
Q

what drugs are known to cause gynecomastia

A

“Some Hormones Create Funny Knockers”

Spironolactone

Hormones

Cimetidine (antihistamine/ antacid)

Finasteride (trx of enlarged prostate/hair loss)

Kenoconazole

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20
Q

what is the umbilical cord derived from

what does it contain

A

from yolk sac and allantois (a hindgut outpouching)

contents

  • 2 umbilical As (deox)
  • 1 umbilical V (ox)
  • allantoid duct (connect fetal bladder to umbilical cord)
    • wharton’s jelly
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21
Q

what is the urachus?

what does it become post-utero? what are the consequences of the failure of this transformation?

A

from allantois: = a duct between the eal bladder and umbilicus

urachus will obliterated and get covered by peritoneum fold –> median umbilical L

  • total failure of obliteration = patent urachus = urine discharge from umbilicus
  • partial failure to obliterate = urachal cyst= fluid filled cavity lined with uroepithelium between umbilicus and bladder, can become infected
  • sight failure of obliteration= outpouching/diverticulum of bladder = vesiourachal diverticulum
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22
Q

what develops from the paramesonephric and mesonephric ducts? what is the other name for each?

A
  • paramesonephric= Müllerian (patriarchy try to control female structures= to make mom mills)
    • internal female structures = EXCEPT OVARIES
    • fallopian tubes, uterus, upper portian of vagina
    • (lower vaginal comes from the urogenital sinus)
    • male remnant= appendix testis
  • mesonephric= wolffians (men are wolves)
    • male internal structures EXCEPT PROSTATE
    • SEED= seminal vesicles, e*_pididymis, _*e*_jaculatory duct, _*Ductus deferens
    • female remnant = gartner duct
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23
Q

what is mayer-rokitansky-kuster-hauser syndrome?

A

= mullerian agenesis

-can present as primary amenorrhea (lack of uterine develeopment) with fully developed secondary secual characteristics (functional ovaries)

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24
Q

what is the function and structures contained in the follow ligaments

  • surgical ligation puts what other structures at rish?
  • which are derivatives of the gubernaculum
  • suspensory lig
  • ovarian Lig
  • cardinal Lig
  • Round Lig of the uterus
  • Broad Lig
A
  • suspensory lig
    • ovaries to pelvic wall
    • contain ovarial vessels
    • **need to ligate the vessels during an ophorectomy to avoid bleeding**
    • **at risk of ligating retroperotineal ureter, passing nearby**
  • ovarian Lig
    • ovary to uterus
    • derivative of gubernaculum
  • cardinal Lig
    • cervix to pelvis
    • contain uterine vessels
    • ureter at risk of injury when you ligate the uterine vessels for a hysterectomy
  • Round Lig of the uterus
    • uterine to labia majora
      • travels through the inguinal canal
    • derived from gubernaculum
  • Broad Lig
    • contain uterus, fallopian tubes, round ligaments, and ovaries, will connect to pelvic wall
    • =made up of mesosalpinx, mesometrium, and mesovarium
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25
Q

what are the hormonal changes associated with menopause

what are the complications caused by menopause

A

↑ GnRH –> ↑↑FSH (surge), ↑LH

↓ estrogen

complications: HAVOC

  • Hot flashes
  • Atrophy of the vagina
  • Osteoporosis
  • Coronary Artery Dsease
  • Sleep Disturbances
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26
Q

what will be the hormonal changes and sex seen in each of the following

  • 21 β hydroxylase deficiency
  • 11 β hydroxylase deficiency
  • 17 ∝ hydroxylase deficiency
  • 5 ∝ reductase deficiency
A
  • 21 β hydroxylase deficiency
    • ↓ALD, ↓ cortisol, ↑ sex hormones
    • salt wasting infant, precocious puberty + virilization
  • 11 β hydroxylase deficiency
    • ↓ cortisol, ↑ sex hormones
    • virilization
  • 17 ∝ hydroxylase deficiency
    • ↑ ALD, ↓ cortisol, ↓ sex hormones
    • XY –> undescended testes : XX = no secondary sexual development
  • 5 ∝ reductase deficiency
    • low DHT, with incr T (will be peripherally converted to estrogen)
    • XY –>ambiguous genitals until puberty (@ which point the T will inc to the point where it can effectively carry out male development)
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27
Q

what are the roles of Testosterone and DHT

A

T=

  • differentiate internal genitalia, growth spurt, voice, epiphyseal plates (via estrogen), libido

DHT=

  • early: differentiate penis, prostate, + scrotum
  • late: prostate growth, balding, sebaccous gland activity
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28
Q

Klinefelter Syndrome and Turner Syndrome

  • genotype
  • clin
  • hormones/labs
A

Klinefelter Syndrome

  • genotype
    • 47 XXY : Barr Body
  • clin
    • testicular atrophy -tall,long extremities - gynecomastia - F hair distribution
    • common cause of hypogonadism, usually come in for an infertility worksu
  • hormones/labs
    • inc FSH (no seminiferous tubules = no inhibin)
    • ↓ T, ↑ LH, estrogen

Turner Syndrome

  • genotype
    • 45 XO : no Barr Body
  • clin
    • short, ovarian dysgenesis, bicuspid aortic valve/ aortic coarctation (dec femoral pulses): webbed neck or cystic hygroma, horseshoe kidney, lymphedema
  • hormones/labs
    • “menopause before menarche”
    • ↓ estrogen, ↑ LH, FSH
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29
Q

differentiate the genetics, etiology, clin, and hormone changes of

  • placental aromatase dificiency
  • androgen insensitivity syndrome
  • 5 alpha reductase deficiency
  • kallman syndrome
A
  • placental aromatase dificiency
    • 46 XX,
    • inability to synthesize estrogens
    • ambiguous genitalia, virilization during pregnancy of mom (fetal androgens cross placenta)
    • ↑ serum T and androstenedione
  • androgen insensitivity syndrome
    • 46 XY
    • defect in androgen receptor
    • F external genitilia, scant axillary and pubic hair, rudimentary vagina (blind ended), absent uterus and fallopiean tubes but normal functioning testes (oft in labia majora or still in abd/inguinal area)
    • ↑T, estrogen, LH, n/↑ DHT
  • 5 alpha reductase deficiency
    • 46 XY
    • unable to convert T to DHT
    • ambigious genitals until puberty
    • T and estrogen are normal, LH is n/high, but ↓DHT
  • kallman syndrome
    • failure to complete puberty bc of failure of defective neural crest migration to create a GnRH-release olfactor bulbt
    • hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, hypo/anosmia : low sperm count/ amenorrhea
    • ↓ GnRH, FSH, LH, testosterone
30
Q

what is a hytadiform mole?

  • how they present, what are assocated sequelae
  • trx

differentiate complete mole and partial mole by

  • karyotype + immunostain of p57
  • components
  • fetal parts present?
  • uterine size?
  • hcG levels
  • imaging
A

hydatidiform mole = gestational trophoblastic ds = cystic swelling of chorionic villi and prolieration of TROPHOBLASTIC TISSUE

  • trophoblastic tissue makes hcG –> v high levels of hCG v early on
  • –> early pre-eclampsia (before 20 wks), theca-lutein cysts, hyperemesis gravidarum, hyperthyroid
  • trx= D&C, MTX.. monitor b-hCG to make sure it worked

complete mole and partial mole

—CM = more common

  • karyotype + immunostain of p57
    • CM= 46XX > 46XY= p57 (-) bc no maternal genes present
    • PM= 69XXX/69XXY = p57(+)
  • components
    • CM: 1 sperm duplicate in empty egg) > (2 sperm, empty egg)
    • PM= 2 sperm, 1 n egg
  • fetal parts present?
    • CM= no *no mom= no baby**
    • PM= partial fetal parts
  • uterine size?
    • CM= ↑↑ (no fetus= no drainage of villi = massive swelling)
    • PM= n or less dramatic inc, fetal tissue is able to drain
  • hcG levels
    • CM: ↑↑↑↑↑
    • PM= ↑↑
  • imaging
    • CM: honeycomb uterus, with swollen villi = “cluster of grapes/snowstorm
      • often do imaging bc of painless early vaginal bleeding as decidiua is seperated from villi
    • PM: fetal parts seen, but not complete
31
Q

choriocarcinoma

  • a malignancy of what tissue
  • sx
  • lab findings + imaging
  • risk factors
  • trx
  • gestational vs nongestational type
A
  • a malignancy of what tissue
    • trophoblastic tissue (cytotrophoblasts + synciotrophoblasts), NO chorionic villi
  • sx
    • vaginal bleeding, cough/hemoptysis/SOB (Secondary to mets), possible ovarian cysts, hyperthyroidism (secondary to inc hCG)
  • lab findings + imaging
    • ↑↑↑ hCG (often found with high hCG that plataeua instead of falling post molar pregnancy)
  • risk factors
    • gestational: can follow a pregnancy or miscarriage
    • often after a complete molar pregnancy (15% of complete moles are locally invasive, and 5% will become choriocarcinomas) : less likely from partial moles
  • prognosis + trx
    • 80% will met to lungs, early and extensive ds
    • v senstiive to MTX / actinomycin D : most patients are cured
  • gestational vs nongestational type
    • GEST: can be a malignant gestational trophoblastic ds, following a pregnancy/SAB/molar preg
    • NON-GEST: rare germ cell tumor of ovary/testes, germ cells differentiate into trophoblasts= same histo and sx, but more difficult to trx
32
Q

abruptio placentae

  • etiology
  • risk
  • presetnation + possible complications
A
  • etiology
    • blood loss from MATERNAL vessels in the decidua basalis –> blood leaks out and pushes apart the placental attachment from the myometrium
  • risk
    • trauma (MVA), smoking, HTN, pre-eclampsia, cocaine abuse
  • presetnation + possible complications
    • present usually in the third trimester with abrupt onset of painful vaginal bleeding and uterine contractions
    • possible complciations: DIC, maternal shock, getal distress, can be lifethreatening for mom and baby
    • may progress to corticoid necrosis secondary to ischemia
    • may progress to acute renal failure in mom w anuria, hematuria, and flank pain
33
Q

“morbidly” adherant placenta

  • what are the three types
  • etiology
  • dx and trx
  • risk factors
A
  • three types
    • placenta acrete = placenta attched to myometrium without penetrating = MC
    • placenta increta= penetrates into myometrium
    • placenta percreta= placenta perforates through the mymetrium into the uterun serosa, can attach tot he rectum or bladder
  • =defective decidular laer –> abnormal attachment and seperation after delivery
  • dx via US beforehand
    • plan C-section +post-partum hysterectomy to ensure all placental tissue is removed
    • failure to do so can –> maternal shock, DIC, ARDS
  • risk factors= prior C-section or uterine surgery, uterine inflammation, placenta previa, advanced maternal age, multiparity
34
Q

placenta previa vs vasa previa

  • what is it
  • presentation
  • risk
A

placenta previa

  • placenta before baby
  • present= painless bleeding during pregnancy, may lead to a preterm birth, or require C section
  • risk= multiparity, prior C section

vasa previa=

  • fetal BVs come before baby
  • TRIAD= membrane rupture, painless vaginal bleeding, fetal bradycardia (<110 beats/min)
  • risk: associated w villamentous umbilical cord (an umbilical cord that implants wrongly and has to travel unprotected outside of warton’s jelly)
35
Q

4 categories of causes of postpartum hemorrhage

trx?

A

4 Ts

  • Tone : uterine atony = most common
    • no post-delivery contractions = no constriction of spiral As : trx w oxytocin and uterine massage
  • Trauma: lacerations, incisions, uterine rupture
  • Thrombin: coagulopathy
    • blood loss @ delivery may consume clotting factors –> DIC
  • Tissue: retained products of conception
36
Q

risk factors for ectopic pregnancy?

A
  • prior ectopic pregnancy
  • hx of infertility
  • salpingitis (PID)
    • associated w Chlamydia, Neisseria
  • rupture appendix
  • prior tubal surgery (tubal ligation, tumor)
  • smoking
  • advanced maternal age
37
Q

what things will cause polyhydramnios vs oligohydramnios

which one is associated w potter’s sequence

A

polyhydramnios : fetus unable to swallow the amniotic fluid or the fetus is peeing too much

  • esophageal/duodenal atresia
  • anencephaly
  • maternal DM (polyuria)
  • fetal anemia (inc C.O–> inc urine production –> often associated w Parvovirus)

oligohydramnios : fetal renal problems, placental insuff, –> often tri 3 premature membrane rupture

  • bilateral renal agenesis
  • posterior urethral valves (in males) –> inability to excete urine

potter’s sequence = associated w OLIGOhydramnios

  • loss of cushioning forces –> fetal compression
  • limb deformed, flat facies, pulmonary hypoplasia
38
Q

define spontanious abortion

  • 50% are caused by what
  • risk factors?
A

spontaneous abortion = < 20 weeks

  • 50% are secondary to getal chromosomal abnormalities
  • risk= mom smoke, alc, cocaine
  • TORCH infections
  • hypercoag states (placental thrombus)
  • SLE/antiphospholipid Ab
39
Q

amniotic fluid embolism

  • etiology
  • presentation
  • complications
A
  • etiology
    • embolus of amniotic fluid /fetal cells or debris, enter maternal circulation –> inflammation rxn –> atal
  • presentation
    • CLASSIC: normal pregnancy but post-partum mom gets very sick and dies in/after birth
    • phase 1= respiratory shock : respiratory distress, low O2, hypotension
    • phase 2= hemorrhagic phase : massive hemorrhage, DIC, bleeding
  • complications
    • coma, seizures
    • NOT associated with the setting of HTN (then think eclampsia)
40
Q

what is HELLP syndrome (vs pre-eclampsia vs eclampsia)

A
  • pre-eclampsia= multisystem ds = HTN + proteinuria/edema + end organ dysfunction (renal failure, CNS HA visual change confusion, liver failure)
  • eclampsia = pre-eclampsia + seizure
  • HELLP syndrome= a variant of pre-eclampsia that presents as severe pre-eclampsia
  • hemolysis + elevated liver enzymes + low platelets
  • caused by coagulation activation + liver infarction in the setting of severe pre-eclampsia
41
Q

fibrocystic breast changes: who? what? presentation?

  • simple cysts
  • papillary apocrine change/metaplasia
  • stromal fibrosis

risk of CA increased?

A

benign, non-proliferative changes in breast

“lumpy bumpy”

most common in pre-menopausal, <35 yo

present premenstrual breast pain or lumps: often bilat and multifocal

  • simple cysts
    • fluid filled duct dilation
    • “blue dome” on imagine: filled w dark fluid
  • papillary apocrine change/metaplasia
    • benign epithelial alteration = lobular change
  • stromal fibrosis
    • secondary to cyst rupture and inflammation

no increased risk of CA

42
Q

proliferative breast patholoy;

what: associated findings

  • sclerosing adenosis
  • epithelial hyperplasia
  • intraductal papilloma

inc risk of CA?

A
  • sclerosing adenosis
    • inc number of acini in each lobule –> compressed acini w dense surrounding stroma
    • associated with calcifications on mammogram
    • slight inc risk of CA
  • epithelial hyperplasia
    • inc # luuminal and myoepithelial cells (epithelium in ducts) –> distended ducts/lobules= lumen filled w cluster of cells
    • inc risk of carcinoma with atypical cells
  • intraductal papilloma
    • finger like projections in ducts of lactiferous sinuses = small fibroepithelial tumor
    • typically found beneat the areola as a small mass
    • is the MOST COMMON CAUSE OF nipple discharge (serous or bloody)
    • slight inc risk of CA
43
Q

what are the benign stromal tumors in the breast

  • in who
  • how do they present
A
  • fibroadenoma
    • mass of fibrous glandular tissue
    • MC in women < 35 yo
    • smal, well-defined mobile mass
    • HORMONE SENSITIVE= inc in size and tenderness w inc estrogen (i.e. pregnancy or menstruation)
  • phyllodes tumor
    • growth of stroma (CT and cysts) covered by epithelium
    • -looks like leaf-life lobulations
    • more common in older Fs, ~50+
44
Q

inflammatory breast processes

what are they? who? findings and associations?

  • mammary duct ectasia
  • fat necrosis
  • lactational mastitis
  • periductal mastitis
A
  • mammary duct ectasia
    • =benign inflammation—> distension (“ectasia”) o subareaolar ducts secondary to chronic inflammation and fibrosis
    • ~50 yo Fs, oft multiparous
    • presentation= breast mass right under nipple + thick, white discharge: no pain/erthema
    • histo shows misshapen duct WITH INFLAMMATORY CELLS
  • fat necrosis
    • benign, usually painless, lump that is classically secondary to trauma (tho F may not remember the traumatic event)
    • benign and inflammatory, may mimic CA
    • present as painless mass that may have calcifications = calcified oll cysts
    • (need biopsy to rule out CA) = fat cells and giant cells (infl)
  • lactational mastitis
    • infection of breast during breastfeeding due to inc risk of bacterial infections through the cracks in the nipple
    • S. aureus= most common pathogen
    • trx= dicloxacillin+ceftriaxone AND KEEP NURSING
  • periductal mastitis
    • benign squamous metaplasia of the lactierous ducts secondary to inflammation of the subareolar ducts
    • >90% associated w smokers, some may be secondary to infection
    • prsent with peri-areolar inflammaed mass: red, tender and warm
45
Q

malignant breast CA : relate hormone receptors to the drug response

  • structure
  • lab findings
  • ductal carcinoma in situ
    • 2 high yield subtypes
  • paget disease
  • lobular carcinoma in situ
  • invasive ductal carcinoma
    • 2 high yield subtypes
  • invasive lobular carcinoma
A

commonly present post-menopasual: all come from terminal duct-lobuar unit: named for the type of cell the tumor cells look like

-are hormone sensitive:

  • ER+, PR+ = inc response to tamoxifen (SERM)
  • HER+ tumors = inc response to TRASTOZUMAB
  • ER-, PR-, HER2- = v aggressive, associated w Fs <40, AA
  • ductal carcinoma in situ: malignant cells that fill ductal lumen areise from ductal atypia, oft seen as microcalcifications but contained by BM
    • cribiform DCIS= cookie cutter on histo, with microcalcificaitons
    • comedo DCIS= central ncerosis with large tumor cells, inc risk of becoming invasive
  • paget disease
    • results from underlying DCIS or invasive breast CA @ the nupple –> erythema @ the nipple with bloody discharge
    • NOT INVASIVE: ~50% have another mass on mammogram, most will have another CA that is invasive
    • Paget cells = intraepithelial adenocarcinoma cells
  • lobular carcinoma in situ
    • discohesive growth secondary to loss of E-cadherin: lesion itself won’t progress to invasive, but the finding itself suggests the inc risk presence for invasive CA in women
    • chemoprevention + TAMOXIFEN as preventative trx
  • invasive ductal carcinoma= “rock hard” mass w sharp margins, and small glandular ductlike cells : tumor can deform the suspensory ligaments –> dimpling of skin : classic morphology= “Stellate” infiltration
    • medullary carcinoma= associated w BRCA1 : fleshy, lymphocytic infiltrate : good prognosis
    • inflammatory carcinoma = peau d’orange= edema leading to tightening of Cooper’s Lig and lymphatic obstruction : entire boob swollen, poor prognosis
  • invasive lobular carcinoma
    • orderly row of cells= “single file” : often bilateral with multiple lesions in the same location
    • NO E-cadherin : no microcalcifications
46
Q
  • the superficial inguinal ring is made from what structure?
  • the deep inguinal ring?
  • which one does the spermatic cord go through, and what are the origins of the layers of the spermatic cord?
  • what are the 4 walls of the inguinal canal made of
A
  • superficial inguinal ring= an opening in the external abdominal oblique aponeurosis
  • deep inguinal ring= an opening in the transversalis fascia
  • spermatic cord- goes through superficial ring
    • internal spermatic fascia= from transversalis fascia
    • cremasteric M&fascia = from internal oblique M&fascia
    • external spermatic fascia = from external oblique fascia
  • inguinal canal
    • roof= aponeurosis of EOM + transversalis fascia
    • posterior wall= TF + conjoint tendon +deep inguinal ring
    • floor= inguinal L, lacunar L, iliopubic tract
    • anterior wall= EOM aponeurosis, IOM (only part of the wall), superficial inguinal ring
47
Q

vaginitis

what is the clin sx, microbio classification, histo testing and findings, and trx of

  • gardnerella
  • trichomonas
  • candida
A
  • gardnerella
    • anaerobic G-rod
    • add KOH for a whiff test (+ if get v bad smell bc of amine release)
  • trichomonas
    • anaerobic, flagellated protozoan parasite
    • do a saline microscopy (wet mount)
  • candida
    • fungus, pseudohyphae
48
Q

what is the physiologic explanation of increased risk of cholelithiasis in pregnancy

this physiology explains the increased risk of cholelithiasis in what other population as well?

A
  • estrogen induced cholesterol hypersecretion (via upregulation of HMG-CoA reductase–> supersaturated bile)
  • progesterone induced gallbladder hypomotility

pregnancy + those using oral contraceptives

49
Q

hypospadias vs epispadias

  • anatomy
  • embryology
A

hypospadias =

  • midline -nonfusion on the underside (ventral) of the penis
  • due to: x urethral fold fusion on ventral aspect of penis and penile raphe

epispadias

  • abn opening on the top surface = dorsal penis
  • results from faulty postitioning of the genital tubercle in the 5th week of gestation
50
Q
  • what is the levator ani M and what is its function
  • how can the levator ani M be injured
  • how does injury of the levator ani M present
A
  • what is the levator ani Ms and what is its function
    • make up the pelvic floor = form a U-shaped sling around the pelvic viscera
    • hold the bladder and urethra in the appropriate anatomic position
  • how can the levator ani Ms be injured
    • prolonged pushingin second stage labor
    • obesity
    • multiple vaginal births
  • how does injury of the levator ani Ms present
    • urethral hypermobility
    • pelvic organ collapse -> cystocele (prolapse of anterior vaginal wall allows bladder to fall out the hole)
51
Q

epithelial ovarian CA

  • common presentation
  • risk factors
  • protective factors
A
  • common presentation
    • abdominal distension, ascites, bowel obstruction, decreased appetite, weight loss, ovarian mass
  • risk factors
    • FH, nulliparity, infertility, PCOS, endometriosis, BRCA 1 or 2, lynch syndrome, postmenopausal hormonal therapy
  • protective factors
    • combined oral contraceptives, multiparity, breastfeeding, salpingo-oophorectomy
52
Q

what is the pharm trx for PCOS

A

mixed E+P contraceptive for those who don’t want to get pregnany, can help w sx

-for those who do want to get pregnany, give a med aimed at inducing ovulation

=clomiphene, letrozole

53
Q

adult male w azoospermia, infertility, bilateral agenesis of the vas deferens, and recurrent pneumonia likely has what diagnosis

A

cystic fibrosis

54
Q

medication for what vaginal illness has a negative reaction with alcohol intake?

A

metronidazole for bacterial vaginitis (gardnerella) / trichomonas vaginalis

= cause a disulfuram like reaction : flushing, N, abd cramping

55
Q

what parts of the male reproductive tract drain into the

  • superficial inguinal LNs
  • deep inguinal LNs
  • aortic LNs
A
  • superficial inguinal LNs
    • scrotum
  • deep inguinal LNs
    • glans penis and superficial inguinal LN
  • para-aortic LNs
    • testes
56
Q

the prostatic plexus gives rise to what distal N

A

the cavernous Ns: carry the para innervation needed to facilitate erection

57
Q
  • primary oocytes are arrested in what phase of meiosis until ovulation
  • @ ovulation, they progress and halt at what stage until fertilization
A
  • prophase of meiosis I
  • metaphase of meiosis II
58
Q

bilateraly ligation of what As will stop postpartum hemorrhage while maintaining fertility

A

internal iliac A

  • branches of the internal iliac supply the uterus so ligating them will stop the BF and hemorrhage so that you don’t need to do a hysterectomy
  • the ovarian As have anastomoses to the uterus that can supply the uterus in the wake of ligation
59
Q

what three meds can be used for pregnancy termination and what is their MOA

A
60
Q

what are the motor, social, and verbal milestones that should be reached by

  • 3 months
  • 6 months
  • 10 months
  • 1 year
  • 18 months
  • 2 years
  • 3 years
  • 4 years
A
  • 3 months
    • lift head by 1 month,
    • social smile by 2 months
  • 6 months
    • roll and sit
    • pass toys hand-to-hand
    • stranger anxiety
  • 10 months
    • crawl by 8 months
    • seperation anxiety by 9 months, orients to name and gestures by 9 months, object permanence by 9 months
    • pincer grisp, say mama dada
  • 1 year
    • walk (12-18)
    • points to object
  • 18 months
    • climbs stairs
  • 2 years
    • feed self by 20 months
    • kick ball
    • parrallel play btwn 2-3 yo
    • move away from strangers and back to mom by 2yo
    • say 50-200 words
  • 3 years
    • tricycle
    • core gender identity formed
    • comfortably spends time away from mom
    • say 300+ words, understand 1,000 words
  • 4 years
    • draw copies of shapes and stick figures
    • hop on one foot
    • friends (real and imaginary)
    • complete sentences and can tell stories
61
Q

which A should you ligate to stop post-partum uterine bleeding and why that one specifically

A

internal iliac a

= x uterine A and vaginal A BUT mainain ovarian A = maintain fertility

62
Q

which HPV strains result in warty ds?

fetal HPV infection will present how?

A

HPV strains 6 + 11

  • these present with genital warts on mom
  • can infect the baby while it comes out the birth canal
  • pridilection for squamous epithelium + access to respiratory tract –> pridilection for the true vocal cords
    • present with stridor, hoarsness, and a weak cry
63
Q

differentiate between the 5 ulcerating STDs

A
64
Q

ovarian tumor w irrgular masses and ascites

histo attached. dx?

A

serous cystadenocarcinoma - histo shows psammoma bodies

(any ovarian malignancy can present with abdominal distension, pleural effusion, bowel obstructin…

MEIGS SYNDROME= ovarian fibromas + ascites + pleural effusion, present with a pulling sensation in the groin

65
Q

bowen ds vs bowenoid papulosis

A
66
Q

retraction of the breast skin is indicative of what process (in the setting of breast CA)

A
67
Q
A
68
Q

what is the MOA of leuprolide

A
69
Q

most common cardiac abnormalities in DiGeorge

A

persistant truncus arteriosus > ToF, interrupted aortic arch

70
Q

what structure connects the placenta to the inferior vena cava in the fetal circulation

A