Unit 1-3 Test Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A fairly new technology that uses radio signals to send and receive information is referred to as

A

RFID - Radio Frequency Identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Identifiable information related to a patient’s medical condition is referred to as

A

protected health information (PHI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Labels that indicate warnings and side effects are known as _______ labels.

A

Auxiliary Labels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_______ technology is used in many hospitals to verify that the correct medication is being dispensed to
the applicable patient.

A

Bar code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Refills are prohibited on which of the following drug schedules?

A

Schedule ll

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When the patient comes into the pharmacy to pick up a prescription, the pharm tech must

A

ask if the patient has any questions for the pharmacist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Chemotherapeutic agents should be handled according to the…

A

Material Safety Data Sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hospital operating suites, cardiac and intensive care units, and emergency departments have
decentralized drug delivery systems that use…

A

satellite pharmacies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Liquid medications are dispensed in containers known as

A

ovals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The vial sizes for tablets and capsules range from _______ drams.

A

8–120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is not a governing body for pharmacy policy and procedure?

A

Pharmacy Technician Certification Board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In addition to requesting payment for the cost of medications and related dispensing costs, pharmacies
are now allowed to bill for

A

medication therapy management services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Each medication within a pharmacy has a unique identifying number known as the

A

National Drug Code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The two key elements of any computer system are the _______ and the _______.

A

hardware, software

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mr. Steinmetz has returned to the pharmacy a day after he picked up a prescription for codeine tablets.
He wants to return them, saying he doesn’t need to take them. What is the proper procedure?

A

Explain that controlled substances can’t be returned after dispensing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

IV admixtures are prepared in _______ settings.

A

sterile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A patient’s prescription drug coverage under Medicare would be billed under which type of Medicare?

A

Part D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A hospital’s formulary is developed by a group of administrators, pharmacists, doctors, and other staff
members, collectively known as the

A

P & T committee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A patient arrives at your local pharmacy with a prescription for oxycodone with all of the required
information on the face of the prescription order. “Refill four times” is written at the bottom. You would
proceed as follows:

A

Refer the prescription to the pharmacist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Two or more computers connected together is referred to as a

A

network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962 required that a drug be

A

not only safe but effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Quinine, which is found in the bark of the cinchona tree, is effective in

A

reducing fever and other symptoms associated with malaria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the post-marketing surveillance phase of drug development include of?

A

includes surveys and reports of adverse reactions as well as consumer watchdog information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A tragedy with which drug was responsible for the passage of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
of 1938 that required the establishment of drug safety standards?

A

Sulfanilamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
The approval of a new drug application (NDA) by the FDA allows for which of the following?
The manufacturer is allowed to sell the drug in the United States.
26
Which of the following statements about classifying a promising drug is false?
The drug won't be used to treat a serious life-threatening disease.
27
The majority of new chemical molecules that are tested as new drugs come from...
the synthesis of new chemicals by chemists
28
A tragedy with which drug was responsible for the passage of the Kefauver-Harris Amendment in 1962 that called for more drug safety?
Thalidomide
29
The investigational new drug (IND) application contains which of the following information?
Toxicity of the test drug in animals
30
The application for approval of a generic equivalent of an existing proprietary drug must show that the drug is absorbed from the _______ into the bloodstream at the same rate as the proprietary drug.
stomach
31
The Federal Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 defined an adulterated drug as a drug that
. contains a decomposed substance or whose strength, quality, or purity is different from what's indicated on the label.
32
The "treatment use" of investigational drugs usually occurs at which stage of drug testing?
During FDA review of a new drug application (NDA)
33
The OTC monograph for a specific class of ingredients was codified in an official, legally binding
Code of Federal Regulations (CFR).
34
The dose of a test drug that causes death in the animal during short-term toxicity testing is referred to as the
lethal dose.
35
Phase _______ of clinical testing is required by the FDA before drug approval and uses the greatest number of subjects.
Phase 3
36
Phase _______ of clinical testing uses the fewest number of subjects and establishes the dose at which signs of toxicity appear.
Phase 1
37
Phase 4 of Clinical Trials and the New Drug Application may take _______ years to monitor durability of response.
5-10 years
38
Which of the following is not a birth defect that's caused by a teratogenic effect?
Different Colored Eyes
39
The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 categorized drugs such as morphine and meperidine as Schedule _______ drugs.
Schedule ll
40
Neurologists often prescribe _______ to treat the headache pain from trigeminal neuralgia.
Tegretol tablets
41
An anticholinergic can be used to treat
asthma
42
_______ act to restore normal heart rhythm in a heart that has been skipping beats.
Antiarrhythmics
43
A general surgeon would prescribe _______ for a patient feeling severe pain after an operation.
Vicodin tablets
44
A patient taking _______ would have a history of mental depression.
Prozac
45
What types of drugs are prescribed to reduce the feeling of anxiety in nervous people?
Tranquilizers
46
The purpose of a/an _______ is to liquefy mucous.
expectorant
47
_______ are usually limited to the types of prescriptions they can write by a set of standing orders.
Nurse practitioners
48
Doctors who specialize in the diagnosis and treatment of the conditions of arthritis and gout are called
rheumatologists.
49
_______ are professionals who dispense medications under a pharmacist's supervision but aren't licensed to write prescriptions.
Pharmacy technicians
50
Which of the following is taken to prevent blood clots from forming in the cardiovascular system?
Anticoagulants
51
_______ is a common drug used to treat non-insulin-dependent diabetes.
Micronase
52
If you dispense a prescription for a drug called Premarin, the patient would probably be a/an
menopausal female
53
A medicine containing _______ would be used to stop a cough.
codeine
54
What anti-infective medicine would a family doctor prescribe to treat pneumonia?
Penicillin
55
Topical antibiotics are commonly prescribed by
dermatologists
56
Which of the following is an antibiotic that's frequently prescribed by dentists?
Clindamycin
57
_______ tablets are often prescribed by psychiatrists and family practice physicians for patients who can't fall asleep.
Halcion
58
Neurologists may prescribe _______ for grand mal epilepsy.
Dilantin
59
After a surgical procedure, the general surgeon will often prescribe a combination of
an antibiotic and a painkiller.
60
Insulin and levothyroxin are examples of
hormones
61
Introduction of drugs into the gastrointestinal tract is a form of _______ administration
enteral
62
_______ is an example of a degenerative disease in animals
Congestive heart failure
63
Feline cardiomyopathy and canine heartworm disease are examples of
cardiac disease.
64
If a doctor knows that a cat has an eye disease but is unsure of the cause, the doctor chooses the drug
based on the site of action
65
It's unacceptable to use human-labeled drugs for common diseases in food animals because veterinarylabeled drugs
are available.
66
Which of the following is an example of parenteral drug administration?
Intravenous injection
67
Harmful or toxic reactions to normal doses of common medication are
adverse drug reactions.
68
Rates of absorption of medication are important. In what order would methods of absorption be arranged from fastest to slowest?
Injection, oral, topical
69
Degenerative diseases occur mostly in
older pets
70
Which of the following are drugs that are important sources of toxicity because of their wide availability, OTC status, and uninformed use?
Analgesics
71
_______ medication is administered on the skin or mucous membranes.
Topical
72
Intervertebral disc disease falls under what site classification?
Neurologic
73
Compliance Policy Guides (CPGs) are documents dealing with
enforcement discretion.
74
Two important toxins that commonly cause death in cats are
acetaminophen and aspirin.
75
A licensed veterinarian in the United States
can treat all nonhuman animals
76
Alteration of the physical form of a drug outside its label is
called compounding.
77
Ocular disorders include all of the following except
cardiomyopathy.
78
Introduction of a drug directly into the respiratory tract is a form of _______ administration
inhalation
79
If a cat has an infection, and the doctor is unsure where the infection is, the doctor chooses the drug
based on its primary effect
80
To learn the best conditions for storing a drug in the pharmacy, you would look at this section of a revised drug monograph.
How supplied, storage & handling
81
The subsection of a drug monograph that may indicate a cancer-causing potential is the _______ subsection.
Carcinogenesis, Mutagenesis, Impairment of Fertility
82
If you want to find out how a drug works, you would look in this section of a drug monograph.
Clinical Pharmacology
83
A pregnant woman has come to you with a prescription to be filled. She's concerned about taking the medication because of her pregnancy. In which section of the revised style monograph can you find specific information about pregnancy risks?
Use in Specific Populations
84
What should you do if the first section of an NDC number contains only four digits?
Insert a leading number 0.
85
The _______ name is also known as the trade name.
brand name
86
In the revised package insert style, where can you quickly find out the available dosage forms and strengths of a drug?
highlights
87
The structural formula of a drug is included in this section of a drug monograph.
description
88
Where would you find information on drug interactions in an older-style drug monograph?
precautions
89
Information on how to treat a patient who has taken a toxic dose of a medication would be found in this section of the drug monograph.
overdosage
90
In the revised monograph, this combined section details the most clinically significant safety concerns that affect decisions about whether to prescribe the drug.
Warnings and Precautions
91
You've just assisted the pharmacist in dispensing a drug for a patient with a preexisting heart condition who is concerned about taking the medication. In which section of the older-style monograph would you check to see what can go wrong in heart patients using this drug?
warnings
92
How do you recognize the brand name of a drug in the package insert?
The brand name appears in capital letters and has the registered trademark symbol next to it
93
Information on blood levels of a drug is found in this section of a drug monograph.
Clinical Pharmacology
94
If you want to know what dose forms are available for a particular drug, you would look in this section of a drug monograph.
How Supplied
95
This section of drug information, which isn't included in every monograph, alerts the drug prescriber and user to information concerning serious injury and even death related to the drug's use in certain situations.
Boxed Warning
96
This section of a package insert contains information that indicates under what conditions the drug can't be used.
Contraindications
97
The amount of time between the discovery and the marketing of a drug can be up to _______ years.
10
98
A patient calls the pharmacy and asks if it's safe to take a certain drug while nursing. You pull the package insert and see that it's the older format. What section do you need to look in?
precautions
99
The National Drug Code number (NDC) of the drug is included in this section of a drug monograph.
How Supplied
100
The _______ is included in the inscription on a prescription.
strength of the medication
101
Pharmacies provide medication facts sheets to patients by
printing copies generated by the pharmacy computer system
102
What is the average number of years a company has exclusive rights to sell a brand-name drug?
10 years
103
In a pharmacy, when a pharmacy technician generates a medication label, standard procedure is to have a second person
verify both the contents of the prescription and the information typed on the label.
104
Which of the following items is not one of the required pieces of information on a prescription label?
doctors address and phone number
105
What is the English translation for the following instruction: "1 p.o. q.i.d. x 10 d"?
One, by mouth, four times a day for 10 days
106
The _______ number must be present on all controlled substance prescriptions
dea
107
How many pieces of information are required on a label?
8
108
The abbreviation "p.o." on a medication label indicates that the patient is to take the medication
orally (by mouth).
109
When a generic form of a drug is prescribed, which of the following must be included on the label?
The generic form name and the prescriber
110
In the past, the subscription on a prescription included directions for the
pharmacist to prepare the medication.
111
The instruction "take medication with plenty of water" is an example of
auxiliary labels
112
What is the English translation for the following instruction: "Take the medication t.i.d. h.s. and p.r.n. for pain"?
Take the medication three times a day, at bedtime, and as needed for pain.
113
What section of the prescription contains the instructions to the patient on how to take the medication?
signa