Self Check questions Flashcards
1
Q
- What legislation established the five schedules of drugs having the potential for addiction?
A
b. Controlled Substances Act of 1970
2
Q
- What legislation made a distinction between prescription and nonprescription drugs?
A
d. Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1952
3
Q
- What legislation required that prescription medications be dispensed in childproof containers?
A
a. Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970
4
Q
- What legislation specifically identified the FDA as the enforcement body that would officially
approve all new drugs?
A
c. Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938
5
Q
- What legislation distinguished between drugs having abuse potential and drugs having none?
A
b. Controlled Substances Act of 1970
6
Q
- What is the approximate ratio of the number of chemical compounds tested for activity as new
drugs to the number of chemical compounds that actually make it to the clinical testing stage?
A
C. 10,000 to 1
7
Q
- What phase of drug testing determines the lethal dose of the chemical compound in
laboratory mice?
A
d. Short-term toxicity testing
8
Q
- What type of test determines the potential for a test drug to cause cancer?
A
c. Carcinogenicity
9
Q
- What type of test determines the potential for a test drug to cause birth defects?
A
a. Teratogenicity
10
Q
- The IND application review by the FDA takes
A
c. one to two years
11
Q
- A(n) ________ must be approved by the FDA before a drug can undergo clinical testing.
A
d．investigational new drug application (IND)
12
Q
- A(n) ________ can’t be submitted to the FDA until the first three phases of clinical testing are
completed.
A
a. New drug application (NDA)
13
Q
- A Phase 4 clinical study
A
c. is conducted after the drug is approved and marketed.
14
Q
- A Phase ________ clinical test of a new drug starts immediately after the approval of an IND.
A
a. 1
15
Q
- The application for approval of a generic equivalent is called a(n)
A
b. abbreviated new drug application (ANDA)
16
Q
- The average drug has ________ years of exclusive sales and marketing before its generic
equivalent can be marketed and sold.
A
b. 12
17
Q
- Approximately ________ of the 4000 or more prescriptions drugs currently being sold in the
United States are orphan drugs.
A
b. 300
18
Q
- An “orphan drug” is a(n)
A
c. drug that’s used to treat rare disease.
19
Q
- Which of the following conditions would most likely be treated with an orphan drug?
A
b. Lou Gehrig’s disease
20
Q
- Which of the criteria listed below classifies an investigational new drug for “treatment use”?
A
b. No comparable alternative drug to treat the disease
21
Q
- Which of the criteria listed below classifies an investigational new drug for “treatment use”?
A
c. Too expensive for the consumer to purchase
22
Q
- Which amendment to the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 required all over-the counter
drugs to be both safe and effective?
A
d. Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962
23
Q
- Prior to 1962, if an over-the-counter product had false or misleading information on the label,
it was categorized as
A
c. misbranded
24
Q
- The current FDA review procedure for drugs sold without a prescription ensures that the
drug is
A
c. both safe and effective
25
The series of steps put in place to carry out the policies of a pharmacy department are
called legalities.
False. They are called P and P Policies and Procedures
26
One of the main reasons for having a set of policies and procedures in place is to
document the department’s compliance with the rules set forth by regulatory agencies.
False, they are to ensure safe, effective, and consistent actions taken by its employees.
27
A hospital pharmacy department must be compliant with the rules set forth by JCAHO. (Joint
Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations)
True
28
To be of worth, a P & P manual must be both current and available to the general public.
False, it is only available to the Pharmacy's employees.
29
It’s important to have a current P & P manual to help hospital staff members maintain
Joint Commission accreditation every five years.
False. The P & P manual includes procedures that help all hospital departments comply with the Joint Commission standards. The Joint Commission accredits healthcare organizations every three years.
30
Name all 9 (reg) information that needs to be listen on the Rx container. 12 for controlled substances. (schedule ll)
• Patient name
• Date the prescription was written
• Name of medication
• Strength of medication
• Quantity requested
• Directions for use, or signa (often written as “Sig:”)
• Number of refills allowed
• Name, address, telephone number, and signature of
prescriber. Prescriptions can be written by physicians,
physician assistants, certified nurse practitioners
(CRNPs), dentists, veterinarians, or in some cases,
pharmacists.
• National Provider Identifier (NPI). This unique ID number
is now required for all insurance claim submissions.
```
+ for schedule ll
Patient’s address
• DEA number of the prescriber
• Prescriber’s signature in ink, if a Schedule II drug (which
you’ll learn about in the next section)
```
```
**SIMPLIFIED**
• Patient name
• Medication name
• Medication strength
• Quantity of medication
• Directions for use
• Number of refills remaining, if any
• Name of prescriber
• Prescription number assigned by the pharmacy
• Name, address, and phone number of pharmacy
• Date prescription was filled
• Name/initials of dispensing pharmacist
• The expiration, or discard date for the medication
```
31
List the eight pieces of information that must be included on a prescription order before it can
be filled by the pharmacy.
1. Patient name; date the prescription was written; name of medication; strength of medication; quantity requested;
directions for use; number of refills allowed; and name,
address, telephone number, and signature of prescriber
32
```
According to the DEA, there are five schedules or classes of drugs. Which class of drug would
not be dispensed from a pharmacy?
```
2. Schedule I
33
Though some drugs are purchased by the pharmacy directly from the manufacturer,
medications are often purchased by the pharmacy through negotiated agreements with
_______.
3. wholesalers
34
Return goods specialty companies are used by pharmacies to dispose of _______.
4. expired drugs
35
Would the pharmacist or the pharmacy technician participate in one-on-one patient counseling
sessions to explain how medicinal therapies can control conditions such as diabetes?
5. The pharmacist
36
The list of approved drugs for use in an institution is called a(n)
formulary
37
A drug that has been prescribed with the orders to be given PRN should be administered
only as needed.
38
A type of floor stock used in emergency situations is often kept in wheeled units called ...
crash carts.
39
In most hospitals, enough drugs are sent from the pharmacy to the patient areas to supply
medications to the patient for...
24 hours
40
Certain medication orders contain a special instruction called a(n) ________, which
automatically stops the dispensing process after a predetermined length of time.
ASO - automatic
| stop orders
41
If a patient has both Medicare and Medicaid coverage, which program should be billed as the
primary payor?
Medicare
42
Which insurance coverage is handled as a joint venture between the federal and state
governments?
Medicade
43
Which part of Medicare offers prescription insurance coverage?
Medicare Part D
44
What codes are used to bill for MTMS (medication therapy management service) provided by a pharmacist?
CPT (Current Procedural Terminology)
45
What is not a pharmacy benefit manager (PBM)?
Medicade
46
This type of drug is prescribed by the family doctor to reduce the stuffy nose feeling of nasal
congestion.
Nasal decongestant
47
This type of drug is prescribed to open up a constricted airway in an asthma sufferer
Bronchodilator
48
If a patient with emphysema presented symptoms of bronchitis, the doctor might prescribe
this drug.
Quibron-T
49
A family doctor may prescribe this antimicrobial medication to treat a yeast infection.
Flagyl tablets
50
A machine that’s used to turn asthma medicine into a mist that can be inhaled by a patient
is called a(n)
nebulizer.
51
If you dispensed a medicine containing this drug, the patient may be using it to treat
pharyngitis.
Amoxicillin tablets
52
The doctor treating hay fever may prescribe this type of drug to reduce the symptoms of
sneezing.
Antihistamine
53
This substance is released from blood cells when a susceptible person inhales pollen.
Histamine
54
Dermatologists often treat fungal infections of the skin and nails. Which drugs below are often
used to treat this condition?
An antifungal cream and antifungal tablets taken systemically
55
Rheumatologists use the following two classes of drugs to treat arthritis.
Anti-inflammatories and painkillers
56
Ophthalmologists commonly treat this condition in which fluid builds up inside the eye.
Glaucoma
57
If a patient presented symptoms of a red and infected eye, which type of drug will be prescribed
by the eye doctor to treat the infection?
An antibiotic in eyedrops
58
If you received a prescription from a doctor for insulin, the patient would have which disorder
of the endocrine system?
Diabetes
59
If you fill a prescription for a sulfa drug, it was most likely prescribed by a(n)
Urologist
60
Birth control pills are prescribed by the gynecologist or endocrinologist to do what?
Inhibit ovulation to prevent pregnancy
61
If you dispensed a prescription for Bactrim tablets, the patient would be suffering from which
disorder?
A urinary tract infection
62
If you dispensed a prescription for a drug called Zantac, the patient could be suffering from
which disorder?
Either gastric ulcers or heartburn
63
For what condition do patients take Synthroid?
Thyroid disorder
64
If you received a prescription for this drug, the patient is being treated for an enlarged
prostate gland.
Proscar tablets
65
Why would a gastroenterologist prescribe a drug that kills bacteria to treat ulcers?
Many forms of gastric ulcers are caused by a pathogenic bacterial organism.
66
If you saw this medicine prescribed by a general surgeon, you would suspect that the patient
had pain during the healing process.
Motrin tablets
67
A geriatrician treats what general category of patients?
Senior Citizens
68
The general surgeon prescribes medication to treat pain and infection. Which of the following
combinations might you dispense for a patient who has had surgery?
Toradol tablets and Cipro tablets
69
This drug may be prescribed by the orthopedic doctor after resetting a fractured bone and
placing the bone in a cast.
Motrin tablets
70
The drug Aricept would be prescribed for which condition?
Alzheimer’s disease
71
Which drug below is an antibiotic used by the general surgeon to treat postsurgical infections?
Erythromycin tablets
72
A psychiatrist would prescribe this drug to treat schizophrenia.
Prolixin tablets
73
Drugs sometimes referred to as “mood elevators” work to correct an imbalance in brain
chemistry by
b. increasing the levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain.
74
This drug is one of the classic phenothiazine drugs used in psychiatry to treat psychoses
Thorazine tablets
75
This family of drugs is especially effective in the treatment of bipolar disorder.
Lithium compounds
76
Neurologists often prescribe this drug to treat tension headache.
Fiorinal tablets
77
This drug is a member of the ergot family of drugs found to be effective in treating migraine
headache.
Cafergot tablets
78
Two different neurological disorders for which Tegretol tablets are prescribed are
epilepsy and trigeminal neuralgia headache.
79
A group of drugs that the pediatrician will often prescribe to treat ear and throat infections is
known as
penicillins.
80
Cardiologists prescribe these drugs to prevent arteriosclerosis
Drugs to lower cholesterol
81
These types of drugs will prevent artery occlusion and angina.
Artery vasodilators
82
An example of a beta-blocker drug for angina is
Inderal tablets.
83
This drug is prescribed as an anticoagulant.
Coumadin tablets
84
This drug is called a diuretic and is used to lower high blood pressure.
HCTZ (hydrochlorothiazide)
85
This drug causes dilation of the arteries to lower high blood pressure.
Procardia tablets
86
These healthcare professionals can’t legally write prescriptions in every state.
Nurse practitioners
87
Which of the following herbal remedies is commonly suggested for the relief of minor burns?
Aloe vera juice
88
A periodontist would prescribe this type of medicine to treat gum disease.
Antibiotic
89
An endodontist may prescribe a medication like this to treat toothache.
Antibiotic
90
These specialized dentists, or “mouth doctors,” treat diseases of the head and neck and soft
tissues of the mouth.
. Oral medicine/oral pathology specialists
91
A few states have granted limited authority for these healthcare professionals to write
prescriptions.
Pharmacists
92
These professionals are licensed to diagnose oral disease but aren’t licensed to write
prescriptions.
Dental hygienists
93
This is a practice based on a theory that disease results from lack of normal nerve function
and that medications aren’t needed to restore health.
Chiropractic
94
Who regulates the Pharmaceuticals Industry?
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
95
Pharmaceutical manufacturers have _______ protection after discovering a new drug.
Patent
96
True or False? The National Drug Code (NDC) is a series of 10 digits that identify the
manufacturer, product, and package size.
False
97
True or False? NDC numbers are unique for every prescription product.
True
98
True or False? Generic products have exclusive marketing rights.
False
99
A drug monograph is a concise description of the actions of a drug and is a printed document
that has been reviewed and approved by the _______.
FDA
100
2. A package insert is a copy of a/an _______ and accompanies the drug in its package.
Drug Monograph
101
What are the three reasons the FDA revised the layout and content of the package insert?
1) To reduce medication errors.
2) To provide proper risk-management information
3) To provide the most up-to-date data in an easier to read / navigate fortmat
102
True or False? All existing drugs must now follow the revised package insert format.
False
103
. True or False? Every drug monograph must always use the same printing style and format for
presenting information.
False
104
True or False? With both the older-style format and the revised format, the FDA regulates the
type of information that must be presented, along with the order in which it must appear.
True
105
The _______ section contains material that warns of serious injury and even death when the
drug is used in certain situations.
Boxed Warnings
106
In the revised package insert format, what is the maximum length of the Highlights section?
1/2 page
107
In the revised package insert format, what section contains information about use of the drug
in pregnancy?
Use in specific populations
108
What is the mechanism of action of Vasotec?
Vasotec works by suppression of the renin-angiotensinaldosterone
system.
109
Colazal (balsalazide disodium) is delivered intact to the ________ where it’s cleaved by
bacterial azoreduction.
Colon
110
The binding of Colazal (balsalazide) to human plasma proteins was _______.
> 99%
111
How long after oral dosing does the peak serum level for Vasotec occur?
1 hour
112
5. Is the absorption of enalapril from the gastrointestinal tract influenced by food?
No
