Tumor (2008-2019) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Components of Mirel Criteria (2012)
A
  • Pain
  • Location
  • Matrix
  • Size
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2
Q
  1. 70 year old with metastatic bone disease and pathological midshaft femur fracture. Has history consistent with thyroid mets. (2010, 2014)
  • what is the best surgical management for the fracture?
  • what intervention should be considered pre-op?
  • what medication should be used postop for the skeletal system?
  • what other treatment should be instituted at the fracture site to reduce local recurrence/expansion?
A

what is the best surgical management for the fracture?

  • Cephalomedullary nail

what intervention should be considered pre-op?

  • Embolization (renal and thyroid mets)

what medication should be used postop for the skeletal system?

  • bisphosphonates

what other treatment should be instituted at the fracture site to reduce local recurrence/expansion?

  • Radiation therapy
  • Decreases likelihood of progression and to relieve pain
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3
Q
  1. 60 yo woman with breast CA and multiple lesions. You are shown an pelvic AP xray with a large supraacetabular lesion with significant bone loss. No protrusion, acetabular sourcil was intact, but bone loss started approximately 3 mm superior to that.
  2. Uncemented THA
  3. Protrusio cup with a cemented femoral component
  4. PMMA and screws and cage with a cemented femoral component
  5. Standard cemented THA
A

ANSWER: C

2013

  • Biermann JS (JBJS 2009) Metastatic bone disease: diagnosis, evaluation and treatment
  • “Reconstruction of peri-acetabular defects requires a stable construct that distributes weight from the lower extremity to the remaining pelvis and spine. This may be accomplished with use of a standard reconstruction cup, an antiprotrusio cage, PMMA +/- screw augmentation as described by Harrington”
  • “Lesions that do no breach the joint may be treated withs crews or pins and PMMA, whereas a larger defect is better treated with an antiprotrusio cage that bypasses the lytic zone and rests on solid bone”
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4
Q

4.An 80yo female with a history of breast cancer treated with mastectomy, lymph node dissection, and radiation with no recurrence 20 years ago presents with a humeral lesion which is sclerotic, and associated with an ossified soft tissue mass. Most likely diagnosis is?

  1. Metastatic breast cancer
  2. Myeloma
  3. Osteosarcoma
  4. Chondrosarcoma
A

ANSWER: C

2008, 2014

  • Osteoblastic Metastasis:
  • Suva LJ (Nature Review 2011) Bone Metastasis: mechanism and therapeutic opportunities
  • Osteosclerotic metastases via secretion of endothelin-1 which decreases DKK-1 –> less Wnt Suppression
  • Weldin JSES 2010:
  • 208 patients with metastatic lesions of the humerus
  • 64% breast, 30% kidney
  • HOWEVER –> metastatic disease does not usually have a soft tissue component, therefore this is much more likely to be osteosarcoma (probably post-radiation)
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5
Q

5.60 yo male with known metastatic renal ca with impending pathologic fracture through lytic lesion 5 cm distal to lesser trochanter. Best treatment?

  1. Short cephallomedullary nail locked distally
  2. Long cephalomedullary nail locked distally
  3. Regular IM nail locked statically
  4. Regular IM nail locked dynamically
A

ANSWER: B

2011, 2013

No need to diagnosis, just stabilize whole femur

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6
Q
  1. 66 yo male with history of bladder cancer 2 yrs prior, surgery, no adjuvant therapy needed. Yesterday stumbled and hurt leg and suffered transverse fracture of midshaft femur. X-ray given with mottled edges, no obvious soft tissue or intra-diaphyseal mass. CT C/A/P, blood work all normal. Bone scan lights up at fracture site. What is next step?
  2. Antegrade IM nail
  3. Retrograde IM nail
  4. Biopsy
  5. Antegrade nail, then send reaming for biopsy, then get Prism to call CMPA for you
A

ANSWER: C

2012

Remote cancer with new lesion = biopsy

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7
Q
  1. Older guy with metastatic cancer and 6 months to live. Aggressive Peritrochanteric lesion with LT avulsion. How do you treat?
  2. Palliative
  3. Non WB and chemo
  4. Non WB and rads
  5. Prophylactic Cephalomedullary nail
A

ANSWER: D

2012

  • Argument:
  • Palliative treatment would be more acceptable with shorter survival expectancy (weeks)
  • Do not want to make this patient non-weightbearing at all
  • Chemo in tumor types that are extremely sensitive (lymphoma) would be reasonable but still high risk area that has already had pathologic fracture
  • Radiation appropriate if combined with fixation
  • McCalden would do arthroplasty – makes more sense
  • Somewhat difficult without more information
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8
Q
  1. Regarding core needle biopsy, all are true except:
    a. Saves a surgical procedure
    b. Must resect the tract
    c. A viable tumour can be accessed with image guidance
    d. Biopsy should be in line with planned surgical incision
A

ANSWER: B (old answer)

2015

Argument –> don’t need to resect the tract if it is benign pathology

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9
Q
  1. Patient comes in with hypercalcemia, positive electrophoresis and multiple lytic lesions in the pelvis. What is the next step in management? 
  2. Fix the pelvis
  3. Bone scan
  4. Skeletal survey
  5. Drink martini
A

ANSWER: C

2012

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10
Q
  1. List 5 steps to systemically stage an Ewing’s sarcoma. (2012, 2014)
A
  • CT Chest
  • Bone Scan
  • Bone Marrow Biopsy
  • Lab Studies - LDH
  • Molecular studies - FISH
  • Local Staging - X-ray whole bone, MRI
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11
Q
  1. What are 5 prognostic factors for osteosarcoma (2013)
A

JAAOS 2009 - Osteosarcoma

  • Metastatic disease
  • Tumor grade (conventional vs surface)
  • Primary tumor located in axial skeleton
  • Large tumor volume
  • Increased ALP/LDH
  • Poor response to chemo (<90% necrosis)
  • Secondary sarcoma
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12
Q
  1. List 4 extra-osseous features of fibrous dysplasia. (2011, 2013)
A

JAAOS 2004 - Fibrous Dysplasia

McCune Albright - Café-au-lait spots, precocious puberty

Mazabraud - Soft tissue myxomas

Metabolic Syndromes - hyperthyroidism, hypophosphatemia, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, Hyperprolactinemia

Cherubism - eye deviation and blindness

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13
Q
  1. Shown a photo of fibrous dysplasia. Told that a new lytic lesion developed. (2016)
  • List ONE benign cause
  • List ONE malignant cause
A
  • List ONE benign cause - ABC
    • Diercks RL (JBJS Br 1986) ABC in association with fibrous dysplasia
    • Mintz MC (Radiol 1987) ABC arising in fibrous dysplasia during pregnancy
  • List ONE malignant cause - Sarcoma (osteosarcoma > fibrosarcoma > chondrosarcoma)
    • JAAOS 2004 - Fibrous Dysplasia
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14
Q
  1. A 23 y.o. male has 4 month history of increasing pain in proximal phalanx of middle finger. Not shown the x-ray, but told that there is a lytic lesion that the radiologist thinks is benign. List 7 possible diagnoses (2009, 2010)
A

JAAOS 2016 - Enchondroma of the Hand

  • Infections and Tumor-like Conditions
    • Pyogenic osteomyelitis
    • Cystic tuberculosis
    • Coccidiodomycosis
    • ABC
    • UBC
    • Intra-osseous Epidermal Inclusion cyst
  • Benign Tumor:
    • Enchondroma
    • GCT
    • Chondroblastoma
  • Malignant Tumor:
    • Chondrosarcoma
    • Ewing Sarcoma
    • Lymphoma
    • Osteogenic osteosarcoma
    • Acrometastasis
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15
Q
  1. List 3 predictors for successful treatment of UBC of the proximal humerus with methylprednisone (2010)
A
  • Older age
  • Single cystic component
  • Proximity to the physis
  • Multiple injections
  • Although most UBCs resolve by the time the patient reaches skeletal maturity, patient age and the location of the cyst within the physis are predictors of successful treatment that may aid clinicians in counseling patients and their families about the expected clinical course. For some authors, the only predictor of successful treatment is the age of the patient; patients older than 10 years heal at a higher rate (90%) than do younger patients (60%), no matter what treatment regimen is used.32 Alternatively, a lesion located ,2 cm from the physis may be a risk factor for recurrence.45 The risk of recurrence, however, may be related to the treatment modality used rather than the location of the lesion. Surgeons are likely to be less aggressive when the cyst is closer to the physis to avoid the potential for physeal damage.
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16
Q
  1. Chondrosarcoma - list 3 factors for prognosis before planning definitive treatment.(2015)
A

JAAOS - Cartilage Tumors

  • Histologic grading - grade 1 vs Grade 2/3
  • Staging/Metastasis
  • Location - Axial vs Peripheral Skeleton vs Hand

Andreou D (Acta Orthop 2011)

  • Increased size > 100cc
  • Older age (>40)
  • High grade tumor

Sjoerd PFT (Sarcoma 2015)

  • Dedifferentiated subtype
  • Pathologic fracture
  • Local recurrence

Orthobullets:

  • Increased telomerase activity
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17
Q
  1. A patient with an osteoid osteoma of the C5 lamina is seen in clinic. She has been refractory to non-op treatment. What is the next step?
  2. Radiofrequency ablation
  3. En bloc resection
  4. Curettage and bone grafting
  5. Resection and fusion
A

ANSWER – A (if compression or spinal deformity = en bloc resection)

  • Tough question. Old group spoke to Lewkonia, he says that with new ablation tips, the risk to dura/roots is minimal unless there is significant compression by the lesion, which in this case there isn’t.
  • Argument for B vs C:
  • Don’t really need to bone graft a lamina, also don’t need to fuse it
  • Parsons - no ablation in the spine
  • Random other consideration … if pediatric patient <15 years, then fusion reasonable because of high risk of progressive post-lami kyphosis
  • Vanderschueren GM (Spine 2009) RFA of spinal osteoid osteoma
  • Success in 79% of patients after one treatment, 96% after multiple treatments, 43% had persistent scoliosis
  • In our opinion, lesions abutting the dura can be safely treated with RFA with a 5-mm noncooled tip, because of the heat sink effects of the spinal fluid and venous plexus. The first successful RFA of such an osteoid osteoma (abutting the dura) was reported in 2000 by Dupuy et al. Two-thirds (16 of 24) of our patients had lesions <10 mm away from vital neural structures (Table 1). In only 1 patient RFA failed (Table 1), because the lesion in this patient caused nerve root compression, and, in retrospect, this patient should probably not have been considered for RFA. The 5-mm noncooled tip we used allows precise destruction of the target tissue. Other authors used a cooled tip to treat spinal osteoid osteomas. Although no complications occurred, a cooled tip is not recommended because of the risk of neural injury, related to the larger but also unpredictable size of the treatment zone.
  • We conclude that CT-guided RFA of spinal osteoid osteoma with a 5-mm non-cooled electrode tip is an effective treatment for spinal osteoid osteoma, and can be safely performed close to the dura or exiting nerve root. It should be the treatment of choice in lesions > 2 mm away from the nerve root, and surgery should be re- served for lesions adjacent (< 2 mm) to the nerve root causing nerve root compression. In addition, RFA is easily repeatable after unsuccessful treatment.
  • JAAOS Review: Benign Tumors of the Spine
  • Proximity of the lesion to neural structures may preclude the use of RFA, and use of these techniques may risk thermal damage to adjacent neural structures.
  • En bloc excision is recommended in patients with osteoid osteoma with associated fixed spinal deformity, with neurologic compression, or if RFA is deemed unsafe due to the anatomic location or has been previously unsuccessful.  
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18
Q
  1. Patient with pain to his lateral lower leg that is worse at night and was initially relieved with NSAIDs. CT shows a well organized sclerotic border with a central nidus. He has ongoing pain no longer relieved with NSAIDs. What would you do next?
  2. Currettage and bone grafting
  3. Radiofrequeny ablation
  4. Wide resection
  5. ?chemo or rads
A

ANSWER: B

2016

JAAOS 2011 - Osteoid Osteomas and Osteoblastomas

Radiofrequency ablation for everything except vertebral column, close to peripheral nerves, fingers, toes and carpal bones

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19
Q
  1. A 25yo female with (a few months?) of leg pain twists and feels a crack in her hip. X-rays (described, not given) show a sclerotic lesion with an ossified soft tissue mass. MRI shows a small hematoma. Biopsy showed osteoid. What is the most appropriate treatment?
  2. Traction, neoadjuvant chemo, wide resection, adjuvant chemotherapy
  3. Traction, neoadjuvant chemo, wide resection, adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation
  4. Wide resection and proximal femoral replacing prosthesis
  5. Immediate hip disarticulation and then chemo
A

ANSWER: A

2014

  • Osteosarcoma doesn’t respond to radiation so B wrong
  • C - need addition of chemotherapy
  • A vs D
  • Bacci G (Acta Orthop Scand 2003)Nonmetastatic osteosarcoma of the extremity with pathologic fracture at presentation: local and systemic control by amputation or limb salvage after preoperative chemotherapy.
  • ….We conclude that with neoadjuvant chemotherapy, osteosarcoma patients presenting with a pathologic fracture can be surgically treated like those with no fracture, and that limb salvage procedures do not increase the risk of local recurrence or death of these patients.
  • Pathological fractures in primary bone sarcomas. (Injury 2008)
  • Pathological fractures in patients with primary bone sarcomas should not be considered an absolute indication for amputation. Initial fracture management should include cast immobilization or external fixation avoiding tumour-cell dissemination. The extent of fracture displacement and the type of fracture stabilisation may affect the outcome of patients with primary bone sarcomas presenting with pathological fractures. Patients with high-grade primary bone sarcomas should be treated by neo-adjuvant chemotherapy, and limb-salvage surgery. Pathological fractures in chemo
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20
Q
  1. Concerning a giant cell tumour of the forearm, what is true:
  2. Occurs in the same age group as ABC
  3. Occurs after too much left handed masturbation while right hand is in a cast (a la Sheehan)
  4. Treated with resection and joint reconstruction
  5. Can often cause cortical thinning and invade surrounding soft tissues
A

ANSWER: D

2013

  • ABC common < 20 years, GCT common 20-40 years
  • ABC usually treated with intra-lesional curettage and grafting
  • D worded a bit awkward as tumor doesn’t usually invade, but can be locally aggressive
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21
Q
  1. Regarding GCT, all of the following are TRUE EXCEPT:
    a. Commonly involves the epiphysis
    b. Most often seen in patients <20yo
    c. Commonly osteogenic
    d. Can cause soft tissue extension and formation of a neocortex
A

ANSWER: B

2015

  • While GCT not generally “osteogenic” there is histologic evidence it is “osteoblastic”
  • Can occur in patients < age 20, but most commonly in age 20-40
  • Dumb Question
  • JAAOS 2013 - GCT of Bone
  • GCT of bone typically presents in persons aged 20-40 years
  • It is rare in adolescents and children
  • <10% of cases are seen in patients aged > 75
  • In most cases GCT occurs in metaphyseal and epiphyseal regions
  • They appear to expand the bone and may appear to expand the bone and elevate the periosteum, resulting in a thin periosteal shell
  • GCT of bone is a mesenchymal tumor in which the cell of origin is the fibroblastic-osteoblastic mononuclear cell that produces types I and II collagen.
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22
Q
  1. GCT lesions, what is true:
  2. Treated by en-block resection
  3. Can erode through cortex, and invade into soft tissues
  4. Have no potential to metastasis to the chest
A

ANSWER: B

2013

JAAOS 2013 - GCT of Bone

  • Prefer intra-lesional Curretage but can certainly treat with en-block resection
  • Adjacent soft tissues are invaded, a thin rim of bone is usually seen around the mass
  • GCT of bone has been reported to metastasize in 2% of cases
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23
Q
  1. All are true about treating GCT with curettage and cement vs. bone graft except?  
  2. Can immediately weight bear
  3. Easier detection of recurrence
  4. Decreases local recurrence
  5. Exothermic reaction can be helpful
A

ANSWER: C

2008, 2011

  • Algawahmed H (Sarcoma 2010) High speed burring with and without the use of surgical adjuvants in the intralesional management of GCT of Bone
  • Systematic review
  • No difference between high speed burr and additional PMMA
  • Blackley HR (JBJS 1999) Treatment of GCT of long bones with curettage and bone grafting
  • May cause 2-3mm of thermal necrosis in cancellous bone
  • Additional advantages of the use of cement include low cost, ease of use, lack of donor site morbidity, elimination of the risk of transmission of disease, immediate structural stability, potential for earlier detection of recurrence
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24
Q
  1. ABC in a 5 yo distal femur with slight valgus. All of the following are true except:
  2. MRI show fluid fluid levels
  3. Heal better with addition of an adjuvant such at cryotherapy
  4. Most regress spontaneously with age
  5. Associated with about 20% recurrence after treatment.
A

ANSWER: C

2013

JAAOS 2012- ABC

  • 20% recurrence rate
  • MRI showing fluid fluid levels is not pathognomonic but highly suggestive of ABC
  • Some cases of regression, but not common
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25
Q
  1. Chordoma involves S3 to S5. What is the appropriate treatment
  2. Wide resection and chemo
  3. Wide Resection, chemo, and radiation
  4. Wide resection and radiation
  5. Wide resection
A

ANSWER: D

2013

  • OKU MSK Tumors
  • “Like chondrosarcomas, chordomas are insensitive to chemotherapy and RT because of their slow growth…Surgery is the best option for a cure; however, because of the complex anatomy caused by the location of these neoplasms and the large size on presentation, chordomas are difficult to resect with wide margins….The usefulness of RT has not been established, but may be of benefit if you have positive resection margins.”
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26
Q
  1. What tumor is not typically located in the posterior spinal elements?
  2. ABC
  3. Chordoma
  4. Osteoblastoma
  5. Osteoid Osteoma
A

ANSWER: B

2016

  • JAAOS – Benign Tumors of the Spine
  • Osteoid Osteoma  “approximately 10% occur in the vertebrae, primarily in the posterior elements”
  • Most common cause of painful scoliosis in the adolescent population
  • Osteoblastoma:
  • Spine accounts for 28-36% of osteoblastomas
  • “typically arise in the posterior elements, although extension into the vertebral body is common with larger tumors”
  • Most common in lumbar spine
  • ABC:
  • 15% of primary spine tumors
  • Boriani (spine 2001) most lesions in posterior elements, 70% thoracolumbar
  • JAAOS – Chordoma of the Sacrum
  • Typically found in the midline of the neuroaxis, arise from intraosseous notochordal remnants
  • 50% sacrococcygeal, 35% sphenooccipital, 15% mobile spine
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27
Q
  1. MFH of bone treatment (PUS)
  2. Chemo and radiation
  3. Surgical excision and chemo
  4. Surgical excision and radiation
  5. Surgical excision
A

ANSWER: B

2011, 2013

  • AAOS OKU: MSK Tumors 2 (p. 198)
  • Most patients can be treated surgically with a limb-sparing surgical resection in lieu of amputation. In many cases, patients are treated with preoperative (induction or neoadjuvant) chemotherapy, and postoperative (adjuvant) chemotherapy…Radiation is rarely used in the treatment of MFH of bone, although it may be used for treatment of an unresectable tumor or for treatment following resection with close or microscopically positive margins.
  • Nishida J (Cancer 1997) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma of bone
  • Prognosis similar to osteosarcoma
  • Some patients had a good response to radiation therapy
  • Majority of patients had surgery alone
  • Jeon DG (CORR 2011) MFH of bone and osteosarcoma show similar survival and chemosensitivity
  • Patients with MFH-B and osteosarcoma have similar survival rates and histologic responses to chemotherapy
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28
Q
  1. Given a AP Pelvis xray with fibrous dysplasia with destroyed hip. What is the best type of bone graft to use.
  2. Cortical allograft
  3. Cancellous allograft
  4. Cortical autograft
  5. Cancellous autograft
A

ANSWER: A

2013

DiCaprio M (JBJS 2005) Current Concepts Review Fibrous Dysplasia

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29
Q
  1. Given an x-ray showing fibrous dysplasia. What is this not associated with or not at risk for?
  2. Pleomorphic undifferentiated sarcoma= MFH
  3. Chondrosarcoma
  4. Osteosarcoma
  5. Fibrosarcoma
A

ANSWER: 2020-2021 consensus asnwer is A

[B (was previously changed to A)]

2016

  • JAAOS Fibrous Dysplasia 2004
  • Malignant transformation in about 0.5% of patients with monostotic disease and 4% with McCune-Albright
  • Malignant degeneration to osteosarcoma most common, but fibrosarcoma, chondrosarcoma or MFH sometimes develops
  • Ruggieri (Cancer 1994)
  • Review of 28 malignant transformations:
  • 19 osteosarcoma, 5 fibrosarcoma, 3 chondrosarcoma, 1 MFH
  • Yabut (CORR 1988)
  • Review of literature – 83 cases
  • Osteosarcoma (40 cases)
  • Fibrosarcoma (22 cases)
  • Chondrosarcoma (11 cases)
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30
Q
  1. What is true about fibrous dysplasia:
  2. It is a developmental malformation of bone
  3. Monostotic is often symptomatic
  4. Polyostotic is more common
  5. Xray and MRI are necessary for diagnosis 
A

ANSWER: A

2015

  • JAAOS 2004/JBJS 2005 Current Concepts
  • 80% are monostotic
  • Inability of bone to produce mature lamellar bone, tissue is arrested in woven bone stage
  • Results in a mass of immature trabeculae in dysplastic fibrous tissue with slow turnover and mineralization –> low mechanical strength
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31
Q
  1. What is a characteristic of an NOF
  2. Epiphyseal
  3. Eccentric
  4. Multi-loculated
  5. Less than 1cm
A

ANSWER: B

2012

  • JAAOS 2004 - Metaphyseal Fibrous Defects
  • Non-ossifying fibromas are larger than fibrous cortical defects, occupy an eccentric location in the medullary cavity of long-bone metaphyses and usually involve but do not breach the cortex
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32
Q
  1. 8 year old boy with proximal phalanx fracture. Shown well circumscribed lesion with stippled calcification. What to do?
  2. Amputate (O’Neill style)
  3. Open biopsy
  4. Reduce and immobilize
  5. CRPP
A

ANSWER: C

2011, 2012

JAAOS 2016 - Enchondroma of the Hand

  • Traditionally, enchondroma-related pathologic fractures have been treated with 1-2 months of immobilizations to allow healing before curettage (adults)
  • I asked Dhaliwal about this and he agrees that the majority of people still allow the fractures to heal first then treat the enchondroma down the road once ROM regained
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33
Q
  1. What is the most common primary malignant tumor in the hand?
  2. MFH
  3. Osteosarcoma
  4. Chondrosarcoma
  5. Fibrosarcoma
A

ANSWER - C

2014

  • JAAOS 2006 Malignant Tumors of the Hand and Wrist
  • “Chondrosarcoma is the most common malignant bone tumor in the hand”
  • Although osteosarcoma is the most common primary bone tumor in children and adolescents, fewer than 40 cases in the hand have been reported
  • Baumhoer D (JHS Eur 2010) Tumours of the hand: a review on histology of bone malignancies
  • Primary malignant tumours of the hands are extremely rare
  • benign bone tumours were much more common, representing 12% of all non-malignant postcranial lesions, of which nearly 50% were enchondromas.
  • Malignant bone tumours of the hand comprise basically all types of bone sarcomas. However, according to the literature and to our experience, chondrosarcomas outnumber by far all variants of osteosarcomas, Ewing sarcomas/ PNETs (primitive neuroectodermal tumours) as well as other tumours, e.g. fibrosarcomas, leiomyosarcomas and angiosarcomas, the latter generally being reported as single cases.
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34
Q

  1. Tumors; all except:
  2. Retinoblastoma (it said RF-1) is associated with increased risk of OS
  3. Neurofibrillin (NF-1) gene is associated with malignant nerve tumors
  4. MET with Chondrosarcoma
  5. NF and Astrocytoma
  6. Sudbury = cool (none of the above)
A

ANSWER: E

  • 2012
  • Recall issues, all schools had different stems
  • Other schools had NF and CNS tumors –> which would be correct
  • Retinoblastoma definitely associated with osteosarcoma
  • NF associated with MPNST
  • Evans ()
  • Risk of developing and dying from MPNST 8-13% (lifetime)
  • Bikowska-Opalach B (Histo Histopath 2014) Pilocytic astrocytoma: a review of genetic and molecular factors…
  • The most important causative factors seem to be NF1 gene inactivation and BRAF gene overexpression
  • MET = multiple enchondromatosis (?) then yes IF Maffucci
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35
Q
  1. Conditions associated with secondary development of Chondrosarcomas (all except)
  2. Olliers
  3. Mafuccis
  4. MHE
  5. McCune Albright syndrome
A

ANSWER: D

2008, 2012

Ollier’s Disease –> multiple enchondromatosis –> chondrosarcoma

Mafucci’s Disease –> multiple enchondromatosis –> chondrosarcoma

MHE –> osteochondroma –> chondrosarcoma

McCune Albright –> fibrous dysplasia –> fibrosarcoma, osteosarcoma, MFH

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36
Q
  1. All are true about multiple enchondromas (Oilliers or Maffuci’s) except?
  2. Not an inherited condition
  3. If associated with hemangiomas and viscera, can be life threatening
  4. Associated with angular deformities
  5. Prognosis of a patient that develops a secondary chondrosarcoma is worse than a patient who develops it from a solitary enchondroma.
A

ANSWER: D

2011

JAAOS 2010 - Secondary Chondrosarcoma

  • No genetic predisposition for inheritance of Ollier or Maffucci
  • Maffucci has near 100% transformation into chondrosarcoma classically, studies show more accurate is probably 15-20%
  • Patients are at higher risk for chondrosarcoma, but it has the same prognosis as isolated chondrosarcoma
  • According to Peter Ferguson –> secondary chondrosarcomas have a BETTER prognosis than de novo ones
  • From Orthobullets on Ollier’s
  • Involved bones are dysplastic, with shortening and bowing
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37
Q
  1. All of the following are associated with osteosarcoma EXCEPT?
  2. Radiation
  3. Paget’s
  4. Li Fraumeni
  5. Hand-Schuller-Christian
A

ANSWER - D

2014

  • JAAOS - Osteosarcoma
  • Genetic pre-disposition commonly involves mutations in tumor suppressor genes…Li Fraumeni syndrome and retinoblastoma
  • Post-radiation and Paget’s Sarcoma
  • Hand Schuller Christian —> eosinophilic granuloma (exopthalmos, diabetes insipidus)
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38
Q
  1. All of the following genetics and tumor syndromes have been found to be associated, except:
  2. Retinoblastoma (Rp-1) and osteosarcoma
  3. NF-1 and malignant central nervous system tumors
  4. EXT-1 and EXT-2 and multiple osteochondromas
  5. Chromosomal translocation and Ewing family of tumors
A

ANSWER: B

 2016

  • Rb/Osteosarc
  • JAAOS 2009 – Osteosarcoma
  • “Tumor suppressor genes normally regulate the cell cycle; mutations will result in uncontrolled cell proliferation as seen in Li-Fraumeni syndrome, involving the p53 gene, or retinoblastoma, involving the RB1 gene”
  • NF-1 and malignant CNS
  • JAAOS – Orthopedic Manifestations of NF
  • Increased risk of MPNST, melanoma, leukemia, rhabdomyosarcoma, pheo, carcinoma, pancreatic endocrine tumors and astrocytic tumors
  • Astrocytomata is benign CNS tumor, MPNST is PNS
  • Definitely evidence out there than CNS tumors associated with NF
  • EXT/Osteochondroma
  • JAAOS 2005 Manifestations of HME
  • Chromosome/Ewings:
  • JAAOS 2010 – Ewing’s Sarcoma Family of Tumors
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39
Q
  1. What is true regarding unicameral (simple) bone cysts?
  2. Methylprednisolone and marrow injection have equivalent outcomes
  3. Cross sectional area of the cyst determines the fracture risk
  4. 15-20% likelihood of spontaneous resolution following fracture in the upper extremity
  5. Malignant transformation is more likely to occur after skeletal maturity
A

ANSWER - B

  • 2012, 2014 (similar themes)
  • JAAOS. 2014. UBC: General characteristics and management controversies
  • Spontaneous complete healing occurs in <10% of patients with a UBC as a result of traumatic decompression of the cyst caused by pathologic fracture
  • Risk factors for pathologic fracture associated with UBC include a cyst with a transverse diameter that is >85% of the diameter of the affected bone and a cyst wall that is <0.5 mm thick
  • Subsequent studies have failed to reproduce these findings, even following multiple steroid injections and anesthetics Although some studies have reported higher success rates with ABM than with steroids (52% versus 23%, respectively) and a lower recurrence rate (13% versus 42%, respectively), other studies found no advantage with the use of ABM
  • Unicameral bone cysts: a comparison of injection of steroid and grafting with autologous bone marrow. Cho HS; Oh JH; Kim HS; Kang HG; Lee SH. Journal of Bone & Joint Surgery - British Volume. 89(2):222-6, 2007 Feb.
  • The success rate after the initial procedure was 23.3% in the steroid group and 52.0% in those receiving autologous bone marrow (p<0.05), and the respective cumulative success rates after second injections were 63.3% and 80.0% (p>0.05). The mean number of procedures required was 2.19 (1 to 5) and 1.57 (1 to 3) (p<0.05), the mean interval to healing was 12.5 months (4 to 32) and 14.3 months (7 to 36) (p>0.05), and the rate of recurrence after the initial procedure was 41.7% and 13.3% in the steroid and in the autologous bone marrow groups, respectively (p<0.05). Although the overall rates of success of both methods were similar, the steroid group had higher recurrence after a single procedure and required more injections to achieve healing.
  • Wright JG (JBJS 2008) A RCT comparing intra-lesional bone marrow and steroid infection for simple bone cysts
  • Subsequent fracture and cyst area were significant associated with cyst healing at two years (less likely to heal)
  • No association between fracture and cyst activity, area, loculation, upper vs lower extremity or location within the bone
40
Q
  1. Regarding bone cysts, which is true:
  2. Autologous bone marrow injection has markedly improved outcomes compared to steroid injection
  3. ABC is rarely associated with formation of a neocortex
  4. UBC rarely expands the cortex beyond the width of the physis
  5. Recurrence is less likely with open physes
A

ANSWER: C

2015

  • JAAOS 2014 - UBC: General Characteristics and Management
  • UBCs appear as lytic, expansile lesions within the medullary cavity of a long bone. The cortex is thinned but typically is not compromised
  • ABC is a lytic, intramedulary bone lesion, with eccentric expansion and a transverse diameter that is wider than the epiphyseal plate
  • Prognosis is better with age > age 10 than under
  • Mixed evidence for ABM vs steroid injections, definitely not marked improvement
41
Q
  1. All of the following are bad prognostic signs of UBC treatment using injection of steroid except?
  2. Large size
  3. multiple septations
  4. radiographically active lesion
  5. calcaneal UBC
A

ANSWER: C (prev D)

2011

  • Lots of conflicting evidence
  • Flont P (Int Orthop 2013) Factors predictive of positive response to steroid therapy in simple bone cysts: an old trick that still works
  • Retrospective review of 62 patients
  • Recurrence affected by cyst location, number of cavities, area of cyst and Enneking stage
  • No difference: location in bone, cyst activity, presence of pathologic fracture
  • Wright JG (JBJS 2008) A RCT comparing intralesional bone marrow and steroid infection for simple bone cysts
  • Subsequent fracture and cyst area were significant associated with cyst healing at two years (less likely to heal)
  • No association between fracture and cyst activity, area, loculation, upper vs lower extremity or location within the bone
42
Q
  1. Picture of a lesion in a kid on the anterior cortex of the tibia (history of it needing tx). Tx?
  2. wide resection
  3. wide resection and chemo
  4. wide resection and radiation
  5. observe
A

ANSWER – A (if adamantinoma)…..D (if osteofibrous dysplasia)

2014

JAAOS 2010 - Osteofibrous dysplasia and adamantinoma

  • AD is a malignant lesion with metastatic potential. Chemotherapy and radiation have not been effective in the treatment of AD. Thus, surgical management is necessary, with the goal of attaining clear margins. Good results have been achieved with en bloc resection with wide margins, followed by appropriate reconstruction. Long-term surveillance is required for survivors of this low-grade, slowly progressing tumor. Local recurrence usually occurs 5 to 15 years after diagnosis, but it has been re- ported as late as 24 and 36 years after diagnosis. Metastases can also occur many years later, even after an initial resection with wide margins and a disease-free interval of ≥10 years. Metastases are managed with surgical resection. The 10-year survival rate was 87.2%.
43
Q
  1. What is associated with Adamantinoma?
  2. Osteofibrous dysplasia
  3. Fibrous dysplasia
  4. Enchondroma
  5. CN
A

ANSWER: A

2008

44
Q
  1. Which of the following is an immunohistochemical marker for Ewing’s sarcoma?
  2. S100
  3. CDA1
  4. CD99
  5. Cytokeratin
A

ANSWER - C

2012, 2014

  • ‘I got 99 problems and (Ewing) ain’t one’

Ewing’s sarcoma of bone. Moore DD. Haydon RC. Cancer Treatment & Research. 162:93-115, 2014.

  • Exact etiology is unknown but it commonly demonstrates reproducible staining of CD99 and translocations of the EWS gene.

 JAAOS 2010 - Ewing Sarcoma Family of Tumors

  • CD99 expressed in 95%
  • S-100 can be expressed
45
Q
  1. How do you distinguish between osteosarcoma and Ewing’s
  2. LDH
  3. ALP
  4. Nuclear Ploidy Testing
  5. Cytogenetics
A

ANSWER: D

2010

FISH!

46
Q
  1. 25 M with mass at the back of his knee. On xray there is a calcified lesion on posterior aspect of the distal femur. MRI shows that the neurovascular bundle is free of the lesion, there is no medullary involvement with the femur, and there is no soft tissue component. What is the best way to treat this? – parosteal osteosarcoma
  2. neoadjuvent chemo, wide resection, post-op chemo
  3. pre-op radiation, wide resection, post-op radiation
  4. wide resection
  5. debulking
A

ANSWER: C

2009, 2011

Presuming this is a parosteal osteosarcoma

AAOS Core Review:

Wide surgical resection is the treatment of choice

47
Q
  1. Chondroblastoma, all except
  2. Pain is the most common presenting symptom
  3. Often times localized pain is the only finding on examination
  4. The lesion is usually located in the metaphysis
  5. Treatment consists of curettage and bone grafting
A

ANSWER: C

2008

Lesions are usually epiphyseal

48
Q
  1. With regards to eosinophilic granuloma, all are true EXCEPT
  2. easy to diagnosis on radiograph
  3. can have onion skinning on radiograph
  4. can present as a radiolucent lytic lesion
  5. may be cold on Tc99 bone scan
A

ANSWER: A

2009

The great mimicker!

49
Q
  1. List 3 components of soft tissue sarcoma staging (AJCC score). (2015)
A

JAAOS - Soft Tissue Sarcoma

American Joint Commission on Cancer Staging of Soft-tissue Sarcoma

  • Grade
  • Tumor (size (5cm), depth of primary tumor (superficial vs deep to fascia) )
  • Regional Lymph Nodes
  • Distal Metastasis
50
Q
  1. List 4 long-term complications of radiation therapy for sarcoma treatment. (2011)
A
  • Secondary sarcoma
  • Fragility fracture
  • Growth arrest
  • Fibrosis/joint contracture
  • Osteonecrosis
  • Edema
  • Poor wound healing
51
Q
  1. In soft tissue sarcoma, other than metastatic disease, what are the 3 most important determinants of a worse prognosis (2012)
A

JAAOS - Soft Tissue Sarcomas

  • High histologic grade
  • Deep location
  • Size greater than 5cm

Lahat G (Annal Surg Onc 2008) New perspectives for staging and prognosis in soft tissue sarcoma

  • Size greater than 5cm
  • Non-extremity primary site (axial skeleton)
  • High histologic grade
  • Positive Tumor resection margins
  • Recurrent disease
52
Q
  1. Man with 20 years of tibia draining sinus after a fracture. In the last 4 months, it has increased size and amount of draining significantly. You are shown an xray with crazy amount of bone loss and picture of terrible soft tissues. What is the most likely diagnosis.
  2. Squamous cell carcinoma
  3. Fibrous sarcoma
  4. Osteosarcoma
  5. Chronic osteomyelitis
A

ANSWER: A

2013

JAAOS 2014 - Malignant Transformation in Chronic Osteomyelitis

  • Marjolin Ulcer
  • Usually aggressive squamous cell carcinoma
  • Other associated cancers BCC, fibrosarcoma, myeloma, angiosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, fibroblastic osteosarcoma, adenocarcinoma, B cell lymphoma, plasmacytoma, MFH, reticulosarcoma, fibroblastic osteosarcoma
53
Q
  1. A mom comes to your clinic after soft tissue sarcoma surgery and is worried about having kids. What do you counsel her?
  2. Children’s risk is low because its autosomal recessive
  3. Children’s risk is low because it’s usually a spontaneous mutation
  4. Children’s risk is high because it’s autosomal dominant
  5. Children’s risk is high because environmental exposure plays a large role
A

ANSWER: B

2013

Never had correct answer

Argument B - soft tissue sarcomas are usually spontaneous mutation

Argument A/C - young patients getting sarcomas may have a syndrome of some sort (? Which one and inheritance)

Li-Fraumeni - AD

Retinoblastoma - AD

NF - AD

54
Q
  1. 35yo male with café-au-lait lesions and multiple skin nodules. Presents with absent motor/sensory function in lower extremity and deep soft tissue mass in the posterior thigh. Most likely diagnosis?
  2. Neurofibroma
  3. Malignant nerve sheath tumor
  4. Schwannoma
  5. Lipoma
A

ANSWER: B

2015

Large, deep soft tissue mass with neurologic symptoms in setting of NF1

55
Q
  1. 65 yo male with previous resection for soft tissue tumour in the buttocks with approx half of glut max gone. Skin on ischium is sensitive and thin. Vascular studies show most distal level of perfusion is 2 cm below the tibial articular surface. Where should you amputate?
    a. Hip disarticulation
    b. Transfemoral
    c. Through knee
    d. BKA
A

ANSWER: A

2015

  • Elaborate thought process and argument by RD/JW, also discussed with Puloski
  • 2cm distal skin too little for BKA or through knee
  • Although ? Skin viability and level of perfusion equivalent
  • Transfemoral relies on ischial weightbearing prosthesis and with the thin skin this is not a viable option either
  • Therefore….hip disarticulation with anterior flap (takes care of thin skin at the same time)
56
Q
  1. What is true regarding atypical lipoma/differentiated liposarcoma?
  2. Some potential for metastasis (<1%)
  3. MDM2 gene amplification is rare
  4. Can dedifferentiate
  5. 10% risk of recurrence with resection
A

ANSWER: C (and D)

2015, 2016

Clay thinks should be an all are true except - in which case. the answer is B

  • Mavrogenis AF (Orthop 2011) Atypical Lipomatous Tumors/Well-Differentiated Liposarcomas
  • Slow growing, locally aggressive mesenchymal neoplasms
  • Mature adipocyte proliferation, focal nuclear atypia in adipocytes and stromal cells, significant variation in size of cells
  • 40-45% of all liposarcomas
  • Slight male preponderance, 5th decade
  • Atypical lipoma = well-differentiated liposarcoma
  • No potential for metastasis unless there is de-differentiation
  • High rates of local recurrence –> especially in difficult to resect regions such as retroperitoneum
  • Over-expression of MDM2, HMGA2, CDK4 are markers of de-differentiation (?)
  • Review of 67 cases:
  • 35 men, 32 women, mean age 60
  • Thigh>>>>popliteal fossa > pelvic girdle> arm….
  • Main presentation is slow growing mass
  • Local recurrence rate 10.6% at mean of 73 months
  • Recurrence as late as 140 months
  • Local re-recurrence rate 52% at mean of 39 months
  • Rate of de-differentiation of 4% at recurrence (one patient)
57
Q
  1. What is the worse prognostic factor associated with soft tissue sarcoma?
  2. size of lesion
  3. metastatic disease
  4. Grade
  5. extracompartmental disease
A

ANSWER: B

2011

58
Q
  1. 60M has a history of a previous desmoid tumor that was excised 3 months ago. He is in your clinic and is found to have an basal skull ENT lesion (osteoma) seen on CT-Head. What is next step in management/investigation?
  2. Bone scan
  3. CT chest
  4. SPEP
  5. Colonoscopy
  6. Skeletal survey
A

ANSWER: D

2015

  • Gardner Syndrome
  • Intestinal polyposis, osteomas, multiple cutaneous and subcutaneous lesions
  • Dental abnormalities, abdominal desmoids
  • Associated neoplasms:
  • Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
  • Glioma, medulloblastoma
  • Peri-ampullary carcinoma of the duodenum
59
Q
  1. Which doesn’t require post op chemo
  2. MFH of bone
  3. Synovial cell sarcoma of soft-tissue
  4. Rhabdomyosarcoma of soft tissue
  5. Angiosarcoma of soft-tissue
A

ANSWER: D

2010

AAOS Comprehensive Review:

  • MFH treatment is similar to osteosarcoma
  • Synovial cell sarcoma –> chemo used in younger patients sometimes
  • Rhabdomyosarcoma –> wide resection and chemo (in kids)
  • Angiosarcoma –> no survival benefits shown with chemo
60
Q
  1. Chordoma - most common presentation:
  2. Urinary dysfunction
  3. Impotence
  4. Pain
  5. Mass
A

ANSWER: C

2008

JAAOS 2009 - Chordoma of the sacrum and vertebrae

Presentation varies but pain is the most common symptom regardless of location

Pain with gradual and insidious onset

61
Q
  1. Soft tissue sarcoma, most common location of mets:
  2. Lungs
  3. Lymph Nodes
  4. Bone
  5. Liver
A

ANSWER: A

2008

62
Q
  1. What soft tissue tumor metastasizes to a place other than lungs?
  2. MFH
  3. Myxoid liposarcoma
  4. Lipoma
  5. Leiomyosarcoma
A

ANSWER: B

2009

retroperitoneum

63
Q
  1. What becomes contracted following a vascularized fibular graft harvest?
  2. Achilles
  3. FHL
  4. Tib Ant
  5. Tib Post
A

ANSWER: B

2016

64
Q
  1. Which tumor is not associated with a translocation?
  2. Synovial Sarcoma
  3. Osteosarcoma
  4. Ewing Sarcoma
  5. Liposarcoma
A

ANSWER: B

2008

65
Q
  1. Which of the following is false?
  2. Medial gastroc flap has more excursion than lateral
  3. Soleus flap good for mid tibia coverage
  4. Peroneal flap good for prox tibia coverage
  5. Flexor hallucis flap good for heel coverage
A

ANSWER: C

2009

Peroneal approach is better for distal tibia coverage

66
Q
  1. Given an AP of an ankle showing lytic lesion distal fibula that appeared somewhat permeative and extended from level of syndesmosis to the distal tip, no cortical destruction, no obvious mass, no periosteal reaction, no fracture. Also an MRI revealing extensive edema within the distal fibula extending above the syndesmosis, but no obvious edema in the soft tissues. SPECT shows a nidus within the cortex of the distal fibula and that particular nidus was hot.
  2. Radiofrequency ablation
  3. Irrigation and debridement and infectious disease consultation
  4. Wide resection and reconstruction with allograft
  5. Activity modification
A

ANSWER: RFA – osteoid osteoma

2019

  • Activity modification – no (eliminates d)
  • Infection vs malignancy vs osteoid osteoma
  • Non aggressive features described (eliminates c)
  • A SPECT study not only confirms osteoid osteoma, but conclusively excludes osteomyelitis and stress fracture by its characteristic features of central avid focus with decremental activity toward the periphery, differentiating it from osteomyelitis and stress fracture, which would appear more diffuse and linearly oriented along the long axis of the bone
  • JAAOS 2011 – Osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma
  • Scintigraphy - Bone scintigraphy is a highly sensitive diagnostic modality for detecting and localizing osteoid osteoma. These images demonstrate the classic markedly increased radionuclide uptake by the nidus
67
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding Ewing family of tumours:
  2. They rarely present with fever, elevated ESR, and leukocytosis
  3. Pulmonary mets have a better prognosis than extrapulmonary mets
  4. There is not usually a delay between symptom onset and diagnosis
  5. On imaging, they often have sclerosis.
A

ANSWER: B

2019

  • pulmonary mets have a better prognosis than extrapulmonary mets
  • Present with fever/malaise/weight loss, elevated ESR/WBC/LDH
  • Often a delay between symptom onset & diagnosis –> slow growing
  • Purely lytic lesion, periosteal reaction in multiple layers (onion skinning) or sunburst pattern
  • Usually metadiaphyseal or diaphyseal
  • Pulmonary mets better prognosis than extrapulmonary mets
  • With respect to evaluation of prognostic factors affecting outcomes in disseminated Ewing’s, patient with marrow metastasis and bone metastasis along with primary disease more than 200 ml in volume conferred poor outcome (10% survival) as compared to patient with solitary pulmonary metastasis (50%)
68
Q
  1. Which of the following is true
  2. All Ewing tumours have 11:22 translocation
  3. Atypical lipomatous tumours have MDM2 protein amplication
  4. Myxoid liposarcoma does not have a genetic translocation
  5. GCT does not have a genetic association
A

ANSWER: B

2019

  • atypical lipomatous tumours have MDM2 protein amplification
  • Ewing: 11:22 chromosomal translocation (EWS/FLI1 is the fusion gene)
  • Most commonly from 11:22
  • Atypical lipomatous tumour = well-differentiated liposarcoma
  • MDM2 protein amplification
  • Myxoid liposarcoma –> T(12;16)(q13;p11) – CHOP, TLS
  • GCT - has some genetic component
69
Q
  1. All are true regarding chondroblastoma except:
  2. Small well circumscribed oval lytic lesion with sclerotic border on XR
  3. MRI does not typically reveal edema
  4. Chondroblastoma can be found in the apophysis of long bones
  5. It is associated with secondary ABC
A

ANSWER: B

2019

Chondroblastoma

  • Imaging
    • Epiphysis or apophysis often extend into metaphysis
    • 1-4 cm, sclerotic rim, lytic, geographic
    • Note: GCT does not have sclerotic rim
    • Centrally located in epiphysis
    • 2° ABC – looks more aggressive (1/3 have 2° ABC)
      • MRI – perilesional edema – T2 – almost pathognomonic
  • Very low risk of metastasis to lungs (CXR)
  • Secondary ABC (fluid-fluid levels on MRI)
    • NOF, osteoblastoma, chondroblastoma, fibrous dysplasia, GCT, UBC, chondromyxoid fibroma (rare)
      • GO FUNCC*
70
Q
  1. Regarding GCT. What is true with extensive intralesional curettage?
  2. PMMA cement can help decrease local recurrence rate
  3. Invades neighbouring bones
  4. 30% recurrence rate -
  5. Found in the diaphysis of the bone
A

ANSWER: C

2019

A

20% recurrence rates with curretage alone - reduced with PMMA and other adjuvents.

Found in metaphysis

71
Q
  1. All of the following are true regarding enchondroma of hand except:
  2. Controversial whether to bone graft or not
  3. Chondrosarcoma is rare
  4. Pathologists have a higher tolerance for atypia of enchondroma in the hand
  5. For a solitary enchondroma, high risk of recurrence after surgical treatment
A

ANSWER: D

2019

JAAOS 2016 - Enchondroma of the Hand: Evaluation and Management

Recurrence is uncommon in solitary lesions, and malignant degeneration is exceedingly rare

Hand enchondromas are unique because they may exhibit hyper- cellularity and cytologic atypia con- sistent with malignant features in other skeletal locations.

High-grade chondrosarcoma of the hand is very rare and also has a low risk of metasta- sis.28

Although histologic assessment is essential to ensure a tissue diagnosis, definitive differentiation between enchondroma and low-grade chon- drosarcoma has become less critical given the nature of chondrosarcoma of the phalanges. Differentiation does not necessarily change the treatment strategy for this condition, nor does it appear to influence the prognosis

The third controversy involves void augmentation after curettage. The generated void may be filled or left vacant to fill in naturally with hema- toma.7 There is no consensus on an optimal management strategy, and the medical literature is replete with case series describing low complica- tion rates with and without void augmentation

72
Q
  1. All are true regarding tumour reconstruction in paeds, EXCEPT?
  2. Expandable endoprosthesis have low complications rates
  3. Rotationplasty can be used after recurrence or failed limb salvage
  4. Physeal sparing resection can be reconstructed with vascularized fibula or allograft
  5. MRI is most useful to determine if tumor has crossed physis
A

ANSWER: A

2019

When final estimated limb-length discrepancy at skeletal maturity is <2 cm, intervention is often not indicated. For discrepancies measuring 2 to 5 cm, our recommendation is to halt the growth of the contralateral side. Appropriate timing of epiphysiodesis requires performing serial growth calculations. For estimated differences >5 cm, the options include an extendible prosthesis or secondary limb lengthening. Although there is no agreed-on anticipated maximum limb-length discrepancy for which limb salvage is contraindicated, large potential discrepancies in young patients warrant strong consideration of amputation or rotationplasty.

Although the physis was initially thought to be a robust barrier to sarcomas, further study has shown that. 80% of high-grade metaphyseal osteosarcomas show some degree of transphyseal spread.

73
Q
  1. Regarding Aneurysmal bone cysts (all true except? - CAD)
  2. UPS6 
  3. Fluid-fluid levels on imaging is pathognomonic for ABC 
  4. It can be found under the periosteum 
  5. It is highest in the first 2 decades of life
A

ANSWER: B

2019

SP6 genomic rearrangements or USP6 fusion genes may be used as a diagnostic tool for these lesions. In this review, we discuss the clinicopathologic features, molecular pathology, and pathogenesis of ABC and nodular fasciitis

AK – fluid-fluid levels not necessarily pathognomonic for ABC*

ABCs can be surface lesions – therefore can be found under periosteum?

74
Q
  1. Regarding atypical lipomatous tumors? 
  2. Treated with wide excision 
  3. Recurrence rate is high in the extremities with marginal excision 
  4. Malignant transformation of well differentiated liposarcoma (actually wrote this) is more common when found in the retroperitoneum compared to extremities 
  5. Lipomas have a risk of malignant transformation 
A

ANSWER: C

2019

Metastasis risk correlates with grade/sub-type of liposarcoma

  • Low-grade (well-differentiated) has a metastasis rate of < 1%
  • Intermediate grade (myxoid) has a metastasis rate of 10-30%
  • High-grade has a metastasis rate of > 50%

Marginal resection without radiotherapy

  • Indications
    • Well-differentiated liposarcoma
  • Outcomes
    • Low risk of local recurrence, metastasis extremely rare
    • Dedifferentiation risk of 2% in extremities and 20% in retroperitoneal lesions

Wide surgical resection with adjuvant radiotherapy

  • Indications
    • Intermediate-grade liposarcomas
    • High-grade liposarcomas
  • Outcomes
    • Radiation decreases local recurrence
    • Chemotherapy may be beneficial in selected patients
    • Myxoid liposarcomas with >10% round cells have high likelihood of metastasis
75
Q
  1. Patient has chronic osteomyelitis that undergoes malignant transformation. All of these are false except? 
    a) The most common presentation is foul smelling, increased discharge, and increased pain 
    b) Usually metastasizes to the lung 
    c) Rarely a squamous cell carcinoma 
    d) Wide resection and limb reconstruction is preferred over amputation 
A

Answer:  A 

2019

A  –  True. JAAOS paper! 2014.    False

B –  No,  lymph nodes  

C  – No, wide surgical resection +/- rads  vs amp  

D  –  The definitive treatment of choice as suggested by most clinicians has been  amputation  proximal to the  tumo  ur

76
Q
  1. 40F with soft tissue sarcoma. Worried about passing it on to her children. What do you tell her?
  2. High risk as associated with autosomal dominant syndromes
  3. Low risk as associated with autosomal recessive syndromes
  4. Depends on environmental factors
  5. Low risk as most arise from spontaneous mutations
A

Answer: D (2017)

77
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true regarding chondrosarcoma of the hand
  2. Chondrosarcoma of the hand is rare
  3. Pathologist have a higher threshold for hypercellularity and atypia in the hand
  4. There is debate as to whether bone graft is needed or not
  5. Enchondroma of the hand is less common than the foot
A

Answer: D (2017)

A – true

B – true

C- true

D –False. Most common in hand

78
Q
  1. What is the main guiding principle in operative treatment of monostotic fibrous dysplasia
  2. It is essential to restore mechanical integrity of the bone by providing stable fixation
  3. Use cancellous allograft
  4. Use cancellous autograft
  5. Use fibular struts
A

Answer: A (2017)

D - Correct as well (Cortical allograft). Cancellous autograft replaced by dysplastic bone. A probably more general.

79
Q
  1. A 16 year old boy presents with pain and an effusion in his knee. X-Ray shows a large, poorly differentiated lesion with sclerotic, osteoid matrix and sunburst periosteal reaction. Which of the following is NOT included in the systemic staging of this lesion?
  2. CT chest
  3. MRI of local lymph nodes
  4. Serum ALP
  5. Total Body Bone Scan
A

Answer: B (2017)

Serum ALP/LDH

MRI of local lymph nodes - included in “local staging”

80
Q
  1. All of the following are true with respect to eosinophilic granuloma EXCEPT
  2. The monostotic form has a high rate of local recurrence
  3. May present with monostotic, polyostotic or disseminated forms
  4. The underlying etiology is poorly understood
  5. Lesions may resolve following needle biopsy
A

Answer: A (2017)

Isolated involvement treatable with local management. 90% of Spine (Vertebra plana) lesions resolve with bracing (10% need surgery). 10yr Survival of EG = 100%

81
Q
  1. All of the following tumors should be treated with chemotherapy except:
  2. Osteosarcoma
  3. Ewing’s
  4. MFH/UPS
  5. Chondrosarcoma
A

Answer: D (2017)

Chemo Indicated (MOED): Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma, Osteosarcoma, Ewings, Dedifferentiated Chondrosarcoma

82
Q
  1. Shown image of tibial adamantinoma in 22F. What is best way to treat?
  2. Wide resection alone
  3. Wide resection and chemo
  4. Wide resection and rads
  5. Amputation
A

Answer: A (2017)

CLAP (wide resection alone)

  • Chondrosarcoma
  • Low grade IM osteosarc
  • Adamantinoma
  • Parosteal osteosarc
83
Q
  1. all of the following require bone marrow aspirate for staging except?
  2. Multiple myeloma
  3. Leukemia
  4. Ewings
  5. Osteosarcoma
A

Answer: D (2017)

84
Q
  1. A 45M has a lytic lesion in the metaphyseal-epiphyseal distal femur. No matrix. Expansion past the cortex with a thin layer of new cortex formed on top. Most likely diagnosis?
  2. Osteosarcoma
  3. Chondrosarcoma
  4. GCT
  5. Enchondroma
A

Answer: C (2017)- GCT

85
Q
  1. A 65 male presents with 3 months of groin pain and night pain. Xrays show a lytic lesion in the subtroch area and an associated soft tissue mass. All of the following are indicated in the INITIAL management except:
  2. MRI
  3. Whole body bone scan
  4. CT chest, abd, pelvis
  5. Serum electrophoresis
A

ANSWER: A

2018

May do but probably not initial, also only option that is not part of systemic work up

86
Q
  1. Shown an image of what I thought was a chondrosarcoma in the subtroch region (there was chondroid matrix, stippled calcifications, and obvious endosteal scalloping). Not told the patients age or any clinical info, just asked “what is the best treatment of the condition show in this image”?
  2. En block resection
  3. Chemo and wide resection
  4. Radiation and nail
  5. Extensive intralesional curettage
A

ANSWER: A

2018

chondrosarc is CLAP – resection only***

87
Q
  1. 30 year old with groin pain. Shown an image of a hip with what I thought looked like extensive synovial chondromatosis (?). No arthritic changes. How should you manage this?
  2. Surgical hip dislocation and synovectomy
  3. Chemotherapy and resection
  4. Radiation and resection
  5. Total hip arthroplasty
A

ANSWER: A

2018

-indication for either hip scope or surgical hip dislocation

88
Q
  1. A patient is confirmed to have a high grade osteosarc. I think it’s a female and she might be 18. You are shown a clinical image (its in the calcaneus, the calc is fractured and it extended to where the Achilles would insert). What is the best treatment?
  2. Neodjuvant chemo, negative margin resection surgery, reconstruction
  3. Neoadjuvant chemo, BKA
  4. Radiation
  5. Immediate BKA
A

ANSWER: B

2018

89
Q
  1. All of the following are true statements about GCT EXCEPT
  2. Extensive intralesional curettage is the standard of care
  3. They do not often extend to subchondral bone
  4. Irresectable lesions can be treated with radiation, denosumab, or (something I was unfamiliar with and can’t remember)
  5. Treatment with radiation in irresectable lesions carries an increased risk of malignant transformation
A

ANSWER: B

2018

JAAOS - Malignant transformation has been reported to occur in as many as 15% of cases, but this appears to be associated with treatment with older orthovoltage techniques in which the radiation dose absorbed in bone was substantially higher than that in soft tissue

90
Q
  1. All of the following are true regarding atypical lipoma EXCEPT:
  2. It can dedifferentiate
  3. Local recurrence is 50% following resection
  4. It has metastatic potential
  5. Histologically it is similar to a well differentiated lipoma in the retroperitoneum
A

ANSWER: B

2018

(20% recurrence if clear margins)

91
Q
  1. All of the following are true regarding tumor reconstruction in children EXCEPT:
  2. It is sometimes possible to do an epiphyseal resection and spare the physis
  3. Modular tumor prosthesis allowing for growth are associated with a high rate of complications early
  4. Bone overgrowth following transosseous amputation is a rare occurrence
A

ANSWER: C

2018

92
Q
  1. What is a most likely to be associated with osteoid osteoma of the spine
  2. Scoliosis
  3. Radiculitis
A

ANSWER: A

2018

93
Q
  1. What is true of benign spine lesions
  2. GCT have a predilection for the posterior elements
  3. Osteoid osteoma occur in the convex side of the deformity
  4. Osteoblastoma occur in the vertebral body and posterior elements
  5. Vertebra plana associated with langerhans cell histiocytosis are expected to resolve in most cases -
A

ANSWER: C/D

2018

  • Osteoblastomas are primary bone tumors with an affinity for the spine. They typically involve the posterior elements, although extension through the pedicles into the vertebral body is not uncommon.
  • Despite the rarity of the condition and despite the rarity of vertebral body lesion resolution, total vertebral body reconstruction was observed over a 7-year period. Long-term follow-up is necessary for a better understanding of the final outcome of patients with EG.
  • https://www.researchgate.net/figure/Radiograph-of-childs-spine-shows-vertebra-plana-due-to-eosinophllic-granuloma-of-T5_fig2_20355665
  • The vertebral height may be restored spontaneously or after treatment, with the affected vertebra reverting to an almost normal configuration
  • tumor nest often locate at concave side of the apical segment; https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5134864/pdf/medi-95-e5362.pdf, occur in the apex of the concavity of the curve
94
Q
  1. Regarding radiotherapy in spine metastasis, which is true
  2. Radiotherapy is always effective
  3. Radiotherapy is never effective
  4. Radiotherapy following surgery is not useful
  5. ?Radiotherapy before surgery has increased complications
A

ANSWER: D

2018

95
Q
  1. 70yo male, has large tumor arising from the midline sacrum at the SC level. There is a large anterior soft tissue mass. No matrix noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  2. Chondrosarcoma
  3. GCT
  4. Chordoma
  5. Osteosarcoma
A

Answer: C (2017) - chordoma – has soft tissue mass. No matrix.