UE Coaching Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Sternoclavicular joint is what type of joint?

a. Synovial ball and socket
b. Synovial double plane joint
c. Saddle
d. B & C
e. AOTA

A
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2
Q

What movement is important for a complete upward rotation or scapular shoulder flexion and abduction?

a. Retraction
b. Hyperextension
c. Protraction
d. Posterior rotation of the clavicle

A
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3
Q

Ligament important in protecting the subclavian artery and brachial plexus

a. Coracoclavicular Ligament
b. Sternoclavicular ligament
c. Interclavicular Ligament
d. NOTA

A
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4
Q

A biker fell on his left shoulder during a sports event. After medical examination by a physician, it was reported that the athlete’s shoulder was “separated.” Pain and swelling was noted at the point of the shoulder accompanied by a “step-off” deformity. What might have caused this deformity?

a. Torn costoclavicular ligament
b. Torn acromioclavicular ligament
c. Torn coracohumeral ligament
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C

A
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5
Q

The clavicle fails to rotate after 90 degrees of shoulder flexion, Which movement would most probably not be completed?

a. scapular adduction
b. humeral external rotation
c. humeral internal rotation
d. scapular upward rotation

A
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6
Q

What type of joint is the Glenohumeral joint?

a. Synovial Ball & Socket
b. Universal
c. Spheroidal
d. A & B
e. AOTA

A
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7
Q

Which of the following is prevented by the coracoacromial ligament?

a. Upward translation of the humeral head
b. External rotation
c. Downward translation of the humeral head
d. Inferior subluxation

A
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8
Q

What is the limitation of the inferior glenohumeral ligament?

a. Anterior translation
b. Superior translation
c. Posterior translation
d. Inferior translation
e. AOTA

A
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9
Q

What does inferior glenohumeral ligament limit?

A. Anterior translation
B. posterior translation
C. Inferior translation
D. AOTA

A
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10
Q
  1. Which of the following provide Negative translatory force?

I. Supraspinatus
II. Deltoids
III. Infraspinatus
IV. Subscapularis
V. Teres Minor

a. I, III and V
b. I, II, IV and V
c. I and II only
d. III, IV and V
e. NOTA

A
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11
Q
  1. A person is carrying a 12-kilogram bag with one hand. Which of the following is/are responsible for keeping the humeral head apposed to the glenoid cavity

a. Biceps
b. All of these
c. Teres Minoor
d. Deltoid
e. Triceps

A
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12
Q
  1. Which statements are correct about abduction of the arm at shoulder?

I. High translatory force of the deltoid may cause jamming of the humeral head at the coracoacromial arch, thus ITS muscle need to contract simultaneously to provide inferior translator force to complete shoulder abduction
II. Abduction is produced by means of the deltoid and supraspinatus muscles working together
III. External rotation of the humerus accompanies complete abduction
IV. Several muscles acts as force couple to attain shoulder abduction

a. I, II and III
b. I and III
c. II and IV
d. IV only
e. AOTA

A
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13
Q
  1. Which of the following statements correctly describe abduction of the arm at the shoulder?

I. The rotator cuff muscles depress the head of the humerus during shoulder abduction to prevent impingement of the humerus on the acromion
II. Internal rotation of the humerus accompanies complete
III. Abduction is produced by means of the deltoid and supraspinatus muscles working together.
IV. External rotation of the humerus accompanies complete abduction.
V. Abduction is more powerful in the position of external rotation than in the position of internal rotation

a. I, II, III and IV
b. I, II, and IV
c. I, III, IV, and V
d. I, IV, and V

A
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14
Q
  1. The trapezius and serratus anterior:

a. Act synergistically in abduction
b. Act as synergists in upward rotation and antagonists in protraction and retraction
c. Act as synergists in retraction and antagonists in upward and downward rotation
d. Act as synergists in upward rotation and antagonists in depression

A
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15
Q

In what movement of the scapula are the upper and lower trapezius and Serratus Anterior muscles synergists:

a. Scapular retraction
b. Upward rotation
c. Scapular protraction
d. Scapular elevation

A
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16
Q
  1. Which of the following statements do NOT apply to elbow flexion range of motion?

a. It has hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm.
b. The contact of the muscles between the forearm and arm can stop the motion
c. The subjects with little soft-tissue have a hard end-feel
d. The normal variation is between 120 to 160 degrees

A
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17
Q
  1. Elbow flexor tested when the forearm is supinated.

a. Pronator teres
b. Biceps brachii
c. Brachialis
d. Brachioradialis
e. Anconeus

A
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18
Q
  1. Contraction of the brachioradialis during resisted elbow flexion exemplifies what class of lever?

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. NOTA

A
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19
Q
  1. The 50-year-old female patient presented with an R-U fracture (fracture of both the radius and ulnar). ROM exercises are very important since this forearm movement may be affected which may lead to difficult hand function. Which forearm movements are these?

a. Wrist DF and PF
b. Pronation-supination
c. Flexion-extension
d. Radial and ulnar deviation

A
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20
Q
  1. The following applies to radio-ulnar articulation, EXCEPT the:

a. proximal joint lies within the capsule of the elbow joint.
b. axis of motion is represented proximally by a line through the center of head of the ulna and distally through the center of the head of the radius.
c. radius rotate in relation to the ulna due to the connection between them.
d. one degree of freedom allows pronation and supination only.

A
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21
Q
  1. The annular ligament at the elbow facilitates which of the following motions?

a. Extension of the elbow
b. Pronation of the forearm and flexion of the elbow
c. Supination of the forearm and flexion of the elbow
d. Pronation and supination of the forearm

A
22
Q
  1. In order to isolate the action of the supinator from the biceps during forearm supination, the action should be done _____ (proximally) to the center of _____ (distally)

a. Either slowly or quickly
b. Quickly
c. Slowly
d. Moderately

A
23
Q
  1. The following statements describe the wrist: EXCEPT:

a. In abduction, the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum shift medially.
b. The scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum shift laterally in adduction.
c. Due to reinforcement provided by fibers, the carpus is forced to move with the radius as a unit during pronation-supination.
d. Because the joint is ellipsoidal, movements can occur only in the three axes of the ellipse.
e. It can be flexed, extended, abducted or adducted.

A
24
Q

The stability of the wrist joint principally depends on:

a. Ligaments
b. Intrinsic muscles of the hand
c. Capsule
d. Extrinsic muscles of the hand

A
25
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding the Ulna:

a. With an ulnar-positive variance, there is a potential for impingement of the TFCC structures between the distal ulna and the triquetrum.
b. Ulnar negative variance is described as a very short ulna in comparison with the radius at their distal ends
C. In Ulnar positive variance, the distal ulna is very long in relation to the distal radius
d. AOTA

A
26
Q
  1. To assess for TFCC tears, which of the following procedures must be performed?

a. The OT applies pressure on the distal ulna
b. The examiner applies axial compression through the fourth and fifth metacarpals
c. The examiner axially loads and deviates the wrist radially
d. Patient actively makes a fist and squeezes as hard as possible
e. None of these

A
27
Q
  1. During wrist flexion at what joint(s) does the motion occur?

a. Midcarpal joint only
b. Majority at the radiocarpal joint with some motion at the midcarpal joint
c. Majority at the midcarpal joint with some motion at the radiocarpal joint
d. Radiocarpal joint only

A
28
Q

In wrist extension, which joint moves first?

a. Radiocarpal Joint
b. Midcarpal joint
C. Distal radioulnar joint
d. NOTA

A
29
Q

In wrist extension, majority of movements occur at?

a Radiocarpal Joint
b. Midcarpal joint
c. Distal radioulnar joint
d. NOTA

A
30
Q
  1. The following statements describe the triquetrium EXCEPT:

a. Lies just distal to the ulnar styloid process, in the proximal row
b. It lies under the pisiform
c. Palpated by radially deviating the hand
d. Third highest of all the carpal bones in incidence of fracture
e. Formed within the flexor ulnaris tendon

A
31
Q
  1. The trapezium & 1st metacarpal form what kind of joint?

a. Condyloid
b. Hinge
c. Pivot
d. Saddle

A
32
Q
  1. True of the anatomic snuffbox:

I. Bounded medially by the EPL (Extensor pollicis longus)
II. Contains the radial artery and the superficial radial nerve
III. Laterally bounded by the EPB (Extensor Pollicis Brevis) and APL (Adductor pollicis longus)
IV. The floor is made up of the scaphoid and triquetrum bone
V. Tenderness within the snuffbox may lead to suspicion of scaphoid fracture

a. All of these
b. I, II, III
c. I, II, III, V
d. I, II, V
e. I, III, V

A
33
Q
  1. The volar surfaces of the forearm, wrist and hand, are divided into five flexor zones which when lacerated, can present with symptoms that are consistent with the structures injured in that specific zone. Which of the following would BEST describe the consequences of an injury to Zone II?

a. Inability to complete a full fist due to rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus
b. Loss of wrist and digital flexion, with damage to the ulnar and median nerves
c. Disruption of MCP flexion due to rupture of the lumbricales
d. Inability to flex the PIP and DIP due to injury to extrinsic finger flexors

A
34
Q

Flexor tendon zone IV injury may damage which nerves?

a. Ulnar only
b. Median & ulnar
c. Median only
d. Radial only

A
35
Q
  1. Loss of innervation of the biceps brachii results from injury to which part of the brachial plexus?

a. Lateral Cord
b. Musculocutaneous nerve
c. Both of these
d. None of these

A
36
Q

Injury to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus would affect which nerve?

a. Medial brachial cutaneous
b. Musculocutaneous
c. Suprascapular
d. Nerve to subclavius

A
37
Q

Median Nerve Originates from which cord/s of the brachial plexus?

a. Medial
b. Lateral & Medial
c. Posterior
d. Posterior & Lateral

A
38
Q
  1. Which muscle does NOT flex the hand at the wrist joint?

a. Flexor carpi ulnaris
b. Pronator teres
c. Palmaris longus
d. Flexor carpi radialis

A

b. Pronator teres

39
Q
  1. A new patient referred for PT is complaining of inability to reach his back pocket for his wallet, comb his hair or reach above shoulder level. He may have joint contracture affecting which of the following movements?

a. Shoulder extension, adduction, internal rotation
b. Shoulder flexion, abduction, external rotation
c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, internal rotation
d. Shoulder flexion, adduction, internal rotation

A

Shoulder flexion, abduction, external rotation

40
Q
  1. Klumpke’s palsy involves the following nerve roots:

a. C6-C7
b. C7-C8
C. C4-C5
d. C8-T1
e. T1-T2

A

d. C8-T1

41
Q
  1. The roots of the brachial plexus are the following:

a. C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1
b. C6, C7, C8, T1 and T2
c. C3, C4, C5, C6 and C7
d. C4, C5, C6, C7 and C8

A

C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1

42
Q
  1. Which of the following statements describe the Flexor Digitorum Superficialis?

I. It flexes the distal interphalangeal joint
II. The chief joint that it flexes is the proximal interphalangeal joint
III. Both the Superficialis and Profundus act to clench the fist
IV. Either the Superficialis or Profundus can act to clench the fist
V. It is supplied by the median nerve

a. I, III and IV
b. I, IV and V
c. II, III, and V
d. I, II and III

A

c. II, III, and V

43
Q
  1. A male client with limited shoulder range of motion explains that he has difficulty wiping himself after going to the bathroom. How much shoulder range of motion is required to successfully complete toileting activities?

a. 75
b. 30
c. 45
d. 40

A

d. 40

44
Q
  1. The posterior deltoid muscle fibers produce which of the following shoulder motions?

a. Abduction, external rotation and extension
b. Extension and external rotation
c. Flexion and extension
d. Extension and abduction

A

b. Extension and external rotation

45
Q
  1. When a muscle crosses more than one joint, the muscle not only has an effect on each joint but is in tum influenced by the position of the joints. The following muscles cross more than one joint EXCEPT:

a. biceps brachi
b. triceps brachii
c. anconeus
d. pronator teres

A

c. anconeus

46
Q
  1. The following statements describe the acromioclavicular joint EXCEPT:

a. no loss of scapular rotation was apparent with acromioclavicular joint fixation
b. range of motion of the scapula is equal to the sum of sternoclavicular and acromioclavicular ranges of motion.
c. the joint has two axes and two degrees of freedom. It contributes 20 degrees of scapular elevation and about 20 degrees of upward rotation during full arm elevation.
d. the glenoid fossa is aligned with the humeral head during shoulder flexion or abduction through small anterior and posterior movements of the acromion

A

c. the joint has two axes and two degrees of freedom. It contributes 20 degrees of scapular elevation and about 20 degrees of upward rotation during full arm elevation.

47
Q
  1. Which of the following statements describe the supraspinatus?

I. Stabilized the head of the humerus by pulling over the top of the head while the Deltoid pulls upward on the midshaft of the humerus and Teres, along with Teres Major, II. Is essential to the normal adduction of the humerus
III. Is important at the end of abduction when the deltoid is pulling directly upward along the length of the humerus
IV. Also helps produce smooth abduction at the shoulder joint by pulling downward and stabilizing the head of the humerus
V. Stabilizes the head of the humerus by pulling over the side of the head while the Deltoid pulls inward on the midshaft of the humerus

a. l and IV
b. Il and V
c. II and IV
d. I and III

A

I & IV (IV is the continuation of the statement 1)

48
Q
  1. Intersection syndrome involves which of the following muscles:

a abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
b. extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis
c. BOTH
d. NOTA

A

c. BOTH

49
Q
  1. The biceps muscle gets its innervation from which part of the Brachial plexus?

a. Middle trunk
b. Medial cord
c. Posterior cord
d. Lateral cord

A

d. Lateral cord

50
Q
  1. The suprascapular nerve innervates which muscle?

a. Triceps
b. Biceps
c. Deltoid
d. Infraspinatus

A

d. Infraspinatus

51
Q
  1. Which of the following structures provide stability of the acromioclavicular joint?

I. Shape of the joint
II. Acromioclavicular ligament
III. Strong joint capsule
IV. Conoid and trapezoid

a. l and II
b. I and III
c. IV only
d. II and IV

A

d. II and IV

52
Q
  1. The ability to hold the arms extended above the head is impaired in weakness of the shoulder girdle from any cause. The following statements are true when testing for shoulder and arm strength EXCEPT:

A. Painful atrophic shoulder joint will limit movement and seriously interfere in the diagnosis of a neurologic lesion.
b. When weakness of the deltoid interferes with scapular winging testing, another method is to push against the wall with outstretched arms, first one side and then the other.
c. Impairment in function of the trapezius, serratus anticus or other muscles stabilizing the shoulder girdle may compromise the ability of the deltoid to hold the arms abducted at 90° against the examiner’s downward pressure.
d. When the serratus anticus is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be displaced medialward and up.

A

d. When the serratus anticus is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be displaced medialward and up.