Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Carolus Linnaeus

A

developed the scientific naming method “Binomial Nomenclature”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Robert Hooke

A

created compound microscope
father of cell theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Antony Van Leeuwenhoek

A

created the first microscope able to visualize microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ignaz Semmelweis

A

proved handwashing was a good idea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Louis Pasteur

A

used an s-shaped flask to disprove the SG theory and was the one that was credited as the one to prove the biogenesis theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Robert Koch

A

proved bacillus anthracis caused Anthrax
developed aseptic lab techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Edward Jenner

A

discovered that exposure to cowpox protects against smallpox
created first vaccine (smallpox)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Alexander Fleming

A

who discovered penicillin?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

why is this class important?

A

learning how to control microbial growth, keeping food spoilage at a minimum, and how microbes are good for us

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the rules for genus species naming

A

genus (first word)

species (second word)

has to be italicized or underlined

first word has to be capitalized

you can abbreviate after naming once

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Are viruses alive? Why or why not?

A

no they are not alive.

viruses are not alive because they’re not made of cells, they don’t have a metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what experiment did pasteur performed to disprove spontaneous generation.

A

made an s-shaped flask in order to let air in to prove that it wasn’t the air causing microbial growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

antibiotics

A

a compound produced of one living thing (microbes) to block the growth of other microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What drug was the first “magic bullet” that was used to kill a pathogen without killing the host? How many attempts did it take to create it?

A

salvarsan - arsenic based compound to treat syphilis

took 606 attempts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What year did Fleming discover penicillin? In what year was it mass produced and put into use?

A

discovered in 1928

1944 is when is was mass produced at put to use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

recombinant DNA

A

when you take DNA from more than 1 source and put it together

ex: genetically modifying bacteria to produce products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

bioremediation

A

using microbes to help clean up the environment

ex: microbes that can help with oil spills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

biotechnology

A

use of microbes to improve human life

ex: yogurt, beer, cheese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the PRIMARY way that our normal microbiota protects us? What are some other reasons that we appear to need it?

A

competitive exclusion - good microbes take up space so they protect you

they also produce vitamins, control the growth of other microbes using antimicrobial compounds, lowers the pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a biofilm? Why are they a problem for us? How do they help microbes survive (2 or 3 different ways)?

A

a capsule or “blanket” that covers an entire community of microbes is biofilm

they’re a problem for us because it keeps them safe from antibiotics or immune system, its hard to get rid of them all (which you have to do)

they help the microbes by sharing nutrients, DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the term compound in compound light microscope mean?

A

compound means multiple lenses, doesn’t include objective lenses, means (eye pieces + objective lenses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

scanning power objective magnification (small one)

A

4x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The ocular lens has a magnification of

A

10x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

low power objective magnification

A

10x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

high dry power objective magnification

A

40x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

oil immersion objective magnification

A

100x (total 1000x)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Do shorter or longer wavelengths provide better resolution?

A

shorter wavelengths (why electron microscopes provide better resolution than light microscopes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Why is oil needed while using the oil immersion lens?

A

the oil has the same refractive index as glass which keeps light from bending or refracting too much

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

3 key features about the transmission electron microscope

A

sees internal structures

magnification of 100,000x

resolution of 50 picometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A capsule stain is an example of a negative stain. What does that mean?

A

staining the background in order to visualize a structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

3 key features about the scanning electron microscope

A

sees surfaces in 3d

magnification of 10,000x

resolution of 10 nanometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 4 steps in the gram stain? What does the gram stain tell us about gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls?

A

1) crystal violet stain (primary stain)

2) iodine (mordant). crystal violet and iodine become a complex and attach onto structures

3) decolorizer (alcohol). gram + cells remain purple. gram - cells become colorless

4) counterstain (safrin). stains everything red. gram + cells are still purple. gram - cells are red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the key genus of organism that we are looking to identify with the acid-fast stain?

A

mycobacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What 2 types of organisms produce spores that can be identified with a spore stain?

A

clostridium and bacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

resolution

A

the ability of the lenses to distinguish two points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

the _______ the wavelength the ________ the resolution

A

shorter, greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

reflection

A

when light strikes a surface and bounces off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

why do we use immersion oil?

A

to get better resolution, without it light rays are going to bend and refract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

immersion oil has the same refractive index as

A

glass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

electron microscopes have no…

A

lenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are the 2 different electron microscopes

A

scanning and transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the KEY difference (of several) between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A

eukaryotes have a nucleus

prokaryotes do not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How many chromosomes do bacteria have? What is the shape?

A

1 chromosome thats a circle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How much smaller are bacteria than the average eukaryotic cell?

A

30-50 times smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

strepto

A

chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

staphylo

A

clusters of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a neatly organized glycocalyx called? Why does it increase virulence?

A

glycocalyx is a sticky sugar coating

neatly organized is called a capsule

increases virulence because the capsule evades phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Who has the more complex flagella motor, bacteria or human sperm?

A

bacteria because it uses a rotary motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What type of bacteria have axial filaments?

A

spirochetes (cork-screw shaped)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the function of fimbriae? Pili (sex pilus)?

A

fimbriae is used for attachment

pili are used for transferring DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What cell structure used for movement do bacteria NOT have?

A

cillia, they rely on flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the key feature of a gram-positive cell wall? How about a gram-negative cell wall?

A

gram + cell walls have a THICK peptidoglycan cell wall

gram - cell walls have a thin peptidoglycan cell wall but have a lipid outer membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What makes the cell wall of Mycobacterium different than most bacteria?

A

it has a waxy material in their cell walls called “mycolic acid”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What key ingredient is missing in bacterial plasma membranes which is the primary reason that almost all of them need a cell wall to keep from bursting?

A

cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the shape of a bacterial ribosome (in svedburgunits)? How does that differ than most human ribosomes?

A

bacteria are 70S ribosomes
a
humans are 80S ribosomes (we do have 70S ribosomes in the mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

explain how bacterial endospores work

A

living organisms but “paused”

survive in hostile environments

bacillus and clostridium species can form spores

waits for environment to improve before coming back alive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

why are spores protected

A

dehydrated

hibernate for thousands of years

covered with a thick coat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what are the 2 different types of phospholipid bilayers?

A

hydrophilic –> water loving head

hydrophobic –> water fearing tails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

bacterial cell membranes are lacking what…

A

cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

cytoplasm

A

the “guts” of a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

plasma membrane

A

the bouncer of a cell

what we need goes, what we dont need leaves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

nucleous

A

where ribosomal RNA is produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

nucleus

A

houses and protects DNA and continues protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

nuclear pore

A

openings in the nucleus so RNA can leave & fine ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER)

A

is covered in ribosomes

modifies and packs proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

smooth ER

A

not covered in ribosomes

makes lipids, carbs, and inactivates toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

cillia

A

moves cells or moves material across the structure of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

microvilli

A

increase surface area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Golgi apparatus

A

primarily modifies and tags products that will be shipped out to a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

peroxisomes

A

break down fat and other organic compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

lysosome

A

digestive system of the cell

breaks down bacteria, damaged organelles, food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

microtubules and microfilaments

A

key to the cytoskeleton

filament is a solid structure

tubules is hollow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

mitochondria

A

Powerhouse of the cell

where 95% of ATP comes from

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

ribosomes

A

site of protein synthesis

bacteria has 70S

humans have 80S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

free ribosomes

A

make proteins for the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

fixed ribosomes

A

make proteins that leave the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

centrioles

A

needed for mitosis and cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

flagella

A

used for movement

like not bacteria’s rotary movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

metabolism

A

the sum of all chemical and physical processes that occur in an organism

catabolism + anabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Anabolism

A

any part of your metabolism that requires energy and leads to growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

catabolism

A

taking large things and breaking them down, releases energy

ex: digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

In what form is much of our energy lost?

A

heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Remember the 2 key differences between respiration and fermentation

A

respiration (what humans do): lots of energy produced but useless low energy waste products

fermentation: only a little bit of energy produced but useful high energy waste products (ex: milk –> yogurt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Of the 4 nutritional types of all living things, what is the most important one for us to understand?

A

chemoheterotrophs (what humans are & what most bacteria are): get energy from chemicals, other feeders meaning that they consume other things

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

the 2 key electron carriers are…

A

NAD (worth 3 ATPs as NADH)

FADH(worth 2 ATP as FADH2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

glycolysis steps

A

1) 1 glucose becomes 2 pyruvate

2) net gain of 2 ATP (spend 2 to make 4)

3) 2 NADH produced (worth 3 ATP each)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

intermediate steps

A

1) 2 pyruvate becomes 2 Acetyl coA

2) 0 ATP produced

3) 2 NADH produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

krebs cycle steps

A

1) 2 Acetyl coA complete the cycle

2) 2 ATP produced

3) 6 NADH produced

2 FADH produced (each worth 2 ATP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what is the running total of ATP after all the steps to cellular respiration

A

36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

mesophile

A

moderate temperature loving microbes

optimal growth temp is 37 C (98.6 F)

almost all human pathogens are mesophiles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Psychrotroph

A

organisms that like room temp or refrigerator temp

food spoilage organisms or foodborne illnesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

obligate aerobic bacteria

A

gather at the top of the test tube in order to absorb maximal amount of oxygen because they require oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Obligate anaerobic bacteria

A

gather at the bottom to avoid oxygen, can not survive in the presence of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

facultative anaerobes

A

grow best with oxygen (at top), but can grow without oxygen (bottom)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

aerotolerant anaerobes

A

does not need oxygen but is tolerant of oxygen

is spread all around

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

microaerofiles

A

loves a little bit of oxygen

can not grow at the top, cant grow at the top, but closer to the middle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

biofilm

A

protective coating around an entire community

how organisms attach to surfaces

when an organism has biofilm it’s 1000x harder to kill

immune system has a hard time getting to them

HAS to get 100% of the organism

organisms get healthier while under a biofilm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is agar? Why is it important in the lab?

A

agar is a thickening agent

important in a lab because it allows for a growth surface

is NOT food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is a bacterial colony?

A

all organisms produced from a single ancestor

visible colonies will have millions of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is binary fission analogous to in humans?

A

mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

steps to bacterial growth curve

A

1) lag phase: preparing to divide, no increase in cells

2) log phase: exponential or logarithmic increase in cells. easiest time to kill them

3) stationary phase: birth = death, as many cells are dying as those being born

4) death phase: logarithmic decrease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

turbidity

A

how cloudy or clear something is

a way to know microbial growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What temperature range is the “danger zone” for food spoilage?

A

40-140 F

when microbes are growing and producing toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are the key tips to keep leftover food safe?

A

properly freezing and thawing (in refrigerator)

cooking food at appropriate temp

store food in small containers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What does a hypertonic environment do to a bacteria? How do we take advantage of this?

A

hypertonic environment: when there’s more solutes outside of a cell then there is inside

sucks water out of bacteria(plasmolysis)

we take advantage of this by using canned goods, salt or sugar sucks water out of bacteria, not killing them but shutting off their metabolism so they cant divide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are the 4 Biosafety levels?

A

BSL-1: almost everything we work w/ in lab. minimal risk. nonpathogenic strains

BSL-2: should use gloves, moderate risk

BSL-3: organisms that can kill you, but there’s vaccines and things to cure or prevent them

BSL-4: organisms with no treatments, no vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

generation time

A

how long it takes a bacteria to divide into two

fast organisms are 20 minutes, sometimes lower

the shorter the time, the more organisms that are there

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Compare disinfection and antisepsis

A

disinfection: used on surfaces

antisepsis: on living tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Is commercial sterilization an actual form of sterilization? What is it designed to destroy?

A

commercial sterilization is not a form of sterilization

it is designed to destroy c diff in canned goods

110
Q

Does a bacteriostatic agent kill microbes?

A

no, it inhibits their growth

111
Q

Remember that there are many factors that influence the effectiveness of disinfection. The key factor is the presence or absence of _____________________

A

organic matter (fecal material, spit, blood)

112
Q

How does moist heat kill microbes? What is the time, pressure, and temperature in our autoclave? What is the key thing to remember when using an autoclave?

A

moist heat denatures proteins

in our autoclave, for 15 mins 15 psi at 121 C

when using an autoclave, its important to remember it only works when it comes into direct contact with the organism

113
Q

How does dry heat sterilization (like flaming a loop) kill microbes?

A

oxidizes, peels electrons off

114
Q

What does HEPA stand for?

A

high efficiency particulate air filter

115
Q

What are good examples of items that you would use filtration to sterilize?

A

use filtration anytime you can’t heat something up (vaccines)

116
Q

What are the 2 key differences between phenol and phenolics? Hint: The 3rd thing is that phenolics don’t smell as bad. What is the best example of a phenolic? In what environment does a phenolic work where most disinfectants will not?

A

phenolics are used now because they’re more effective, less toxic, and less irritating

example of a phenolic is o phenylphenol (lysol)

phenolics work in the presence of organic matter

117
Q

What is in most antibacterial soaps?

A

Triclosan

118
Q

Where would you find the very effective antiseptic chlorhexidine?

A

surgical hand scrubs, mouthwashes, shampoos

119
Q

What does the chlorine in bleach become before it is an effective oxidizing agent?

A

hypochlorous acid

120
Q

Is it generally easier to kill a virus with or without a lipid envelope? Gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria?

A

without the lipid envelope would be easier to kill

gram negative bacteria are stronger than gram positive bacteria

121
Q

Which antimicrobial did we talk about that is more effective at killing Mycobacterium than most?

A

phenolics

122
Q

Define a gene

A

sequence of DNA that codes for a functional product (most of the time a protein)

123
Q

difference between genotype and phenotype

A

genotype is your genetic makeup

phenotype are genes that are being used (observable traits)

124
Q

DNA complimentary base pairs

A

A - T

G - C

125
Q

what direction is dna read in

A

5’ to 3’

126
Q

steps of DNA replication.

A

unwind DNA so DNA polymerase can read it, builds continuously or not continuously

127
Q

How is the lagging strand different than the leading strand

A

leading strand is synthesized continuously

lagging strand runs the wrong direction and has to be looped around, has more steps than leading strand

128
Q

DNA polymerase

A

DNA replication, reads and builds DNA

129
Q

RNA polymerase

A

Transcription, reads DNA and builds RNA

130
Q

Define transcription

A

conversion of DNA to mRNA

131
Q

translation

A

mRNA to protein

132
Q

What is removed from eukaryotic RNA before it leaves the nucleus

A

introns

133
Q

3 letter sequences for the 1 start codon

A

AUG

134
Q

3 stop/nonsense codons

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

135
Q

What is degeneracy?

A

When two codes code for the same amino acid, can tolerate mutation without any problems

136
Q

what is the most common type of genetic mutation?

A

base - substitution or point mutation

137
Q

What is usually the most damaging type of genetic mutation?

A

frame shift mutation

138
Q

what is the main way DNA is recombined in transformation

A

DNA is transferred and recombined as naked DNA in solutions

139
Q

what is the main way DNA is recombined in conjugation

A

DNA is transferred and recombined through a pilus on a plasmid

140
Q

what is the main way DNA is recombined in transduction

A

DNA is transferred and recombined using a phage or bacteriophage

141
Q

Define a plasmid

A

non-chromosomal or extra chromosomal genetic material

can self-replicate

142
Q

phage

A

virus that infects bacteria

143
Q

What is the key feature of genetic vectors like plasmids and phages?

A

they are self-replicating

144
Q

Do we make restriction enzymes or find them?

A

we find them

145
Q

Why is the PCR so important to the study of genetics? What are the basics of the PCR process?

A

PCR is polymerase chain reaction

this allows us to amplify DNA

uses rapid temp change & chemicals to rip it apart and build new

146
Q

Are gene guns used with plant or animal cells (usually)? How about microinjection?

A

gene guns are used with plant or animal cells

microinjections are used with animal cells

147
Q

What is cDNA?

A

complementary DNA

148
Q

What are the 2 key examples of biotechnology that we talked about in class?

A

human insulin

human growth hormone

149
Q

What is the difference between infection and disease?

A

infection is when you’ve been colonized by a pathogen

disease is a disruption of homeostasis

150
Q

Are transient microbiota important?

A

they are important

can lead to immune or neurological responses

151
Q

Does Dr. O believe that our relationship with our microbiota is primarily an example of commensalism or mutualism? Why?

A

it is an example of mutualism because both sides win

152
Q

What are the 2 factors that increase the risk of infections by opportunistic pathogens?

A

compromised host

wrong location

153
Q

Define probiotics

A

living organisms to enhance health

154
Q

prebiotics

A

fiber to feed organisms already in your body

155
Q

What are Koch’s postulates? What are they used for? Why can’t they be used to find the causative agents for all infectious diseases?

A

they are a way to find the causative agents of a disease

they can’t be used all the time because you might not be able to isolate the organism, you can’t use it if an organism causes multiple diseases, and if one disease is caused by multiple organisms

156
Q

Define signs

A

things that can be measured

157
Q

symptoms

A

subjective things you have to say something about

158
Q

communicable

A

can be spread from one to another

159
Q

contagious

A

EASILY spread from one to another

160
Q

noncommunicable

A

not spread from one to another

161
Q

incidence

A

number of people that get a disease during a given time period

162
Q

prevalence

A

how many people have the disease (old cases + new cases)

163
Q

When do we reach herd immunity?

A

70% - depends on how contagious disease

164
Q

What is a secondary infection? What is the best example?

A

they are the second infection you get after already getting sick

an example of the flu leading to pneumonia

165
Q

the key predisposing factors that increase infectious disease risk

A

anatomical

malnutrition

seasonality (flu season, cold weather)

fatigue

166
Q

the 5 stages of disease. During what stages can you spread a disease?

A

incubation period, prodromal period, period of illness, period of decline, convalescence

can spread disease during all 5 stages

167
Q

the basic differences between contact, vehicle, and vector spread of disease

A

contact spread is when you come into direct contact

vehicle spread are substances like food or water

vector spread is living things carrying diseases

168
Q

What is a fomite?

A

inanimate object that spreads disease

169
Q

Know the 3 types of contact transmission

A

direct: contact with someone with a disease
indirect: fomites carrying diseases
droplets: someone sneezing and getting their droplets on you

170
Q

What percent of hospital patients acquire nosocomial infections? Why?

A

5-15%

compromised hosts, strong microbes, and chain of transmission

171
Q

What is virulence? What are some factors that can increase virulence?

A

virulence is how dangerous an organism can be

things that increase virulence are gram negative envelopes around bacteria and capsules

172
Q

What is the most common nosocomial infection? What nosocomial infection has the highest mortality rate?

A

the most common are infections from catheters (UTIs)

most deadly are pneumonia

173
Q

What is the most common portal of entry?

A

mucus membranes of respiratory tract

174
Q

What is the parenteral route?

A

anytime you bypass one of your body’s defenses (bite, surgical wound, needles)

175
Q

What are the 3 adherence factors that you are supposed to remember?

A

fimbriae

capsule (neatly organised)

bio-films

176
Q

How do capsules increase virulence?

A

they evade phagocytosis

177
Q

What is antigenic variation? What organism is the best example that we talked about?

A

some organisms can change what they look like on the outside

an example would be the flu

178
Q

What mineral does a siderophore attach to?

A

iron

179
Q

What is a toxoid? An antitoxin?

A

toxoid - vaccine against toxins (tetanus shot)

antitoxin - antibody therapy to neutralize toxins

180
Q

What are the key portals of exit?

A

exits are the same as entry

respiratory and gastrointestinal

181
Q

Know the ley differences between endotoxins and exotoxins. (gram-positive versus gram-negative, fever or no fever, high or low lethal dose, etc)

A

endotoxins - produced by gram negatives, FEVER, LD50 is higher, more common

exotoxins - produced by gram positives, LD50 is lower, more toxic

182
Q

helicase

A

unwinds DNA

183
Q

DNA ligase

A

only needed on lagging strand

seals gaps after fragments of DNA are built

184
Q

Penicillin G

A

natural penicillin, injected
NARROW SPECTRUM

185
Q

Penicillin V

A

natural penicillin. Taken orally

186
Q

Methicillin

A

Semisynthetic penicillin.
led to MRSA
discontinued

187
Q

Oxacillin

A

Semisynthetic penicillin
Replaced methicillin

188
Q

Ampicillin

A

Broad-spectrum semisynthetic penicillin.

189
Q

Amoxicillin

A

Broad-spectrum semisynthetic penicillin

190
Q

Augmentin

A

top of the line penicillin

191
Q

Primaxin

A

carbapenem
intramuscular injection
resistance

192
Q

Cephalosporins

A

Similar to penicillin
Grouped by generations

193
Q

Bacitracin

A

neosporin
kills gram + bacteria

194
Q

Vancomycin

A

narrow spectrum but kills MRSA

195
Q

Isoniazid

A

Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
for tuberculosis
Treatment time is 6 months

196
Q

Ethambutol

A

less effective
used to avoid resistance issues

197
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

BROAD spectrum
toxicity concerns

198
Q

Streptomycin

A

BROAD-spectrum
kills mycobacterium
resistance

199
Q

Neomycin

A

BROAD spectrum
neosporin

200
Q

Gentamicin

A

BROAD spectrum
kils pseudomonas
used with CF patients

201
Q

Tetracycline

A

BROAD spectrum
kills chlamydia and rickettsia
can lead to superinfection

202
Q

Erythromycin

A

NARROW-spectrum (gram +)

203
Q

Polymyxin B

A

neosporin
gram - (pseudomonas)
injury to plasma membrane (rare)

204
Q

Rifampin

A

Very important in the treatment of Tuberculosis
injures plasma membrane

205
Q

Nalidixic acid

A

UTIs

206
Q

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

A

BROAD spectrum (gram +)
inhibits nucleic acid

207
Q

Trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole

A

Broad-spectrum
bacteriostatic
inhibit the conversion of PABA into folic acid
slows resistance down

208
Q

sulfa drugs can also be used on …

A

burns

209
Q

What is the most common source of antibiotics found in nature?

A

streptomycin in soil

210
Q

What does broad spectrum mean versus narrow spectrum? Why should narrow spectrum antibiotics be used whenever possible?

A

broad spectrum: you can kill/inhibit multiple types of microbes
narrow spectrum: you can kill one or the other (gram + OR gram - bacteria)
narrow spectrum should be used because theres less damage

211
Q

What is a superinfection?

A

secondary infection you get after using antibiotics
ex: yeast infections or C.diff

212
Q

Why is it harder to develop antimicrobial drugs against
eukaryotes like protozoa?

A

because we are eukaryotes and we are similar, narrow spectrum drugs usually

213
Q

Which type of penicillin must be injected? Why?

A

penicillin G because it’s not stable in stomach acid

214
Q

Why is Methicillin no longer in use in America?

A

evolution, used too much to the point where it doesn’t work anymore

215
Q

What is the difference between Amoxicillin and Augmentin?

A

both semi-synthetic penicillin
amoxicillin: with a penicillinase inhibitor called potassium clavulanate
augmentin: stronger, inhibitor, top of the line penicillin

216
Q

Know the 3 antibiotics in topical triple antibiotic preparations.

A

polymyxin B (inhibits gram - bacteria)
bacitracin (kills gram +)
neomycin (broad spectrum)

217
Q

What is the primary role in the drug Ethambutol in the treatment of TB?

A

usually paired with isoniazid (stronger)
we use ethambutol because combining the two slows evolution/resistance

218
Q

What process do sulfa drugs block in bacteria? Why doesn’t it cause a problem in humans?

A

sulfa drugs inhibit production of folic acid
doesn’t effect us because we have to eat folic acid

219
Q

Do antiviral drugs kill viruses?

A

no, it slows viral replication

220
Q

What are some of the things that we do that speed up antimicrobial resistance?

A

misuse
overuse
abuse

221
Q

Why are drug combinations often better than using one class of antibiotic?

A

slow resistance
make them work better

222
Q

What is the difference between variolation and vaccination?

A

Variolation: intentional infection with small amounts of small pox
vaccination: induces immunity without infecting you

223
Q

What was the 1st disease eradicated? Why? Who is next?

A

smallpox in 1979
a worldwide effort caused the eradication
polio is next

224
Q

Why are conjugated vaccines used? Who do they help?

A

they add proteins bc it increases immune response in children

225
Q

What kind of vaccine is most effective? What needs boosters? Who benefits from conjugated vaccines?

A

attenuated vaccine
toxoids need boosters
children benefit from conjugated vaccines

226
Q

Why are viral vaccines more important than bacterial
vaccines?

A

because it’s easier to kill off bacteria than viruses

227
Q

Where are many viral vaccines (including influenza virus) grown?

A

in chick embryos
they need cells to have a metabolism

228
Q

What does the future of vaccines look like? Will we use vaccines for things that aren’t even infectious?

A

not needing needles, not having to be refrigerated
we will use vaccines for things that aren’t infectious (alzheimer’s vaccine)

229
Q

Know the difference between sensitivity and specificity

A

sensitivity: no false negatives
specificity: no false positives

230
Q

Why are monoclonal antibodies beneficial? What are some examples that we talked about in class?

A

they’re beneficial because you only need 1 antibody to clone
examples: humera (drugs that block conditions for autoimmune conditions), and pregnancy tests

231
Q

What is a hybridoma?

A

part cancerous b cell and part antibody producing b cell

232
Q

What have myeloma cells forgotten how to do?

A

die

233
Q

What are the 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions?

A

type 1: igE immune reactions to allergens
type 2: igG or igM cytotoxic hypersensitivity
type 3: immune complex
type 4: delayed cell mediated hypersensitivity reaction

234
Q

Type I hypersensitivity reactions involve which immunoglobulin?

A

igE

235
Q

What do mast cells and basophils release?

A

they release histamine

236
Q

What is the difference between systemic and localized anaphylaxis?

A

systemic anaphylaxis: life-threatening, vasodilation
localized anaphylaxis: eyes getting itchy, swollen, not dangerous

237
Q

How do desensitizing injections work? What immunoglobulin is in them?

A

expose tiny amounts of antigen that leads to an igG response that stop the igE response if coming into contact with allergen

238
Q

The primary chemical mediator of Type I reactions is________?

A

igE antibodies
mast and basophils releasing histamine

239
Q

What is the medication given to some women to avoid
hemolytic disease of the newborn? How do they
determine who needs the injections?

A

RhoGAM
any mom with a negative blood type is given this injection

240
Q

What is the primary cause of autoimmune diseases? A
lack of ______________

A

tolerance

241
Q

Know the key features about AIDS that we highlighted, including why it is called a retrovirus, the stats about HIV infections and deaths, vaccine difficulties, etc

A

retrovirus: RNA virus that uses enzyme reverse transcriptase to become DNA
the stats: globally 1 million infections a year, in us 40k infections a year
vaccine: body has hard time with retrovirus

242
Q

When was AIDS discovered? Has it been around longer than that?

A

1981 was discovered
1983 when they discovered it was AIDS
but it came in 1908 from animal meat

243
Q

Know the receptor that the HIV virus is looking for, as well as the most common coreceptor

A

receptor is cd4
coreceptor is ccr5

244
Q

What is reverse transcriptase?

A

enzyme that reverses transcription

245
Q

What are the phases of HIV infection?

A

phase 1: no symptoms
phase 2: sick more often
phase 3: when HIV becomes AIDS

246
Q

When does HIV infection become AIDS?

A

stage 3 when cd4 t cell count is at 200

247
Q

Why are some people “immune” to AIDS?

A

1-3% of ppl are ccr5 mutants, which is the HIV virus’ coreceptor

248
Q

What are the drugs that slow the progression of HIV trying
to accomplish? Why do we use a cocktail of multiple drugs?

A

they are trying to slow down the virus
this cocktail of drugs is more effective

249
Q

Define eutrophication? What is the rate-limiting nutrient associated with eutrophication?

A

eutrophication: overgrowth of microorganisms because you fed them nutrients
phosphorus is the rate-limiting nutrient

250
Q

The use of microbes to detoxify or degrade pollutants is
called ___________?

A

bioremediation
microbes for oil spills

251
Q

When determining if water is safe the most important things to look for would be caused by contamination with ____________

A

fecal material

252
Q

Understand the basics of the water treatment process? What are the major steps?

A

A
series of filtrations
water supply gets screened –> water in mixing tank –> flocculation basin –> actual filter –> disinfection (with chlorine) –> store then drink

253
Q

What kind of treatment is needed before sewage water is drinkable?

A

tertiary treatment

254
Q

Is commercial sterilization a sterilizing tool?

A

no

255
Q

What are the major steps in commercial sterilization?

A

sterilize container, soften foods before food in can, use heat to kill microbes, then seal can

256
Q

What microbe is commercial sterilization aimed at killing?

A

all clostridium botulinum
uses 12D treatment

257
Q

What does 12D treatment mean?

A

12 decimal
treatment effective enough that it can kill 12 decimals full of microbes

258
Q

What is a term that can be used on labels when talking about irradiated food?

A

electronic pasteurization

259
Q

What would be an advantage of using high pressure to
“disinfect” food?

A

preserves color and flavour in a way that heat can’t

260
Q

What is rennin? How does it pertain to cheese production

A

rennin - enzyme that curds milk, needed to make cheese

261
Q

attenuated whole-agent

A

weaked, still alive
not pathogenic
most effective
immunocompromised can’t take it

262
Q

inactivated whole-agent

A

killed organism, less effective
series of doses
safer

263
Q

toxoid

A

vaccines against toxins
needs a BOOSTER (every 10 years)

264
Q

subunit

A

exposed to part of an organism
covid vaccines

265
Q

conjugated vaccines

A

children take these because they have protein added to them

266
Q

how are monoclonal antibodies produced

A

take antibody and expose it to mouse –> get antigen from mouse, get spleen cells from mouse and mix them with myeloma cells –> hybrid oma (part cancer part antibody producing) –> immortal antibodies

267
Q

Know the basic of blood typing immunology, including the
4 ABO blood types and the antigens and antibodies of each blood type

A

ABO blood type is determined by the antigens you have on the surface of your RBC
A: a antigens & anti-b antibodies
B: b antigens & anti-a antibodies
AB: both & neither antibody –> UNIVERSAL RECIPIENT (AB+)
O: neither & both antibodies –> UNIVERSAL DONOR

268
Q

the Rh blood typing system, and hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Rh system: + blood means you have the Rh antigen, - blood means you don’t
hemolytic disease is babies with Rh - blood with anti-Rh antibodies after exposure (2nd pregnancy)

269
Q

bacillus

A

Rod shaped bacteria

270
Q

coccus

A

A round, spherical bacterium

271
Q

when dealing with enzymes…

A

enzymes - biological catalysts, can work nonstop, speed up chem. reactions, made of proteins

most enzyme names end in “ase”

enzymes work by lower activation energy

enzymes can speed up reactions by 1-2 BILLION times

Microbiology (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions