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Unit I Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are the anatomical components of the central nervous system?

A

Brain and spinal cord

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2
Q

What are the anatomical components of the peripheral nervous system?

A

All neural tissue outside of the CNS

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3
Q

What is the difference between spinal nerves and cranial nerves?

A

Point of origin

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4
Q

What type of information is carried by the afferent division of the PNS?

A

Sensory information

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5
Q

What type of information is carried by the efferent division of the PNS?

A

Motor commands

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6
Q

What is the difference between the somatic and autonomic nervous systems?

A

We have control over somatic system, which is skeletal muscle.

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7
Q

Most sensory neurons of the PNS are this type of neuron

A

Unipolar neuron

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8
Q

All motor neurons control skeletal muscle are this type of neuron

A

Multipolar neuron

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9
Q

Where are chemically gated sodium channels located on a neuron?

A

For the most part, the dendrites and cell body

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10
Q

What are the characteristics of Type A, Type B, and Type C fibers?

A

Type A - Largest myelinated axons, and fastest at approximately 268 mph

Type B - Smaller myelinated axons, traveling approximately 40 mph

Type C - Unmyelinated and slow, traveling only 2 mph

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11
Q

What are the main characteristics of excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

Excitatory - Cause depolarization and promote action potentials

Inhibitory - Cause hyperpolarization and suppress action potentials

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12
Q

Explain the main events at a cholinergic synapse

A
  1. Action potential arrives at the presynaptic terminal
  2. Voltage-gated calcium channels open, and Ca2+ rushes in cause the release of ACh
  3. ACh diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to receptors on the postsynaptic terminal, causing chemically-gated Na+ channels to open resulting in a graded depolarization
  4. ACh is broken down into acetate and choline by AChE, and the choline is reabsorbed by the axon terminal to make more ACh.
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13
Q

What is the role of norepinephrine

A

Released at adrenergic synapses, has an excitatory effect. Found in portions of the ANS

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14
Q

What is the role of dopamine

A

May have inhibitory or excitatory effects. It inhibits muscle movements to prevent over-stimulation. Without dopamine Parkinson’s disease develops. In some areas of the brain, it causes excitatory effects.

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15
Q

What is serotonin

A

Affects attention and emotional states

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16
Q

What is GABA

A

Not fully understood. Generally inhibitory and used in some anti-anxiety medications.

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17
Q

What is nitric oxide

A

Generated by axon terminals that innervate smooth muscle in the walls of blood vessels.

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18
Q

What are neuromodulators

A

Alter the rate of release of neurotransmitters or change the postsynaptic response

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19
Q

What are the four classes of opioids and what are their primary functions?

A
  1. Endorphins
  2. Enkephalins
  3. Endomorphins
  4. Dynorphins

Primary use is to relieve pain by inhibiting release of substance P at pain synapses

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20
Q

What are postsynaptic potentials

A

Graded potentials that develop at the postsynaptic membrane

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21
Q

What is an EPSP

A

A graded depolarization caused by the arrival of a neurotransmitter at the postsynaptic membrane

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22
Q

What is an IPSP

A

A grade hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic terminal. For example, could result from the opening of chemically-gated K+ channels.

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23
Q

What is temporal summation?

A

Additional stimuli occurring in rapid succession at a single synapse

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24
Q

What is spatial summation?

A

Stimuli arrive simultaneously at different locations, causing a cumulative effect on the membrane potential.

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25
Q

Explain the role of GABA and Serotonin in presynaptic inhibition/facilitation

A

GABA and Serotonin can block or activate (respectively) the Ca+ channels of the synaptic terminal. With GABA, less Ca+ results in less ACh which results in inhibition, and vice versa for Serotonin.

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26
Q

(Chapter 13)

What type of nerve are spinal nerves classified as and why?

A

Mixed nerves, because they contain both sensory and motor fibers (afferent and efferent)

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27
Q

Where is the epidural space?

A

Between the dura mater and the walls of the vertebral canal

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28
Q

What fluid can be found in the subarachnoid space?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

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29
Q

What is a dermatome? What is the clinical importance of dermatomes?

A

The specific bi-lateral skin surface monitored by a single pair of spinal nerves. The clinical importance is that damage or infection of a spinal nerve or dorsal root ganglion will produce a loss of sensation in the corresponding region monitored by that nerve.

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30
Q

What are the four nerve plexuses

A

Cervical, Brachial, Lumbar, Sacral

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31
Q

What areas of the body are innervated by the cervical plexus

A

Neck and thoracic cavity. The phrenic nerve is the major nerve of the cervical plexus.

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32
Q

What areas of the body are innervated by the brachial plexus?

A

Pectoral girdle and upper limb

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33
Q

What is the major nerve of the lumbar plexus?

A

Femoral nerve

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34
Q

What is the major nerve of the sacral plexus?

A

Sciatic nerve

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35
Q

What are the five steps in a simple neural reflex

A
  1. Arrival of a stimuli
  2. Activation of sensory neuron
  3. Information processing in the CNS
  4. Activation of a motor neuron
  5. Response by a peripheral effector
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36
Q

What is a somatic reflex?

A

Reflex involving involuntary movement of skeletal muscle

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37
Q

What is a visceral reflex?

A

Reflexes involving systems other than skeletal muscle

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38
Q

What is a cranial reflex? Give an example.

A

A reflex which is processed in the brain, such as the blinking and swallowing reflexes.

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39
Q

What is reciprocal inhibition

A

When a reflex causes the flexors contract, it also causes the extensors relax, or when the extensors contract, the flexors relax, etc.

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40
Q

What is an ipsilateral reflex arc?

A

A reflex where motor output happens on the same side of the body as the stimulus was detected

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41
Q

What is a contralateral reflex arc?

A

A reflex where the motor output occurs on the opposite side of the body as the stimulus was detected

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42
Q

(Chapter 14)

What is contained in the ventricles of the brain?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

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43
Q

What are the three largest dural folds

A

Falx cerebri, tentorium cerebelli, falx cerebelli

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44
Q

What are the functions of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

A

Cushioning/Protection, supporting the brain, transport nutrients/chemicals/waste

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45
Q

What is the role of arachnoid granulation in the circulations of CSF?

A

They allow CSF to be absorbed into venous circulation

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46
Q

What is the reticular formation

A

Extends from the medulla oblongata to the midbrain and receives input from cranial nerves, cerebral cortex and the brain stem. Its output controls many autonomic functions.

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47
Q

What are the two respiratory centers contained within the reticular formation of the pons?

A

Apneustic and Pneumotaxic

48
Q

What are the two primary functions of the cerebellum

A

Adjust posture muscles and fine-tine motor movements

49
Q

What are the functions of the superior and inferior follicular of the midbrain?

A

Integrate visual (upper) and auditory (lower) information with other sensory input

50
Q

What is the major function of the substantia nigra?

A

Regulates basal nuclei activity

51
Q

What structures make up the diencephalon

A

Thalamus and Hypothalamus

52
Q

What role does the thalamus play in relaying sensory information to the primary sensory cortex?

A

It filters sensory information before sending it to the primary sensory cortex

53
Q

What two hormones are produced by the hypothalamus?

A

Antidiuretic hormone and Oxytocin

54
Q

What are the functions of the limbic system

A
  1. Establish emotional states
  2. Link conscious thought with autonomic functions
  3. Facilitate memory storage and retrieval
55
Q

What is the role of the amygdaloid body of the limbic system

A

Links emotions and memories and plays a role in some autonomic functions, including fight or flight

56
Q

What is the main function of the hippocampus

A

Important in learning, including storage and retrieval of long-term memories

57
Q

What are the main functions of the basal nuclei?

A

Subconscious control of skeletal muscle and coordination of learned movement patterns

58
Q

What are the main structures of the basal nuclei

A

Caudate nucleus, lentiform nucleus, globus pallidus, putamen

59
Q

Which areas of the brain receive the sensations from the special sense organs?

A

Each has its own area: visual cortex, gustatory cortex, etc.

60
Q

What is the function of association areas of the brain?

A

Interpret incoming sensory data and formulate a motor response

61
Q

What are integrative areas in the brain

A

Receive information from several different areas and coordinate complex motor activities, such as the speech center

62
Q

What is another name for the speech center of the brain and what is its function

A

Broca’s area. It regulates patterns of breathing and vocalizing for speech.

63
Q

What functions are chiefly processed in the left hemisphere of the cerebrum?

A

General interpretive, speech center, and language-based skills

64
Q

What functions are chiefly processed in the right hemisphere of the cerebrum?

A

Sensory information processing, including analyzing emotional context.

65
Q

(Chapter 15)

What are the general senses?

A

Temperature, pain, touch, pressure, vibration, and proprioception

66
Q

What are free nerve endings?

A

Non-specific nerves that permeate through the skin like roots and are receptive to all types of stimuli

67
Q

What are tonic receptors?

A

Receptors which are always active

68
Q

What are physic receptors?

A

Receptors which are usually NOT active. Provide feedback on intensity and rate-of-change of a stimulus

69
Q

What are exteroceptors

A

Provide feedback about the external environment

70
Q

What are proprioceptors

A

Provide feedback about the position of the body

71
Q

What are interoceptors

A

Monitor visceral organs and functions

72
Q

What are nociceptors

A

Pain receptors

73
Q

How are fast pain and slow pain sensations transmitted?

A

Fast pain: Type A myelinated fibers

Slow pain: Type C unmyelinated fibers

74
Q

How do endorphins and enkephalins reduce the level of pain that a person feels?

A

Bind to Substance P (a neurotransmitter) receptors to block pain

75
Q

What structures in the brain receive temperature sensations?

A

Reticular formation, thalamus, primary sensory cortex

76
Q

What are the three classes of mechanoreceptors

A

Tactile receptors, baroreceptors, proprioceptors

77
Q

What are the three major groups of proprioceptors

A

Muscle spindles, Golgi Tendon Organs, receptors in joint capsules

78
Q

What are first-order neurons

A

Sensory nerves that delivery sensory information to the CNS

79
Q

What are second-order neurons

A

Interneurons

80
Q

What are third-order neurons

A

Second-order neurons synapse on third-order neurons in the THALAMUS

81
Q

What are the three major somatic sensory pathways

A

Spinothalamic pathway, posterior column pathway, spinocerebellar pathway

82
Q

What types of sensations are carried by the anterior spinothalamic tract

A

Crude touch and pressure

83
Q

What types of sensations are carried by the lateral spinothalamic tract

A

Pain and temperature

84
Q

What types of sensations are carried by the posterior column pathway

A

Proprioception, fine touch, vibration, (ventral pressure)

85
Q

What types of sensations are carried by the spinocerebellar pathway

A

Proprioception input from Golgi tendon organs, muscle spindles, and joint capsule receptors

86
Q

Where can chemoreceptors be found

A

Carotid arteries, arch of the aorta, cerebrospinal fluid

87
Q

What is the corticospinal pathway

A

Pathway for nerves which provide voluntary control of spinal muscles

88
Q

Why do patients with Parkinson’s disease have problems with voluntary control of movement?

A

Excitatory neurons within the basal nuclei become more active than the inhibitory neurons (which normally release GABA)

89
Q

(Chapter 16)

What are preganglionic neurons

A

VISCERAL motor neurons in the brain stem and spinal cord (note: somatic motor neurons are classified as upper and lower)

90
Q

What are ganglionic neurons

A

Visceral motor neurons in the peripheral ganglia

91
Q

What are the characteristics of sympathetic vs parasympathetic preganglionic and ganglionic neurons

A

Parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are much longer, and the ganglionic neurons are very short. Sympathetic preganglionic neurons are shorter and synapse at sympathetic chain ganglia

92
Q

What are collateral ganglia

A

Innervate tissues and organs in the abdominopelvic cavity (part of the sympathetic division)

93
Q

What are adrenal medullae

A

When stimulated, they release their neurotransmitters into the bloodstream, which then act as hormones

94
Q

Explain the properties of Alpha 1 Receptors

A
  • Adrenergic receptors (NE, E)
  • Found in smooth muscle of peripheral blood vessels
  • Causes vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels
95
Q

Explain the properties of Alpha 2 Receptors

A
  • Adrenergic receptors (NE, E)
  • Found in neuromuscular and neuroglandular junctions of the parasympathetic division
  • Causes an inhibitory response
96
Q

Explain the properties of Beta 1 Receptors

A
  • Adrenergic (NE, E)
  • Found in skeletal muscles and cardiac muscles
  • Causes an excitatory response (increased HR and metabolism)
97
Q

Explain the properties of Beta 2 Receptors

A
  • Adrenergic (NE, E)
  • Found in smooth muscle of the bronchioles
  • Cause the bronchioles to relax
98
Q

Explain the properties of Beta 3 Receptors

A
  • Adrenergic (NE, E)
  • Found in adipose tissue
  • Causes lipolysis (breakdown of fat for use by skeletal muscles)
99
Q

What are synapses that use ACh as a neurotransmitter called?

A

Cholinergic

100
Q

What are synapses that release NE and E called

A

Adrenergic

101
Q

What is NO and what is its role in sympathetic stimulation

A

Nitric oxide. It is released where neurons innervate a large volume of blood vessels, notably skeletal muscle. It causes vasodilation for increased blood flow during sympathetic activation.

102
Q

What are the two types of ACh (cholinergic) receptors

A

Nicotinic and muscarinic

103
Q

What is dual innervation

A

Organs innervated by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions

104
Q

What is the consensual light reflex? Which division of the ANS is involved in this reflex?

A

Constriction of both pupils when a light in shone in one. Parasympathetic division.

105
Q

What is the pupillary reflex? Which division of the ANS is involved in this reflex?

A

Your pupils dilate in the dark. Sympathetic division.

106
Q

What are fact memories?

A

Specific pieces of information, such as the color of something or the smell of a perfume

107
Q

What are skill memories

A

Learned motor behaviors

108
Q

What are short-term memories

A

Similar to RAM. Short-lasting, but can be recalled instantly.

109
Q

What is memory consolidation

A

Converting short-term memories to long-term memories

110
Q

What are secondary memories

A

Long-term memories that fade over time

111
Q

What are tertiary memories

A

Long-term memories that are with you for a lifetime, such as your name.

112
Q

What is the role of the hippocampus in memory

A

Essential for memory consolidation

113
Q

What is the role of the amygdala in memory

A

Links memories to emotions

114
Q

Where are most long-term memories stored

A

In the cerebral cortex

115
Q

Where are motor memories stored

A

Premotor cortex

116
Q

Which part of the brain plays a role in arousal from sleep

A

Reticular activating system (RAS) in the reticular formation area of the brain

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