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Microbiology > Unit 3 Review > Flashcards

Unit 3 Review Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Penicillin G

A

Natural penicillin. Must be injected
Narrow-spectrum, but still useful against most staph and strep

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2
Q

Penicillin V

A

natural penicillin. Taken orally

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3
Q

Methicillin

A

Semisynthetic penicillin. First penicillinase resistant antibiotic. Led to MRSA, discontinued

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4
Q

Oxacillin

A

Semisynthetic penicillin. Penicillinase resistant antibiotic. Replaced methicillin in clinical use

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5
Q

Ampicillin

A

Broad-spectrum semisynthetic penicillin.

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6
Q

Amoxicillin

A

Broad-spectrum semisynthetic penicillin

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7
Q

Augmentin

A

Amoxicillin plus potassium clavulanate (a penicillinase inhibitor)

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8
Q

Primaxin

A

Related to penicillin but classified as a carbapenem
Given as intramuscular injection
These types of antibiotics are leading to resistance, CRE organisms

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9
Q

Cephalosporins

A

Similar to penicillin. Bacteria have developed beta-lactamases that destroy cephalosporins
Grouped by generations

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10
Q

Bacitracin

A

Topical polypeptide antibiotic found in Neosporin/triple antibiotic
Effective against gram positive

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11
Q

Vancomycin

A

Penicillinase resistant polypeptide antibiotic
narrow spectrum but kills MRSA
led to VRE
Enterococcus faecium a common nosocomial problem in U.S

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12
Q

Isoniazid

A

Antimycobacterial antibiotic. Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
Treatment time is 6 months
tuberculosis

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13
Q

Ethambutol

A

Antimycobacterial antibiotic. Less effective, but used to avoid resistance problems.

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14
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor
Cheap broad-spectrum
Toxicity concerns, so only used if there are no suitable alternatives

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15
Q

Streptomycin

A

Protein synthesis inhibitors
Broad-spectrum aminoglycoside
high resistance`

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16
Q

Neomycin

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor
Broad-spectrum aminoglycoside
Topical agent found in Neosporin/triple antibiotic

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17
Q

Gentamicin

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor
Broad-spectrum aminoglycoside
Useful against pseudomonas infections. Used with Cystic Fibrosis patients for this reason

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18
Q

Tetracycline

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor
Broad-spectrum. Also effective against intracellular pathogens like chlamydia and rickettsia’s
can lead to superinfection

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19
Q

Erythromycin

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor
Macrolide antibiotic
Narrow-spectrum (gram +)

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20
Q

Polymixin B

A

Topical antibiotic found in Neosporin/triple antibiotic
Effective against gram-negative, including Pseudomonas
causes injury to the plasma membrane: Rare since it is difficult to find a way to make them selectively toxic

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21
Q

Rifampin

A

Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis: Rare
Very important in the treatment of Tuberculosis

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22
Q

Nalidixic acid

A

inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis: Rare since it is difficult to find a way to make them selectively toxic
Synthetic quinolone useful ONLY in the treatment of urinary tract infections

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23
Q

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

A

inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis: rare
broad spectrum
kills gram +
not as toxic

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24
Q

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

A

Broad-spectrum
bacteriostatic
inhibit the conversion of PABA into folic acid, which blocks the
production of DNA and RNA
The 2 drugs act synergistically
slows down drug resistance

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25
Q

sulfa drugs can also be used on …

A

burns

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26
Q

What is the most common source of antibiotics found in nature?

A

streptomycin in soil

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27
Q

What does broad spectrum mean versus narrow spectrum? Why should narrow spectrum antibiotics be used whenever possible?

A

broad spectrum: you can kill/inhibit multiple types of microbes
narrow spectrum: you can kill one or the other (gram + OR gram - bacteria)
narrow spectrum should be used because theres less damage

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28
Q

What is a superinfection?

A

secondary infection you get after using antibiotics
ex: yeast infections or C.diff

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29
Q

Why is it harder to develop antimicrobial drugs against
eukaryotes like protozoa?

A

because we are eukaryotes and we are similar, narrow spectrum drugs usually

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30
Q

Which type of penicillin must be injected? Why?

A

penicillin G because it’s not stable in stomach acid

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31
Q

Why is Methicillin no longer in use in America?

A

evolution, used too much to the point where it doesn’t work anymore

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32
Q

What is the difference between Amoxicillin and Augmentin?

A

both semi-synthetic penicillin
amoxicillin: with a penicillinase inhibitor called potassium clavulanate
augmentin: stronger, inhibitor, top of the line penicillin

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33
Q

Know the 3 antibiotics in topical triple antibiotic preparations.

A

polymyxin B (inhibits gram - bacteria)
bacitracin (kills gram +)
neomycin (broad spectrum)

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34
Q

What is the primary role in the drug Ethambutol in the treatment of TB?

A

usually paired with isoniazid (stronger)
we use ethambutol because combining the two slows evolution/resistance

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35
Q

What process do sulfa drugs block in bacteria? Why doesn’t it cause a problem in humans?

A

sulfa drugs inhibit production of folic acid
doesn’t effect us because we have to eat folic acid

36
Q

Do antiviral drugs kill viruses?

A

no, it slows viral replication

37
Q

What are some of the things that we do that speed up antimicrobial resistance?

A

misuse
overuse
abuse

38
Q

Why are drug combinations often better than using one class of antibiotic?

A

slow resistance
make them work better

39
Q

What is the difference between variolation and vaccination?

A

Variolation: intentional infection with small amounts of small pox
vaccination: induces immunity without infecting you

40
Q

What was the 1st disease eradicated? Why? Who is next?

A

smallpox in 1979
a worldwide effort caused the eradication
polio is next

41
Q

Why are conjugated vaccines used? Who do they help?

A

they add proteins bc it increases immune response in children

42
Q

What kind of vaccine is most effective? What needs boosters? Who benefits from conjugated vaccines?

A

attenuated vaccine
toxoids need boosters
children benefit from conjugated vaccines

43
Q

Why are viral vaccines more important than bacterial
vaccines?

A

because it’s easier to kill off bacteria than viruses

44
Q

Where are many viral vaccines (including influenza virus)
grown?

A

in chick embryos
they need cells to have a metabolism

45
Q

What does the future of vaccines look like? Will we use vaccines for things that aren’t even infectious?

A

not needing needles, not having to be refrigerated
we will use vaccines for things that aren’t infectious (alzheimer’s vaccine)

46
Q

Know the difference between sensitivity and specificity

A

sensitivity: no false negatives
specificity: no false positives

47
Q

Why are monoclonal antibodies beneficial? What are some examples that we talked about in class?

A

they’re beneficial because you only need 1 antibody to clone
examples: humera (drugs that block conditions for autoimmune conditions), and pregnancy tests

48
Q

What is a hybridoma?

A

part cancerous b cell and part antibody producing b cell

49
Q

What have myeloma cells forgotten how to do?

A

die

50
Q

What are the 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions?

A

type 1: igE immune reactions to allergens
type 2: igG or igM cytotoxic hypersensitivity
type 3: immune complex
type 4: delayed cell mediated hypersensitivity reaction

51
Q

Type I hypersensitivity reactions involve which immunoglobulin?

A

igE

52
Q

What do mast cells and basophils release?

A

they release histamine

53
Q

What is the difference between systemic and localized
anaphylaxis?

A

systemic anaphylaxis: life-threatening, vasodilation
localized anaphylaxis: eyes getting itchy, swollen, not dangerous

54
Q

How do desensitizing injections work? What immunoglobulin is in them?

A

expose tiny amounts of antigen that leads to an igG response that stop the igE response if coming into contact with allergen

55
Q

The primary chemical mediator of Type I reactions is________?

A

igE antibodies
mast and basophils releasing histamine

56
Q

What is the medication given to some women to avoid
hemolytic disease of the newborn? How do they
determine who needs the injections?

A

RhoGAM
any mom with a negative blood type is given this injection

57
Q

What is the primary cause of autoimmune diseases? A
lack of ______________

A

tolerance

58
Q

Know the key features about AIDS that we highlighted, including why it is called a retrovirus, the stats about HIV infections and deaths, vaccine difficulties, etc

A

retrovirus: RNA virus that uses enzyme reverse transcriptase to become DNA
the stats: globally 1 million infections a year, in us 40k infections a year
vaccine: body has hard time with retrovirus

59
Q

When was AIDS discovered? Has it been around longer than that?

A

1981 was discovered
1983 when they discovered it was AIDS
but it came in 1908 from animal meat

60
Q

Know the receptor that the HIV virus is looking for, as well as the most common coreceptor

A

receptor is cd4
coreceptor is ccr5

61
Q

What is reverse transcriptase?

A

enzyme that reverses transcription

62
Q

What are the phases of HIV infection?

A

phase 1: no symptoms
phase 2: sick more often
phase 3: when HIV becomes AIDS

63
Q

When does HIV infection become AIDS?

A

stage 3 when cd4 t cell count is at 200

64
Q

Why are some people “immune” to AIDS?

A

1-3% of ppl are ccr5 mutants, which is the HIV virus’ coreceptor

65
Q

What are the drugs that slow the progression of HIV trying
to accomplish? Why do we use a cocktail of multiple drugs?

A

they are trying to slow down the virus
this cocktail of drugs is more effective

66
Q

Define eutrophication? What is the rate-limiting nutrient associated with eutrophication?

A

eutrophication: overgrowth of microorganisms because you fed them nutrients
phosphorus is the rate-limiting nutrient

67
Q

The use of microbes to detoxify or degrade pollutants is
called ___________?

A

bioremediation
microbes for oil spills

68
Q

When determining if water is safe the most important things to look for would be caused by contamination with
____________

A

When determining if water is safe the most important things to look for would be caused by contamination with
____________

69
Q

Understand the basics of the water treatment process? What are the major steps?

A

series of filtrations
water supply gets screened –> water in mixing tank –> flocculation basin –> actual filter –> disinfection (with chlorine) –> store then drink

70
Q

What kind of treatment is needed before sewage water is drinkable?

A

tertiary treatment

71
Q

Is commercial sterilization a sterilizing tool?

A

Is commercial sterilization

72
Q

What are the major steps in commercial sterilization?

A

sterilize container, soften foods before food in can, use heat to kill microbes, then seal can

73
Q

What microbe is commercial sterilization aimed at killing?

A

all clostridium botulinum
uses 12D treatment

74
Q

What does 12D treatment mean?

A

12 decimal
treatment effective enough that it can kill 12 decimals full of microbes

75
Q

What is a term that can be used on labels when talking about irradiated food?

A

electronic pasteurization

76
Q

What would be an advantage of using high pressure to
“disinfect” food?

A

preserves color and flavour in a way that heat can’t

77
Q

What is rennin? How does it pertain to cheese production

A

rennin - enzyme that curds milk, needed to make cheese

78
Q

attenuated whole-agent

A

weaked, still alive
not pathogenic
most effective
immunocompromised can’t take it

79
Q

inactivated whole-agent

A

killed organism, less effective
series of doses
safer

80
Q

toxoid

A

vaccines against toxins
needs a BOOSTER (every 10 years)

81
Q

subunit

A

exposed to part of an organism
covid vaccines

82
Q

conjugated vaccines

A

children take these because they have protein added to them

83
Q

how are monoclonal antibodies produced

A

take antibody and expose it to mouse –> get antigen from mouse, get spleen cells from mouse and mix them with myeloma cells –> hybrid oma (part cancer part antibody producing) –> immortal antibodies

84
Q

Know the basic of blood typing immunology, including the
4 ABO blood types and the antigens and antibodies of each blood type

A

ABO blood type is determined by the antigens you have on the surface of your RBC
A: a antigens & anti-b antibodies
B: b antigens & anti-a antibodies
AB: both & neither antibody –> UNIVERSAL RECIPIENT (AB+)
O: neither & both antibodies –> UNIVERSAL DONOR

85
Q

the Rh blood typing system, and hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Rh system: + blood means you have the Rh antigen, - blood means you don’t
hemolytic disease is babies with Rh - blood with anti-Rh antibodies after exposure (2nd pregnancy)

Microbiology (8 decks)

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