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Microbiology > Unit 2 Review > Flashcards

Unit 2 Review Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Compare disinfection and antisepsis

A

disinfection: used on surfaces

antisepsis: on living tissue

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2
Q

Is commercial sterilization an actual form of sterilization? What is it designed to destroy?

A

commercial sterilization is not a form of sterilization

it is designed to destroy c diff in canned goods

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3
Q

Does a bacteriostatic agent kill microbes?

A

no, it inhibits their growth

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4
Q

Remember that there are many factors that influence the effectiveness of disinfection. The key factor is the presence or absence of _____________________

A

organic matter (fecal material, spit, blood)

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5
Q

How does moist heat kill microbes? What is the time, pressure, and temperature in our autoclave? What is the key thing to remember when using an autoclave?

A

moist heat denatures proteins
in our autoclave, for 15 mins 15 psi at 121 C
when using an autoclave, its important to remember it only works when it comes into direct contact with the organism

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6
Q

How does dry heat sterilization (like flaming a loop) kill microbes?

A

oxidizes, peels electrons off

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7
Q

What does HEPA stand for?

A

high efficiency particulate air filter

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8
Q

What are good examples of items that you would use filtration to sterilize?

A

use filtration anytime you can’t heat something up (vaccines)

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9
Q

What are the 2 key differences between phenol and phenolics? Hint: The 3rd thing is that phenolics don’t smell as bad. What is the best example of a phenolic? In what environment does a phenolic work where most disinfectants will not?

A

phenolics are used now because they’re more effective, less toxic, and less irritating
example of a phenolic is o phenylphenol (lysol)
phenolics work in the presence of organic matter

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10
Q

What is in most antibacterial soaps?

A

Triclosan

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11
Q

Where would you find the very effective antiseptic chlorhexidine?

A

surgical hand scrubs, mouthwashes, shampoos

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12
Q

What does the chlorine in bleach become before it is an effective oxidizing agent?

A

hypochlorous acid

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12
Q

Is it generally easier to kill a virus with or without a lipid envelope? Gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria?

A

without the lipid envelope would be easier to kill

gram negative bacteria are stronger than gram positive bacteria

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13
Q

Which antimicrobial did we talk about that is more effective at killing Mycobacterium than most?

A

phenolics

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14
Q

Define a gene

A

sequence of DNA that codes for a functional product (most of the time a protein)

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15
Q

difference between genotype and phenotype

A

genotype is your genetic makeup

phenotype are genes that are being used (observable traits)

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16
Q

DNA complimentary base pairs

A

A - T

G - C

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17
Q

what direction is dna read in

A

5’ to 3’

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18
Q

steps of DNA replication

A

1) RNA primers are laid down so the DNA polymerase has a starting point

2) okazaki fragments of DNA are produced off each RNA primer

3) RNA primers replaced w/ DNA

4) DNA ligase seals gaps and creates 1 continuous strand of DNA

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19
Q

How is the lagging strand different than the leading strand

A

leading strand is synthesized continuously

lagging strand runs the wrong direction and has to be looped around, has more steps than leading strand

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20
Q

DNA polymerase

A

DNA replication, reads and builds DNA

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21
Q

RNA polymerase

A

Transcription, reads DNA and builds RNA

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22
Q

Define transcription

A

conversion of DNA to mRNA

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23
Q

translation

A

mRNA to protein

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24
Q

What is removed from eukaryotic RNA before it leaves the nucleus

A

introns

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25
Q

3 letter sequences for the 1 start codon

A

AUG

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26
Q

What is degeneracy?

A

When two codes code for the same amino acid, can tolerate mutation without any problems

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27
Q

what is the most common type of genetic mutation?

A

base-substitution or point mutation

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28
Q

What is usually the most damaging type of genetic mutation?

A

frame shift mutation

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29
Q

what is the main way DNA is recombined in transformation

A

DNA is transferred and recombined as naked DNA in solutions

30
Q

what is the main way DNA is recombined in conjugation

A

DNA is transferred and recombined through a pilus on a plasmid

31
Q

what is the main way DNA is recombined in transduction

A

DNA is transferred and recombined using a phage or bacteriophage

32
Q

Define a plasmid

A

non-chromosomal or extra chromosomal genetic material

can self-replicate

33
Q

phage

A

virus that infects bacteria

34
Q

What is the key feature of genetic vectors like plasmids and phages?

A

they are self-replicating

35
Q

Do we make restriction enzymes or find them?

A

we find them

36
Q

Why is the PCR so important to the study of genetics? What are the basics of the PCR process?

A

PCR is polymerase chain reaction

this allows us to amplify DNA

uses rapid temp change & chemicals to rip it apart and build new

37
Q

Are gene guns used with plant or animal cells (usually)? How about microinjection?

A

gene guns are used with plant or animal cells

microinjections are used with animal cells

38
Q

What is cDNA?

A

complementary DNA

39
Q

What are the 2 key examples of biotechnology that we talked about in class?

A

human insulin

human growth hormone

40
Q

What is the difference between infection and disease?

A

infection is when you’ve been colonized by a pathogen

disease is a disruption of homeostasis

41
Q

Are transient microbiota important?

A

they are important

can lead to immune or neurological responses

42
Q

Does Dr. O believe that our relationship with our microbiota is primarily an example of commensalism or mutualism? Why?

A

it is an example of mutualism because both sides win

43
Q

What are the 2 factors that increase the risk of infections by opportunistic pathogens?

A

compromised host

wrong location

44
Q

Define probiotics

A

living organisms to enhance health

45
Q

prebiotics

A

fiber to feed organisms already in your body

46
Q

What are Koch’s postulates? What are they used for? Why can’t they be used to find the causative agents for all infectious diseases?

A

they are a way to find the causative agents of a disease

they can’t be used all the time because you might not be able to isolate the organism, you can’t use it if an organism causes multiple diseases, and if one disease is caused by multiple organisms

47
Q

Define signs

A

things that can be measured

48
Q

symptoms

A

subjective things you have to say something about

49
Q

communicable

A

can be spread from one to another

50
Q

noncommunicable

A

not spread from one to another

51
Q

contagious

A

EASILY spread from one to another

52
Q

incidence

A

number of people that get a disease during a given time period

53
Q

When do we reach herd immunity?

A

70% - depends on how contagious disease

53
Q

prevalence

A

how many people have the disease (old cases + new cases)

54
Q

the key predisposing factors that increase infectiousdisease risk

A

anatomical

malnutrition

seasonality (flu season, cold weather)

fatigue

55
Q

What is a secondary infection? What is the best example?

A

they are the second infection you get after already getting sick

an example of the flu leading to pneumonia

56
Q

the basic differences between contact, vehicle, and vector spread of disease

A

contact spread is when you come into direct contact

vehicle spread are substances like food or water

vector spread is living things carrying diseases

57
Q

What is a fomite?

A

inanimate object that spreads disease

58
Q

Know the 3 types of contact transmission

A

direct: contact with someone with a disease
indirect: fomites carrying diseases
droplets: someone sneezing and getting their droplets on you

59
Q

What percent of hospital patients acquire nosocomial infections? Why?

A

5-15%

compromised hosts, strong microbes, and chain of transmission

60
Q

What is virulence? What are some factors that can increase virulence?

A

virulence is how dangerous an organism can be

things that increase virulence are gram negative envelopes around bacteria

60
Q

What is the most common nosocomial infection? What nosocomial infection has the highest mortality rate?

A

the most common are infections from catheters (UTIs)

most deadly are pneumonia

61
Q

What is the most common portal of entry?

A

mucus membranes of respiratory tract

62
Q

What is the parenteral route?

A

anytime you bypass one of your body’s defenses (bite, surgical wound, needles)

63
Q

What are the 3 adherence factors that you are supposed to remember?

A

fimbriae

capsule (neatly organised)

bio-films

64
Q

How do capsules increase virulence?

A

they evade phagocytosis

65
Q

What is antigenic variation? What organism is the best example that we talked about?

A

some organisms can change what they look like on the outside

an example would be the flu

66
Q

What mineral does a siderophore attach to?

A

iron

67
Q

What is a toxoid? An antitoxin?

A

toxoid - vaccine against toxins (tetanus shot)

antitoxin - antibody therapy to neutralize toxins

68
Q

What are the key portals of exit?

A

exits are the same as entry

respiratory and gastrointestinal

69
Q

Know the ley differences between endotoxins and exotoxins. (gram-positive versus gram-negative, fever or no fever, high or low lethal dose, etc)

A

endotoxins - produced by gram negatives, FEVER, LD50 is higher, more common

exotoxins - produced by gram positives, LD50 is lower, more toxic

70
Q

helicase

A

unwinds DNA

71
Q

DNA ligase

A

only needed on lagging strand

seals gaps after fragments of DNA are built

Microbiology (8 decks)

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