Unit 2: Measurement & Evaluation of Human Performance Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What characteristics must fitness tests have in order to measure fitness? (4)

A
  • specific
  • accurate
  • reliable
  • valid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Specific

A

use appropriate muscle groups, relevant range of movement and suitable speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Accurate

A

equipment works and makes exact measurement free from mistakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Reliable

A

produces same result from trial to trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Valid

A

measure what it claims to and appropriate for aim of experiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What should be used to display how one variable affects another in a fitness test? (5)

A
  • control group
  • placebo
  • double blinding
  • randomization
  • statistical analysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Control Group

A

group that does not receive treatment and is used as a benchmark to measure how the other tested subjects do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is an example of a control group?

A

one group does not get caffeine pill, other does

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Placebo

A

harmless pill, medicine, or procedure used to avoid the study participants from knowing what group they belong to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is an example of placebo?

A

a person will unknowingly get a pill that does not contain caffeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the ways an experiment can be blinded? (2)

A
  • blind
  • double blinding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Blind

A

participants don’t know what group they are in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Double Blind

A

participants and scientist don’t know the group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Randomized

A

individuals are randomly assigned to each group to avoid bias in results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Statistical Analysis

A

mathematics is used to analyze data and draw conclusions so that results are valid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

PAR-Q

A

survey that gives coaches and doctors ability to determine whether subjects are prepared for demanding physical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the types of fitness tests? (4)

A
  • field tests
  • lab test
  • miximal tests
  • sub-maximal tests
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Field Test

A

realistic scenarios/simulates game conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Lab Test

A

more control and can utilize more technology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Maximal Test

A

gage maximal exertion/ accurate indicator of fitness, uncomfortable and unsafe for some

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Sub-maximal test

A

predicts maximal exertion without effort and stress in less time with quicker recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

physical fitness

A

ability to preform a specific activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

health-related physical fitness

A

ability to meet physical and physiological demands of daily living without excessive fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

performance-related physical fitness (skill related)

A

ability to perform in a specific sport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the health related fitness components? (5)

A
  • body composition
  • flexibility
  • strength
  • aerobic capacity
  • muscular endurance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Body Composition

A

proportion of total body mass made up of fat and fat free mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Flexibility

A

ability to move through full range of movement around a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Strength

A

ability to generate force by a muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Aerobic Capacity

A

ability to take in, deliver, and use oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Muscular Endurance

A

ability to forcefully employ muscles over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the performance-related fitness components? (6)

A
  • agility
  • balance
  • coordination
  • power
  • reaction time
  • flexibility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Agility

A

ability to rapidly change direction or speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Balance

A

the stability of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Coordination

A

performing multiple motor functions correctly at the same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Power

A

ability of muscle to exert maximum force in shortest amount of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Reaction Time

A

duration between stimulus and response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Speed

A

change of distance with respect to time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the value of a test determined by? (5)

A
  • the safety of the participants
  • ethical considerations
  • number of participants to be tested
  • the resources and facilities available
  • the accuracy that is required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are examples of the aerobic capacity test? (3)

A
  • multistage fitness test/beep test
  • Cooper’s 12 minute run
  • Harvard step test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Multistage Fitness Test/Beep Test

A

20m shuttles repeated at increased speeds until exhaustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the validity of the multistage fitness test and Cooper’s 12 minute run?

A

high correlation between score and aerobic capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does the reliability of the multistage fitness test depend on? (3)

A
  • how strictly test is run
  • practice allowed
  • running surface
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Cooper’s 12 Minute Run

A

participants run/walk as far as they can in 12 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does the reliability of Cooper’s 12 minute run depend on? (3)

A
  • practice allowed
  • running surface
  • motivation
45
Q

Harvard Step Test

A

complete 150 steps at rate of 30 steps a minute

46
Q

What is the validity of the Harvard step test?

A

weak correlation between scores and aerobic capacity

47
Q

What does the reliability of the Harvard step test depend on? (3)

A
  • how administered
  • stepping cadence
  • height
48
Q

What are the advantages of the Harvard step test? (2)

A
  • limited expertise and equipment needed
  • sub-maximal test with continuous exercise
49
Q

What are the limitation of the Harvard step test? (2)

A
  • prediction based on heart rate values
  • does not account for individual variation in heart rate
50
Q

What fitness test assesses flexibility?

A

sit and reach

51
Q

What fitness test assesses muscle endurance?

A

flexed arm hang

52
Q

What fitness test assesses agility?

A

Illinois agility test

53
Q

What fitness test assesses strength?

A

hand grip dynamometer

54
Q

What fitness test assesses speed?

A

40m sprint

55
Q

What fitness test assesses balance?

A

stork stand

56
Q

What fitness test assesses coordination?

A

hand ball toss

57
Q

What fitness test assesses reaction time?

A

drop test

58
Q

What fitness test assesses power?

A

vertical jump

59
Q

What fitness test assesses body composition?

A

body mass index

60
Q

What are the advantages of Cooper’s 12 minute run and the beep test? (2)

A
  • limited expertise and equipment needed
  • easy to score
61
Q

What are the limitations of Cooper’s 12 minute run and the beep test? (2)

A
  • prediction based on performance and not direct measurement
  • environmental factors influence performance as not in laboratory
62
Q

What should training programs include? (7)

A
  • warm-up
  • stretching activities
  • endurance training
  • cool down
  • flexibility training
  • resistance training
  • incorporation of recreational activities and sports
63
Q

Warm-up (4)

A
  • training session must begin with low intensity activity
  • increases body and muscle temp
  • increases breathing and heart rate
  • reduces injury risk
64
Q

Stretching Activities (3)

A
  • stretches are done as part of the warm-up and cool down phases of training
  • increases flexibility
  • reduces injury
65
Q

Static Stretching

A

no movement

66
Q

Dynamic Stretching

A

movement based activities within comfortable range of motion

67
Q

Ballistic Stretching

A

bouncing movements (not good)

68
Q

PNF stretching

A

combines relaxation and contracting of the muscle

69
Q

Endurance Training

A

person works for long periods of time to work out heart, lungs, large muscle groups

70
Q

Resistance Training (2)

A
  • specifically designed to enhance muscular strength and endurance
  • progressive resistance loads
71
Q

Cool Down (2)

A
  • done after exercise to slowly reduce breathing and heart rate and blood pressure
  • static stretching is more appropriate during a cool down when the muscles are warmed up
72
Q

What are the benefits of a cool down? (2)

A
  • relieves cramping
  • improved range of motion in joints
73
Q

Flexibility Training (4)

A
  • static stretching should be done when muscles are warm after workout
  • improves range of motion at a joint
  • improve performance
  • reduce injury risk
74
Q

Recreational Activities

A

general training program that should include recreational activities to keep the performer enjoying sport and motivated

75
Q

How many key principles of training program design are there?

A

6

76
Q

What are the key principles of training program design?

A
  • progression
  • overload
  • specificity
  • reversibility
  • variety
  • periodization
77
Q

Progression

A

gradual and systematic increase in the demands of the program to gain improvement

78
Q

Overload

A

must train under greater strain than normal to adapt and gain strength endurance

79
Q

Specificity

A

athlete must train the muscles and skills that you will need and use in your sport

80
Q

Reversibility

A

condition is lost if training stops just as fitness can be gained if training is resumed

81
Q

Variety

A

variation can help motivation and prevent a plateau in fitness level

82
Q

Periodization

A

training should be organized in order to maximize the training effect

83
Q

VO2 max

A

quantifies the maximum rate that an individual can take in and use oxygen

84
Q

What are indirect methods of measuring heart rate? (2)

A
  • THR zone
  • Karvonen method
85
Q

THR Zone

A

monitors intensity with training zone calculated by taking a percent of maximum heart rate

86
Q

Karvonen Method (3)

A
  • calculates individualized zones using the difference between resting heart rate and maximal heart rate
  • difference between resting and maximal heart rate is the heart rate reserve
87
Q

What is the equation for the Karvonen method?

A

heart rate reserve (HRR) = HRmax - HRrest

88
Q

Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE)

A

way of measuring exercise intensity based on how hard you feel like your body is working

89
Q

Borg Scale

A

measures adult performer’s rate of perceived exertion using written descriptors

90
Q

CERT Scale

A

measures child (ages 6-9) performer’s rate of perceived exertion using written descriptors and pictures

91
Q

OMNI 0-10 Scale

A

measures child or adult performer’s rate of perceived exertion using written descriptors and pictures

92
Q

independent variable

A

manipulated variable

93
Q

dependent variable

A

measured variable

94
Q

controlled variable

A

kept constant so they do not alter the data

95
Q

How must instruments used for quantitative data be read properly?

A

read ticks and estimate one decimal place

96
Q

uncertainty

A

margin of doubt for a measurement

97
Q

How should a data table be organized? (4)

A
  • independent variable at left
  • dependent variable after
  • uncertainty in dependent variable units
  • STD after dependent variable
98
Q

Standard Deviation (4)

A
  • average measures of how much each value in your data differs from the mean
  • measures variability
  • considers all data points
  • used with 5 or more trials
99
Q

Coefficient of Variation

A

ratio of the standard deviation to the mean expressed as a percentage

100
Q

What is the formula for the CV?

A

SD/mean x 100

101
Q

What are the tests for comparing groups? (2)

A
  • t-test (2 groups)
  • one way ANOVA (3 or more groups)
102
Q

What are the steps for comparison tests? (3)

A

1) form a hypothesis
2) calculate p-value
3) Interpret the p-value

103
Q

Step 1: form a hypothesis

A
  • null hypothesis: there is a difference between the means of groups
  • alternative hypothesis: there is a difference between the means of the groups
104
Q

Step 2: calculate p-value

A

p-value: probability that null hypothesis is true

105
Q

What does it mean if the p-value is low? (3)

A
  • reject the null hypothesis
  • means of groups are different
  • if p is low, reject the Ho
106
Q

What does it mean if the p-value is high? (2)

A
  • accept the null hypothesis
  • no difference between means of groups
107
Q

Correlation Coefficient (3)

A
  • measures the strength and direction of a linear relationship
  • denoted by r
  • between -1 and 1
108
Q

Correlation of Determination

A

square of correlation coefficient