unit 4 micro Flashcards

1
Q

a bacterial species is defined as…

A

a group of cells that share the similar characteristics

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2
Q

a colony is a…

A

mass of visible cells that arose from a single cell & can be assumed to be genetically equivalent

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3
Q

colony morphology size:

A

measured in mm

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4
Q

colony morphology shape:

A

circular, irregular, rhizoid, punctiform

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5
Q

colony morphology margin:

A

entire, undulate, lobate, filamentous, serrate

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6
Q

colony morphology texture:

A

shiny/dull & rough/smooth

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7
Q

colony morphology pigmentation:

A

yellow, beige, white, off-white

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8
Q

colony morphology elevation:

A

flat, convex, umbonate, raised, pulvinate, crateriform

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9
Q

cell morphology size:

A

micrometres

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10
Q

cell morphology shape:

A

cocci, bacilli, vibrio, spirillum, spirochete

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11
Q

cocci is described as:

A

spherical or round cells

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12
Q

bacilli is described as:

A

rod-shaped cells

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13
Q

vibrio is described as:

A

bent rods

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14
Q

spirillum is described as:

A

spiral-shaped and rigid

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15
Q

spirochete is described as:

A

spiral-shaped and flexible

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16
Q

arrangement of cocci:

A

single, diplococci, tetrad, streptococci, staphylococci

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17
Q

arrangement of bacilli:

A

single, diplobacilli, streptobacilli

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18
Q

cell morphology: the presence of endospores

A

present or absent

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19
Q

cell morphology: gram-reaction

A

positive or negative

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20
Q

cell morphology: gram-reaction

A

positive or negative

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21
Q

gram-negative cells

A

outer membrane only

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22
Q

gram-positive is

A

have thicker peptidoglycan layer than negative

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23
Q

what colour does gram-positive stain? gram-negative?

A

positive: purple
negative: pink

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24
Q

a positive test result indicates:

A

that the organism is capable of that particular function

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25
a negative test result indicates
that the organism is not capable of that particular function
26
oxygen tolerance test is
growth in response to oxygen
27
obligate aerobe: use of oxygen die in presence of oxygen description
yes no growth only in areas of high oxygen levels
28
obligate anaerobe: use oxygen die in presence of oxygen description
no yes growth only in the absence of oxygen
29
facultative anaerobe use oxygen die in presence of oxygen description
yes no optimal growth in high levels of oxygen, sporadic growth elsewhere
30
aerotolerant use oxygen die in presence of oxygen description
no no sporadic growth throughout tube
31
microaerophile use oxygen die in presence of oxygen description
at low levels at high levels growth only in areas of low oxygen
32
fermentation test:
ability to ferment different carbohydrates. each carbohydrate must be tested separately as each microbe is capable of fermenting or not
33
gelatinase test:
tests the ability to secrete extracellular proteases (ability to digest proteins)
34
setup for fermentation test:
pH indicator, specific carbohydrate, microorganism
35
visual results for fermentation:
negative: red, no gas positive: yellow, no gas & yellow, with gas
36
can microbe ferment tested carbohydrate
negative: no positive: no gas - lactic acid fermentation & gas - ethanol fermentation
37
set up for gelatinase test:
microbe mixed with gelatin
38
visual results for gelatinase test:
negative: media remains solid positive: media turns liquid
39
deaminase test:
presence of deaminase enzymes (ability to digest amino acids)
40
set up for deaminase test:
pH indicator microbe animo acid
41
visual results for deaminase test
negative: red positive: magenta
42
urease test:
testing the ability to digest urea
43
set up for urease test:
pH indicator microbe urea
44
visual results of urease test:
negative: red positive: magenta
45
what are antigens?
molecules that can stimulate the immune system
46
what are antibodies
protein molecules produced by the immune system that can target and kill antigens
47
slide agglutination test:
visualized by looking for clumping when an antigen and the corresponding antibody binds
48
enzyme-linked immunoassay = ELISA
more sensitive and requires less sample than slide agglutination tests
49
used to detect antigens:
direct ELISA - patient sample can include: blood, saliva, urine - used to detect presence of a pathogen, hormone, drugs
50
step 1 in direct ELISA
add a commercially-prepared primary antibody that will bind to the wanted antigen
51
step 2 in direct ELISA
after letting the proteins bind, the wells are washed - a block agent in the wash is used to block unbound sites
52
step 3 in direct ELISA
the patient sample (contains a mixture of antigens) is added
53
step 4 in direct ELISA
if present, the wanted antigen will bind to the antibody. other antigens are removed through washing
54
step 5 in direct ELISA
an enzyme-linked secondary antibody is added, which binds to the wanted antigen, if present
55
step 6 in direct ELISA
after binding, any excess secondary antibody is removed through washing
56
step 7 in direct ELISA
an enzyme substrate is added, which reacts with the enzyme, if present (horseradish peroxidase) which turns the solution blue after reacting
57
used to detect antibodies
indirect ELISA
58
indirect ELISA sample can include? used to detect?
blood serum & detect exposure to a pathogen or vaccine efficacy
59
step 1 indirect ELISA
add commercially-prepared antigen that will bind to the wanted antibody
60
step 2 indirect ELISA
after letting the proteins bind, the wells are washed - a block agent in the wash is used to block unbound sites
61
step 3 indirect ELISA
the patient sample (contains a mixture of antibodies) is added
62
step 4 indirect ELISA
if present, the wanted antibody will bind to the antigen. other antibodies are removed through washing
63
step 5 indirect ELISA
an enzyme-linked secondary antigen is added, which binds to the wanted antibody, if present
64
step 6 indirect ELISA
after binding, any excess secondary antigen is removed through washing
65
step 7 indirect ELISA
an enzyme substrate is added, which reacts with the enzyme, if present