Upgrade Knowledge Prep - Climb, Cruise, Descent

Question 1

What exterior lights must be on above FL180? (SOPM 04-08.11)

Answer 1

• Nav, Beacon, and Strobes

Question 2

What is the normal cruise speed when at or below planned cruise altitude? Above planned cruise altitude? (SOPM 04-09.8)

Answer 2

• Normal At or Below: Flight Release

* Normal Above: 0.74 M (0.78 CRJ 700/900)

Question 3

When are you required to advise ATC of your TAS?

Answer 3

• When TAS differs by more than 10 KTAS or 5% of planned true airspeed

Question 4

On the Speed Cards VMD speed line, what do the dashed lines indicate? (SOPM 04-09.8)

Answer 4

• Dashed lines indicate that at that altitude and speed, do not provide a speed with adequate bank protection for banks in excess of 15°. Bank angles in excess of 15° and holding at these altitudes and weights are prohibited.

Question 5

What are the fuel values for Minimum Fuel? Emergency Fuel? (All variants) (SOPM 05-01.18)

Answer 5

• CRJ 200:
o Minimum Fuel: 1,500 lbs
o Emergency Fuel: 1,050 lbs 
• CRJ 700:
o Minimum Fuel: 2,100 lbs
o Emergency Fuel: 1,500 lbs 

• CRJ 900:
o Minimum Fuel: 2,150 lbs
o Emergency Fuel: 1,550 lbs

Question 6

To avoid a TCAS Resolution Advisory, the vertical speed must be reduced to ___ at least ___ prior to reaching cleared flight level. (SOPM 04-09.10)

Answer 6

• 1,500 fpm at least 1,000 ft prior

Question 7

What criteria won’t allow you to continue RVSM operations? (SOPM 04-09.10)

Answer 7

• Altitude deviations of 200 ft or greater. Declare an emergency when unable to maintain altitude
• Failure of transponder(s)
• Failure of either primary altimeter system
• Failure of altitude alerting or capturing system
• Failure of the AFCS

Question 8

What deviation between altimeters may indicate a system failure? (SOPM 04-09.10)

Answer 8

• A discrepancy in excess of 200 ft

Question 9

What is the Driftdown procedure? (SOPM 04-09.12)

Answer 9

• Set maximum continuous thrust.
• Refer to the performance cards for driftdown performance speed (when unable to hold
altitude decelerate to VENR).
• Use ice protection equipment only when necessary.
• Proceed to the nearest suitable airport for landing.
• When unsure of terrain clearance, divert to the driftdown airport listed on the flight
release using method 1 or 2 procedures as appropriate.
• Refer to the Aerodata Performance Handbook for additional information.

Question 10

Vertical speed must not exceed ___ when below ___ AGL. (SOPM 04-10.1)

Answer 10

• 1,500 fpm when below 2,500 ft AGL.

Question 11

When should you arrive at traffic pattern altitude and flap 0 maneuvering speed? (SOPM 04-10.10)

Answer 11

• Straight in approach: 12 miles out

* Abeam approach: 8 miles out

Question 12

How do you calculate top of decent (TOD) and descent rate for a 3° glidepath? (SOPM 04-10.10)

Answer 12

• TOD = Altitude to lose x 3 / 1,000
• Descent Rate = GS x 5
• When given a crossing altitude of 4,000 ft or less, begin the descent immediately

Question 13

What is the descent speed for an early arrival above 10,000 ft? What about a late or on time arrival? (SOPM 04-10.11)

Answer 13

• Early: .74M/300 kts

* On Time or Late: .77M/320 kts

Question 14

What are the FAA maximum holding speeds? (SOPM 04-10.12)

Answer 14

• Sea Level – 6,000’: 200 KIAS
• 6,001’ – 14,000’: 230 KIAS
• 14,001’ – and above: 265 KIAS

Question 15

When are flight deck crews required to make a landing performance assessment? (SOPM 04-10.12)

Answer 15

• Flight Deck crews are required to make a landing performance assessment and determine a Minimum Landing Distance using ACARS or the TLR based upon a destination airport’s current conditions, when:
o Conditions are DIFFERENT THAN THOSE PLANNED (e.g., runway surface condition, runway braking capability, runway to be used, winds, airplane landing weight/configuration/speed/deceleration devices); OR
o CREW NEEDS TO KNOW ABSOLUTE PERFORMANCE CAPABILITY of the airplane in emergencies or abnormal and irregular configurations of the airplane, such as engine failure or flight control malfunctions. Crew must know the actual landing distance (without an added safety margin) when making such an evaluation.

Question 16

What is the landing category for the CRJ 200? (SOPM 04-11.2)

Answer 16

• CRJ 200/900: D

* CRJ 700: C

Question 17

What is the stabilized approach criteria? (SOPM 04-11.2)

Answer 17

• At 1,000 ft HAT, the aircraft must be in a stabilized approach or a go-around is mandatory. HAT is calculated using charts and barometric altimeter.
• A stabilized approach is defined as an aircraft energy state from which no excessive corrections are required to maintain the following parameters:
• Aircraft established in the final landing configuration
• Instrument Approach
o Aircraft must be aligned with the runway centerline or
o Aircraft must be established on the published final approach course
o For VMC Circle-to-Land maneuver, aircraft must be aligned with runway by
500 ft AGL
• Visual / VFR approach
o Aircraft established within 5° of runway centerline, and
o Aircraft indicated heading within 30° of runway heading
• Proper sink rate for glidepath
• Established on a precision approach glidepath (if applicable)
• Sink rate not >1,000 FPM, unless the approach requires a higher rate due to:
o Glidepath exceeding 3 degrees
o Tailwind condition
o Abnormal aircraft configuration
o NOTE: All of the above require briefing prior to flying the approach
• Airspeed VREF (-0 +10)
• Proper and steady state thrust setting (above idle)

Question 18

What are the allowances for fluctuations during approach? (SOPM 04-11.3)

Answer 18

• VMC < 1,000 ft HAT or IMC between 500 – 1,000 ft HAT:
o Should a transient unstabilized condition or EGPWS warning occur when less
than 1,000 ft HAT, the PM states the deviation. PF states “CORRECTING” and makes the proper adjustment. If deviation not corrected immediately, a missed approach is mandatory.
• IMC < 500 ft HAT:
o Should any unstabilized condition or EGWPS warning occur below 500 ft HAT,
a missed approach is mandatory

Question 19

When can you descend below the DH, MDA, or DMDA? (SOPM 04-11.4)

Answer 19

• Authorized, provided one of the following references is distinctly visible and identifiable: o Threshold, markings, or lights
o Runway, markings, or edge lights
o Touchdown zone, markings, or lights
o REIL
o Visual approach slope indicator (VASI/PAPI)
o Approach light system
o When the approach light system is being used as the visual reference, descent
below 100 ft above TDZE is authorized only if the red side row bars (ALSF II) or red terminating bars (ALSF I) are visible

Question 20

What is the minimum circling MDA (altitude) that can be flown? (SOPM 04-11.19)

Answer 20

• The MDA is set to 1,000 AFE or the MDA, whichever is higher

Question 21

To begin a circling approach, what are the required weather minimums? (SOPM 04-11.19)

Answer 21

• 1,000 ft ceiling and 3 miles visibility, or the published landing minimums, whichever is higher

Question 22

What does emergency fuel provide?

Answer 22

• 30mins of fuel endurance

- 1,500’ MSL at 225kts at Maximum Landing Weight

Question 23

What does minimum fuel provide?

Answer 23

• Go around plus emergency fuel