Unit 1-3 Test Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A fairly new technology that uses radio signals to send and receive information is referred to as

A

RFID - Radio Frequency Identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Identifiable information related to a patient’s medical condition is referred to as

A

protected health information (PHI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Labels that indicate warnings and side effects are known as _______ labels.

A

Auxiliary Labels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_______ technology is used in many hospitals to verify that the correct medication is being dispensed to
the applicable patient.

A

Bar code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Refills are prohibited on which of the following drug schedules?

A

Schedule ll

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When the patient comes into the pharmacy to pick up a prescription, the pharm tech must

A

ask if the patient has any questions for the pharmacist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Chemotherapeutic agents should be handled according to the…

A

Material Safety Data Sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hospital operating suites, cardiac and intensive care units, and emergency departments have
decentralized drug delivery systems that use…

A

satellite pharmacies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Liquid medications are dispensed in containers known as

A

ovals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The vial sizes for tablets and capsules range from _______ drams.

A

8–120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is not a governing body for pharmacy policy and procedure?

A

Pharmacy Technician Certification Board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In addition to requesting payment for the cost of medications and related dispensing costs, pharmacies
are now allowed to bill for

A

medication therapy management services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Each medication within a pharmacy has a unique identifying number known as the

A

National Drug Code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The two key elements of any computer system are the _______ and the _______.

A

hardware, software

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mr. Steinmetz has returned to the pharmacy a day after he picked up a prescription for codeine tablets.
He wants to return them, saying he doesn’t need to take them. What is the proper procedure?

A

Explain that controlled substances can’t be returned after dispensing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

IV admixtures are prepared in _______ settings.

A

sterile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A patient’s prescription drug coverage under Medicare would be billed under which type of Medicare?

A

Part D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A hospital’s formulary is developed by a group of administrators, pharmacists, doctors, and other staff
members, collectively known as the

A

P & T committee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A patient arrives at your local pharmacy with a prescription for oxycodone with all of the required
information on the face of the prescription order. “Refill four times” is written at the bottom. You would
proceed as follows:

A

Refer the prescription to the pharmacist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Two or more computers connected together is referred to as a

A

network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962 required that a drug be

A

not only safe but effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Quinine, which is found in the bark of the cinchona tree, is effective in

A

reducing fever and other symptoms associated with malaria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the post-marketing surveillance phase of drug development include of?

A

includes surveys and reports of adverse reactions as well as consumer watchdog information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A tragedy with which drug was responsible for the passage of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
of 1938 that required the establishment of drug safety standards?

A

Sulfanilamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The approval of a new drug application (NDA) by the FDA allows for which of the following?

A

The manufacturer is allowed to sell the drug in the United States.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following statements about classifying a promising drug is false?

A

The drug won’t be used to treat a serious life-threatening disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The majority of new chemical molecules that are tested as new drugs come from…

A

the synthesis of new chemicals by chemists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A tragedy with which drug was responsible for the passage of the Kefauver-Harris Amendment in 1962
that called for more drug safety?

A

Thalidomide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The investigational new drug (IND) application contains which of the following information?

A

Toxicity of the test drug in animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The application for approval of a generic equivalent of an existing proprietary drug must show that the
drug is absorbed from the _______ into the bloodstream at the same rate as the proprietary drug.

A

stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The Federal Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 defined an adulterated drug as a drug that

A

. contains a decomposed substance or whose strength, quality, or purity is different from what’s indicated on the label.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The “treatment use” of investigational drugs usually occurs at which stage of drug testing?

A

During FDA review of a new drug application (NDA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The OTC monograph for a specific class of ingredients was codified in an official, legally binding

A

Code of Federal Regulations (CFR).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The dose of a test drug that causes death in the animal during short-term toxicity testing is referred to
as the

A

lethal dose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Phase _______ of clinical testing is required by the FDA before drug approval and uses the greatest
number of subjects.

A

Phase 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Phase _______ of clinical testing uses the fewest number of subjects and establishes the dose at which
signs of toxicity appear.

A

Phase 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Phase 4 of Clinical Trials and the New Drug Application may take _______ years to monitor durability
of response.

A

5-10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following is not a birth defect that’s caused by a teratogenic effect?

A

Different Colored Eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 categorized drugs such as morphine and meperidine as
Schedule _______ drugs.

A

Schedule ll

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Neurologists often prescribe _______ to treat the headache pain from trigeminal neuralgia.

A

Tegretol tablets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

An anticholinergic can be used to treat

A

asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

_______ act to restore normal heart rhythm in a heart that has been skipping beats.

A

Antiarrhythmics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A general surgeon would prescribe _______ for a patient feeling severe pain after an operation.

A

Vicodin tablets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A patient taking _______ would have a history of mental depression.

A

Prozac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What types of drugs are prescribed to reduce the feeling of anxiety in nervous people?

A

Tranquilizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The purpose of a/an _______ is to liquefy mucous.

A

expectorant

47
Q

_______ are usually limited to the types of prescriptions they can write by a set of standing orders.

A

Nurse practitioners

48
Q

Doctors who specialize in the diagnosis and treatment of the conditions of arthritis and gout are called

A

rheumatologists.

49
Q

_______ are professionals who dispense medications under a pharmacist’s supervision but aren’t
licensed to write prescriptions.

A

Pharmacy technicians

50
Q

Which of the following is taken to prevent blood clots from forming in the cardiovascular system?

A

Anticoagulants

51
Q

_______ is a common drug used to treat non-insulin-dependent diabetes.

A

Micronase

52
Q

If you dispense a prescription for a drug called Premarin, the patient would probably be a/an

A

menopausal female

53
Q

A medicine containing _______ would be used to stop a cough.

A

codeine

54
Q

What anti-infective medicine would a family doctor prescribe to treat pneumonia?

A

Penicillin

55
Q

Topical antibiotics are commonly prescribed by

A

dermatologists

56
Q

Which of the following is an antibiotic that’s frequently prescribed by dentists?

A

Clindamycin

57
Q

_______ tablets are often prescribed by psychiatrists and family practice physicians for patients who
can’t fall asleep.

A

Halcion

58
Q

Neurologists may prescribe _______ for grand mal epilepsy.

A

Dilantin

59
Q

After a surgical procedure, the general surgeon will often prescribe a combination of

A

an antibiotic and a painkiller.

60
Q

Insulin and levothyroxin are examples of

A

hormones

61
Q

Introduction of drugs into the gastrointestinal tract is a form of _______ administration

A

enteral

62
Q

_______ is an example of a degenerative disease in animals

A

Congestive heart failure

63
Q

Feline cardiomyopathy and canine heartworm disease are examples of

A

cardiac disease.

64
Q

If a doctor knows that a cat has an eye disease but is unsure of the cause, the doctor chooses the drug

A

based on the site of action

65
Q

It’s unacceptable to use human-labeled drugs for common diseases in food animals because veterinarylabeled
drugs

A

are available.

66
Q

Which of the following is an example of parenteral drug administration?

A

Intravenous injection

67
Q

Harmful or toxic reactions to normal doses of common medication are

A

adverse drug reactions.

68
Q

Rates of absorption of medication are important. In what order would methods of absorption be
arranged from fastest to slowest?

A

Injection, oral, topical

69
Q

Degenerative diseases occur mostly in

A

older pets

70
Q

Which of the following are drugs that are important sources of toxicity because of their wide
availability, OTC status, and uninformed use?

A

Analgesics

71
Q

_______ medication is administered on the skin or mucous membranes.

A

Topical

72
Q

Intervertebral disc disease falls under what site classification?

A

Neurologic

73
Q

Compliance Policy Guides (CPGs) are documents dealing with

A

enforcement discretion.

74
Q

Two important toxins that commonly cause death in cats are

A

acetaminophen and aspirin.

75
Q

A licensed veterinarian in the United States

A

can treat all nonhuman animals

76
Q

Alteration of the physical form of a drug outside its label is

A

called compounding.

77
Q

Ocular disorders include all of the following except

A

cardiomyopathy.

78
Q

Introduction of a drug directly into the respiratory tract is a form of _______ administration

A

inhalation

79
Q

If a cat has an infection, and the doctor is unsure where the infection is, the doctor chooses the drug

A

based on its primary effect

80
Q

To learn the best conditions for storing a drug in the pharmacy, you would look at this section of a
revised drug monograph.

A

How supplied, storage & handling

81
Q

The subsection of a drug monograph that may indicate a cancer-causing potential is the _______
subsection.

A

Carcinogenesis, Mutagenesis, Impairment of Fertility

82
Q

If you want to find out how a drug works, you would look in this section of a drug monograph.

A

Clinical Pharmacology

83
Q

A pregnant woman has come to you with a prescription to be filled. She’s concerned about taking the
medication because of her pregnancy. In which section of the revised style monograph can you find
specific information about pregnancy risks?

A

Use in Specific Populations

84
Q

What should you do if the first section of an NDC number contains only four digits?

A

Insert a leading number 0.

85
Q

The _______ name is also known as the trade name.

A

brand name

86
Q

In the revised package insert style, where can you quickly find out the available dosage forms and
strengths of a drug?

A

highlights

87
Q

The structural formula of a drug is included in this section of a drug monograph.

A

description

88
Q

Where would you find information on drug interactions in an older-style drug monograph?

A

precautions

89
Q

Information on how to treat a patient who has taken a toxic dose of a medication would be found in
this section of the drug monograph.

A

overdosage

90
Q

In the revised monograph, this combined section details the most clinically significant safety concerns
that affect decisions about whether to prescribe the drug.

A

Warnings and Precautions

91
Q

You’ve just assisted the pharmacist in dispensing a drug for a patient with a preexisting heart condition
who is concerned about taking the medication. In which section of the older-style monograph would you
check to see what can go wrong in heart patients using this drug?

A

warnings

92
Q

How do you recognize the brand name of a drug in the package insert?

A

The brand name appears in capital letters and has the registered trademark symbol next to it

93
Q

Information on blood levels of a drug is found in this section of a drug monograph.

A

Clinical Pharmacology

94
Q

If you want to know what dose forms are available for a particular drug, you would look in this section
of a drug monograph.

A

How Supplied

95
Q

This section of drug information, which isn’t included in every monograph, alerts the drug prescriber
and user to information concerning serious injury and even death related to the drug’s use in certain
situations.

A

Boxed Warning

96
Q

This section of a package insert contains information that indicates under what conditions the drug can’t
be used.

A

Contraindications

97
Q

The amount of time between the discovery and the marketing of a drug can be up to _______ years.

A

10

98
Q

A patient calls the pharmacy and asks if it’s safe to take a certain drug while nursing. You pull the
package insert and see that it’s the older format. What section do you need to look in?

A

precautions

99
Q

The National Drug Code number (NDC) of the drug is included in this section of a drug monograph.

A

How Supplied

100
Q

The _______ is included in the inscription on a prescription.

A

strength of the medication

101
Q

Pharmacies provide medication facts sheets to patients by

A

printing copies generated by the pharmacy computer system

102
Q

What is the average number of years a company has exclusive rights to sell a brand-name drug?

A

10 years

103
Q

In a pharmacy, when a pharmacy technician generates a medication label, standard procedure is to have
a second person

A

verify both the contents of the prescription and the information typed on the label.

104
Q

Which of the following items is not one of the required pieces of information on a prescription label?

A

doctors address and phone number

105
Q

What is the English translation for the following instruction: “1 p.o. q.i.d. x 10 d”?

A

One, by mouth, four times a day for 10 days

106
Q

The _______ number must be present on all controlled substance prescriptions

A

dea

107
Q

How many pieces of information are required on a label?

A

8

108
Q

The abbreviation “p.o.” on a medication label indicates that the patient is to take the medication

A

orally (by mouth).

109
Q

When a generic form of a drug is prescribed, which of the following must be included on the label?

A

The generic form name and the prescriber

110
Q

In the past, the subscription on a prescription included directions for the

A

pharmacist to prepare the medication.

111
Q

The instruction “take medication with plenty of water” is an example of

A

auxiliary labels

112
Q

What is the English translation for the following instruction: “Take the medication t.i.d. h.s. and p.r.n.
for pain”?

A

Take the medication three times a day, at bedtime, and as needed for pain.

113
Q

What section of the prescription contains the instructions to the patient on how to take the medication?

A

signa