Unit 3 Review Flashcards

1
Q

Penicillin G

A

Natural penicillin. Must be injected
Narrow-spectrum, but still useful against most staph and strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Penicillin V

A

natural penicillin. Taken orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Methicillin

A

Semisynthetic penicillin. First penicillinase resistant antibiotic. Led to MRSA, discontinued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Oxacillin

A

Semisynthetic penicillin. Penicillinase resistant antibiotic. Replaced methicillin in clinical use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ampicillin

A

Broad-spectrum semisynthetic penicillin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Amoxicillin

A

Broad-spectrum semisynthetic penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Augmentin

A

Amoxicillin plus potassium clavulanate (a penicillinase inhibitor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Primaxin

A

Related to penicillin but classified as a carbapenem
Given as intramuscular injection
These types of antibiotics are leading to resistance, CRE organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cephalosporins

A

Similar to penicillin. Bacteria have developed beta-lactamases that destroy cephalosporins
Grouped by generations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bacitracin

A

Topical polypeptide antibiotic found in Neosporin/triple antibiotic
Effective against gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Vancomycin

A

Penicillinase resistant polypeptide antibiotic
narrow spectrum but kills MRSA
led to VRE
Enterococcus faecium a common nosocomial problem in U.S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Isoniazid

A

Antimycobacterial antibiotic. Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
Treatment time is 6 months
tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ethambutol

A

Antimycobacterial antibiotic. Less effective, but used to avoid resistance problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor
Cheap broad-spectrum
Toxicity concerns, so only used if there are no suitable alternatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Streptomycin

A

Protein synthesis inhibitors
Broad-spectrum aminoglycoside
high resistance`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Neomycin

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor
Broad-spectrum aminoglycoside
Topical agent found in Neosporin/triple antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Gentamicin

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor
Broad-spectrum aminoglycoside
Useful against pseudomonas infections. Used with Cystic Fibrosis patients for this reason

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tetracycline

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor
Broad-spectrum. Also effective against intracellular pathogens like chlamydia and rickettsia’s
can lead to superinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Erythromycin

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor
Macrolide antibiotic
Narrow-spectrum (gram +)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Polymixin B

A

Topical antibiotic found in Neosporin/triple antibiotic
Effective against gram-negative, including Pseudomonas
causes injury to the plasma membrane: Rare since it is difficult to find a way to make them selectively toxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Rifampin

A

Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis: Rare
Very important in the treatment of Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Nalidixic acid

A

inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis: Rare since it is difficult to find a way to make them selectively toxic
Synthetic quinolone useful ONLY in the treatment of urinary tract infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

A

inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis: rare
broad spectrum
kills gram +
not as toxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

A

Broad-spectrum
bacteriostatic
inhibit the conversion of PABA into folic acid, which blocks the
production of DNA and RNA
The 2 drugs act synergistically
slows down drug resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
sulfa drugs can also be used on ...
burns
26
What is the most common source of antibiotics found in nature?
streptomycin in soil
27
What does broad spectrum mean versus narrow spectrum? Why should narrow spectrum antibiotics be used whenever possible?
broad spectrum: you can kill/inhibit multiple types of microbes narrow spectrum: you can kill one or the other (gram + OR gram - bacteria) narrow spectrum should be used because theres less damage
28
What is a superinfection?
secondary infection you get after using antibiotics ex: yeast infections or C.diff
29
Why is it harder to develop antimicrobial drugs against eukaryotes like protozoa?
because we are eukaryotes and we are similar, narrow spectrum drugs usually
30
Which type of penicillin must be injected? Why?
penicillin G because it's not stable in stomach acid
31
Why is Methicillin no longer in use in America?
evolution, used too much to the point where it doesn't work anymore
32
What is the difference between Amoxicillin and Augmentin?
both semi-synthetic penicillin amoxicillin: with a penicillinase inhibitor called potassium clavulanate augmentin: stronger, inhibitor, top of the line penicillin
33
Know the 3 antibiotics in topical triple antibiotic preparations.
polymyxin B (inhibits gram - bacteria) bacitracin (kills gram +) neomycin (broad spectrum)
34
What is the primary role in the drug Ethambutol in the treatment of TB?
usually paired with isoniazid (stronger) we use ethambutol because combining the two slows evolution/resistance
35
What process do sulfa drugs block in bacteria? Why doesn’t it cause a problem in humans?
sulfa drugs inhibit production of folic acid doesn't effect us because we have to eat folic acid
36
Do antiviral drugs kill viruses?
no, it slows viral replication
37
What are some of the things that we do that speed up antimicrobial resistance?
misuse overuse abuse
38
Why are drug combinations often better than using one class of antibiotic?
slow resistance make them work better
39
What is the difference between variolation and vaccination?
Variolation: intentional infection with small amounts of small pox vaccination: induces immunity without infecting you
40
What was the 1st disease eradicated? Why? Who is next?
smallpox in 1979 a worldwide effort caused the eradication polio is next
41
Why are conjugated vaccines used? Who do they help?
they add proteins bc it increases immune response in children
42
What kind of vaccine is most effective? What needs boosters? Who benefits from conjugated vaccines?
attenuated vaccine toxoids need boosters children benefit from conjugated vaccines
43
Why are viral vaccines more important than bacterial vaccines?
because it's easier to kill off bacteria than viruses
44
Where are many viral vaccines (including influenza virus) grown?
in chick embryos they need cells to have a metabolism
45
What does the future of vaccines look like? Will we use vaccines for things that aren’t even infectious?
not needing needles, not having to be refrigerated we will use vaccines for things that aren't infectious (alzheimer's vaccine)
46
Know the difference between sensitivity and specificity
sensitivity: no false negatives specificity: no false positives
47
Why are monoclonal antibodies beneficial? What are some examples that we talked about in class?
they're beneficial because you only need 1 antibody to clone examples: humera (drugs that block conditions for autoimmune conditions), and pregnancy tests
48
What is a hybridoma?
part cancerous b cell and part antibody producing b cell
49
What have myeloma cells forgotten how to do?
die
50
What are the 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions?
type 1: igE immune reactions to allergens type 2: igG or igM cytotoxic hypersensitivity type 3: immune complex type 4: delayed cell mediated hypersensitivity reaction
51
Type I hypersensitivity reactions involve which immunoglobulin?
igE
52
What do mast cells and basophils release?
they release histamine
53
What is the difference between systemic and localized anaphylaxis?
systemic anaphylaxis: life-threatening, vasodilation localized anaphylaxis: eyes getting itchy, swollen, not dangerous
54
How do desensitizing injections work? What immunoglobulin is in them?
expose tiny amounts of antigen that leads to an igG response that stop the igE response if coming into contact with allergen
55
The primary chemical mediator of Type I reactions is________?
igE antibodies mast and basophils releasing histamine
56
What is the medication given to some women to avoid hemolytic disease of the newborn? How do they determine who needs the injections?
RhoGAM any mom with a negative blood type is given this injection
57
What is the primary cause of autoimmune diseases? A lack of ______________
tolerance
58
Know the key features about AIDS that we highlighted, including why it is called a retrovirus, the stats about HIV infections and deaths, vaccine difficulties, etc
retrovirus: RNA virus that uses enzyme reverse transcriptase to become DNA the stats: globally 1 million infections a year, in us 40k infections a year vaccine: body has hard time with retrovirus
59
When was AIDS discovered? Has it been around longer than that?
1981 was discovered 1983 when they discovered it was AIDS but it came in 1908 from animal meat
60
Know the receptor that the HIV virus is looking for, as well as the most common coreceptor
receptor is cd4 coreceptor is ccr5
61
What is reverse transcriptase?
enzyme that reverses transcription
62
What are the phases of HIV infection?
phase 1: no symptoms phase 2: sick more often phase 3: when HIV becomes AIDS
63
When does HIV infection become AIDS?
stage 3 when cd4 t cell count is at 200
64
Why are some people “immune” to AIDS?
1-3% of ppl are ccr5 mutants, which is the HIV virus' coreceptor
65
What are the drugs that slow the progression of HIV trying to accomplish? Why do we use a cocktail of multiple drugs?
they are trying to slow down the virus this cocktail of drugs is more effective
66
Define eutrophication? What is the rate-limiting nutrient associated with eutrophication?
eutrophication: overgrowth of microorganisms because you fed them nutrients phosphorus is the rate-limiting nutrient
67
The use of microbes to detoxify or degrade pollutants is called ___________?
bioremediation microbes for oil spills
68
When determining if water is safe the most important things to look for would be caused by contamination with ____________
When determining if water is safe the most important things to look for would be caused by contamination with ____________
69
Understand the basics of the water treatment process? What are the major steps?
series of filtrations water supply gets screened --> water in mixing tank --> flocculation basin --> actual filter --> disinfection (with chlorine) --> store then drink
70
What kind of treatment is needed before sewage water is drinkable?
tertiary treatment
71
Is commercial sterilization a sterilizing tool?
Is commercial sterilization
72
What are the major steps in commercial sterilization?
sterilize container, soften foods before food in can, use heat to kill microbes, then seal can
73
What microbe is commercial sterilization aimed at killing?
all clostridium botulinum uses 12D treatment
74
What does 12D treatment mean?
12 decimal treatment effective enough that it can kill 12 decimals full of microbes
75
What is a term that can be used on labels when talking about irradiated food?
electronic pasteurization
76
What would be an advantage of using high pressure to “disinfect” food?
preserves color and flavour in a way that heat can't
77
What is rennin? How does it pertain to cheese production
rennin - enzyme that curds milk, needed to make cheese
78
attenuated whole-agent
weaked, still alive not pathogenic most effective immunocompromised can't take it
79
inactivated whole-agent
killed organism, less effective series of doses safer
80
toxoid
vaccines against toxins needs a BOOSTER (every 10 years)
81
subunit
exposed to part of an organism covid vaccines
82
conjugated vaccines
children take these because they have protein added to them
83
how are monoclonal antibodies produced
take antibody and expose it to mouse --> get antigen from mouse, get spleen cells from mouse and mix them with myeloma cells --> hybrid oma (part cancer part antibody producing) --> immortal antibodies
84
Know the basic of blood typing immunology, including the 4 ABO blood types and the antigens and antibodies of each blood type
ABO blood type is determined by the antigens you have on the surface of your RBC A: a antigens & anti-b antibodies B: b antigens & anti-a antibodies AB: both & neither antibody --> UNIVERSAL RECIPIENT (AB+) O: neither & both antibodies --> UNIVERSAL DONOR
85
the Rh blood typing system, and hemolytic disease of the newborn
Rh system: + blood means you have the Rh antigen, - blood means you don't hemolytic disease is babies with Rh - blood with anti-Rh antibodies after exposure (2nd pregnancy)