unit 4 micro Flashcards

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1
Q

a bacterial species is defined as…

A

a group of cells that share the similar characteristics

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2
Q

a colony is a…

A

mass of visible cells that arose from a single cell & can be assumed to be genetically equivalent

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3
Q

colony morphology size:

A

measured in mm

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4
Q

colony morphology shape:

A

circular, irregular, rhizoid, punctiform

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5
Q

colony morphology margin:

A

entire, undulate, lobate, filamentous, serrate

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6
Q

colony morphology texture:

A

shiny/dull & rough/smooth

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7
Q

colony morphology pigmentation:

A

yellow, beige, white, off-white

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8
Q

colony morphology elevation:

A

flat, convex, umbonate, raised, pulvinate, crateriform

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9
Q

cell morphology size:

A

micrometres

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10
Q

cell morphology shape:

A

cocci, bacilli, vibrio, spirillum, spirochete

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11
Q

cocci is described as:

A

spherical or round cells

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12
Q

bacilli is described as:

A

rod-shaped cells

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13
Q

vibrio is described as:

A

bent rods

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14
Q

spirillum is described as:

A

spiral-shaped and rigid

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15
Q

spirochete is described as:

A

spiral-shaped and flexible

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16
Q

arrangement of cocci:

A

single, diplococci, tetrad, streptococci, staphylococci

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17
Q

arrangement of bacilli:

A

single, diplobacilli, streptobacilli

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18
Q

cell morphology: the presence of endospores

A

present or absent

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19
Q

cell morphology: gram-reaction

A

positive or negative

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20
Q

cell morphology: gram-reaction

A

positive or negative

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21
Q

gram-negative cells

A

outer membrane only

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22
Q

gram-positive is

A

have thicker peptidoglycan layer than negative

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23
Q

what colour does gram-positive stain? gram-negative?

A

positive: purple
negative: pink

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24
Q

a positive test result indicates:

A

that the organism is capable of that particular function

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25
Q

a negative test result indicates

A

that the organism is not capable of that particular function

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26
Q

oxygen tolerance test is

A

growth in response to oxygen

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27
Q

obligate aerobe:
use of oxygen
die in presence of oxygen
description

A

yes
no
growth only in areas of high oxygen levels

28
Q

obligate anaerobe:
use oxygen
die in presence of oxygen
description

A

no
yes
growth only in the absence of oxygen

29
Q

facultative anaerobe
use oxygen
die in presence of oxygen
description

A

yes
no
optimal growth in high levels of oxygen, sporadic growth elsewhere

30
Q

aerotolerant
use oxygen
die in presence of oxygen
description

A

no
no
sporadic growth throughout tube

31
Q

microaerophile
use oxygen
die in presence of oxygen
description

A

at low levels
at high levels
growth only in areas of low oxygen

32
Q

fermentation test:

A

ability to ferment different carbohydrates. each carbohydrate must be tested separately as each microbe is capable of fermenting or not

33
Q

gelatinase test:

A

tests the ability to secrete extracellular proteases (ability to digest proteins)

34
Q

setup for fermentation test:

A

pH indicator, specific carbohydrate, microorganism

35
Q

visual results for fermentation:

A

negative: red, no gas
positive: yellow, no gas & yellow, with gas

36
Q

can microbe ferment tested carbohydrate

A

negative: no
positive: no gas - lactic acid fermentation & gas - ethanol fermentation

37
Q

set up for gelatinase test:

A

microbe mixed with gelatin

38
Q

visual results for gelatinase test:

A

negative: media remains solid
positive: media turns liquid

39
Q

deaminase test:

A

presence of deaminase enzymes (ability to digest amino acids)

40
Q

set up for deaminase test:

A

pH indicator
microbe
animo acid

41
Q

visual results for deaminase test

A

negative: red
positive: magenta

42
Q

urease test:

A

testing the ability to digest urea

43
Q

set up for urease test:

A

pH indicator
microbe
urea

44
Q

visual results of urease test:

A

negative: red
positive: magenta

45
Q

what are antigens?

A

molecules that can stimulate the immune system

46
Q

what are antibodies

A

protein molecules produced by the immune system that can target and kill antigens

47
Q

slide agglutination test:

A

visualized by looking for clumping when an antigen and the corresponding antibody binds

48
Q

enzyme-linked immunoassay = ELISA

A

more sensitive and requires less sample than slide agglutination tests

49
Q

used to detect antigens:

A

direct ELISA

  • patient sample can include: blood, saliva, urine
  • used to detect presence of a pathogen, hormone, drugs
50
Q

step 1 in direct ELISA

A

add a commercially-prepared primary antibody that will bind to the wanted antigen

51
Q

step 2 in direct ELISA

A

after letting the proteins bind, the wells are washed - a block agent in the wash is used to block unbound sites

52
Q

step 3 in direct ELISA

A

the patient sample (contains a mixture of antigens) is added

53
Q

step 4 in direct ELISA

A

if present, the wanted antigen will bind to the antibody. other antigens are removed through washing

54
Q

step 5 in direct ELISA

A

an enzyme-linked secondary antibody is added, which binds to the wanted antigen, if present

55
Q

step 6 in direct ELISA

A

after binding, any excess secondary antibody is removed through washing

56
Q

step 7 in direct ELISA

A

an enzyme substrate is added, which reacts with the enzyme, if present (horseradish peroxidase) which turns the solution blue after reacting

57
Q

used to detect antibodies

A

indirect ELISA

58
Q

indirect ELISA sample can include? used to detect?

A

blood serum & detect exposure to a pathogen or vaccine efficacy

59
Q

step 1 indirect ELISA

A

add commercially-prepared antigen that will bind to the wanted antibody

60
Q

step 2 indirect ELISA

A

after letting the proteins bind, the wells are washed - a block agent in the wash is used to block unbound sites

61
Q

step 3 indirect ELISA

A

the patient sample (contains a mixture of antibodies) is added

62
Q

step 4 indirect ELISA

A

if present, the wanted antibody will bind to the antigen. other antibodies are removed through washing

63
Q

step 5 indirect ELISA

A

an enzyme-linked secondary antigen is added, which binds to the wanted antibody, if present

64
Q

step 6 indirect ELISA

A

after binding, any excess secondary antigen is removed through washing

65
Q

step 7 indirect ELISA

A

an enzyme substrate is added, which reacts with the enzyme, if present