Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Chris's bar essays law > trusts > Flashcards

trusts Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Civil Procedure 1L flashcards MBE flashcards MPRE flashcards
1
Q

If a trust does not contain a spendthrift clause (which prohibits both voluntary and involuntary alienation of a beneficiary’s interest), a beneficiary’s creditors may reach the beneficiary’s interest by either

A

(i) attaching present or future distributions or (ii) by other means, which presumably would include the sale of the beneficiary’s interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

creditor is limited to reaching

A

the beneficiary’s interest, not the trust assets themselves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Creditors cannot compel distributions that are subject

A

to a trustee’s discretion, but may reach amounts the trustee chooses to distribute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The Virginia Code makes clear that co-trustees have some responsibility for

A

the actions of each other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Each trustee must exercise reasonable care to prevent a co-trustee from

A

committing a serious breach of trust and/or to compel a co-trustee to redress a serious breach of trust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Co-trustees may obtain contribution from one another if

A

more than one trustee is liable to the beneficiaries for breach of trust unless the trustee seeking contribution was substantially more at fault than another trustee or committed the breach of trust in bad faith or with reckless indifference to the purposes of the trust and/or interests of the beneficiaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A trustee properly entering into a contract in a fiduciary capacity while administering the trust is

A

not personally liable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Immunity from liability applies only if

A

the contract discloses the fiduciary capacity and the trust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A trustee who contracts with a firm to manage trust assets

A

is not personally liable for the fees levied by the firm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when a real estate firm contracts to manage a trusts real property, the firm may seek payment from

A

trust assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A trust is void to the extent its creation was induced by

A

fraud, duress, or undue influence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A fiduciary owes to the beneficiary

A

scrupulous good faith, candor, and care in the management of the beneficiary’s interests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

presumption of undue influence

A

when the fiduciary (or a close family member) benefits from a document the fiduciary drafts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

if a court invalidates a trust, the trustor can move the court to impose

A

a constructive trust on the share which was subject to undue influence and/or fraud in the inducement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Constructive trusts are

A

not “real” trusts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

constructive trusts are equitable remedies that

A

return property to the rightful owner to prevent a fraud or if property has been properly acquired but it is contrary to the principles of equity that it should be retained for the acquirer’s own benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

a constructive trust would

A

transfer share of the trust property to the settlor’s intended beneficiary, because the share was the result of fiduciary’s fraud.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The Virginia Uniform Trust Code (UTC) recognizes the common law principles under which a court may remove a trustee for

A

(i) breach of trust, (ii) inability to cooperate with co-trustees, (iii) lack of fitness, or (iv) persistent failure to administer the trust effectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The Virginia UTC provides statutory reasons for removal when the court finds that

A

(i) there has been a substantial change in circumstances, or removal is requested by all of the qualified beneficiaries;
(ii) removal best serves the interests of all of the beneficiaries;
(iii) removal is not inconsistent with a material purpose of the trust; and
(iv) a suitable co-trustee or successor trustee is available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The duty of loyalty mandates that a trustee administer a trust

A

“solely in the interests of the beneficiaries.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In general, a transaction is voidable by a beneficiary if it involves

A

trust property and is affected by a conflict between the trustee’s fiduciary and personal interests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

where a transaction is voidable by a beneficiary, a trustee may effectively defend the transaction if

A

it was authorized by the terms of the trust, by court order, or by consent of the affected beneficiaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Proof of self-dealing results in

A

a trustee’s liability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A transaction involving trust property is presumed to be affected by a conflict between personal and fiduciary interests if it is entered into by the trustee and:

A

(i) the trustee’s spouse, descendants, siblings, parents, or their spouses; (ii) an agent or attorney of the trustee; or (iii) a corporation or other person or enterprise in which the trustee has an interest that might affect the trustee’s best judgment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A trustee must comply with the Virginia Uniform Prudent Investor Act which governs the standards that a trustee must meet when

A

investing trust assets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The trustee must administer the trust as a prudent person would, by considering

A

the purposes, terms, distributional requirements, and other circumstances of the trust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

in satisfying the standard for investing trust assets the trustee shall exercise

A

reasonable care, skill, and caution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A trustee who has special skills or expertise, or is named trustee in reliance upon the trustee’s representation that the trustee has special skills or expertise, shall

A

use those special skills or expertise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Courts reviewing investment decisions of trustees must focus on the facts and circumstances at the time of

A

the decisions; the review should not be based on hindsight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

investment losses alone are

A

insufficient to find a trustee in breach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Investments are evaluated as a part of

A

the overall investment strategy (i.e., the entire trust portfolio) rather than in isolation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A trustee must diversify the investments of the trust unless the trustee reasonably determines that,

A

because of special circumstances, the purposes of the trust are better served without diversifying.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A violation by a trustee of a duty the trustee owes to a beneficiary is a

A

breach of trust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A court may order any appropriate relief for a breach of trust, including:

A

(i) compelling the trustee to perform the trustee’s duties;
(ii) enjoining the trustee from committing a breach of trust;
(iii) compelling the trustee to redress a breach of trust by paying money (calculated below), restoring property, or other means;
(iv) suspending or removing the trustee; and/or
(v) reducing or denying compensation to the trustee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A trustee who commits a breach of trust is liable to the beneficiaries affected for the greater of

A

(1) the amount required to restore the value of the trust property and trust distributions to what they would have been had the breach not occurred (e.g., imprudent investments), or
(2) the profit the trustee made by reason of the breach (e.g., self-dealing).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Damages cannot be speculative, so they must be

A

proven with some certainty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A spendthrift trust contains a provision that

A

restrains the transfer of a beneficiary’s interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

To be effective, a spendthrift provision must restrain both

A

voluntary and involuntary transfers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

under an effective spendthrift trust, the beneficiary cannot transfer his interest…

A

voluntarily.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Except for (i) children with child support orders, (ii) judgment creditors that provided services for the protection of the beneficiary’s interest in the trust, and (iii) government entities; creditors cannot reach the interest or any distribution before

A

it is received by the beneficiary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

While the beneficiary of even a spendthrift trust may disclaim his interest, the disclaimer must occur before

A

the disclaimant accepts or attempts to transfer the interest sought to be disclaimed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Under Virginia law, a spendthrift provision may indicate a

A

material purpose for a trust that cannot be modified or terminated without the consent of the settlor and all beneficiaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A creditor can reach the beneficiary’s interest in

A

the trust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The creditor cannot, however, directly reach the

A

assets of the trust (as this would impair the interests of other beneficiaries).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

a creditor party with a judgment against a beneficiary under the trust may

A

attach beneficiaries interest as a beneficiary in the trust (e.g., distributed income), but not the trust assets themselves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A resulting trust arises by operation of law, where a court

A

implies a trust and declares the settlor or their heirs to be the beneficiary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A resulting trust can arise where

A

an express trust fails, and the settlor hasn’t declared their intent; in that case the beneficial interest in the trust property is in the settlor or if deceased it passes to their successors.

48
Q

resulting trust can arise when

A

a valid trust’s purpose is fully satisfied and some trust property has not been disposed, in that case the settlor has made an incomplete disposition and the property reverts back to the settlor or if deceased, their successors in interest.

49
Q

third class of resulting trust is

A

a Purchase Money Resulting Trust

50
Q

A Purchase Money Resulting Trust arises when

A

one party pays the purchase price for property, or assumes payment for all or part of the purchase price, and causes title to be taken in another party’s name.

51
Q

Under a PMRT, If the parties are not related, there is a presumption that the person supplying consideration

A

did not intend to make a gift, instead the person intended for the grantee to hold the property in trust for them.

52
Q

This presumption can be rebutted with evidence of

A

a gift or loan was intended.

53
Q

Under a PMRT, if the grantee is a child, spouse, or parent of the person paying the purchase price

A

a gift is presumed.

54
Q

The standard to overcome this presumption when the parties are not related is

A

clear and convincing evidence.

55
Q

In order for a charitable trust to be valid

A

it must have a charitable purpose

56
Q

a charitable trust cant benefit

A

identifiable individuals

57
Q

a charitable trust can be

A

perpetual

58
Q

The charitable trust must have a purpose which benefits

A

the community, such purposes include: relief of poverty, advancement of education or religion, health, to accomplish governmental purposes

59
Q

The trust can benefit a limited class of individuals, but it cannot be so narrow to benefit

A

a few individuals intended to personally aid

60
Q

A trust that receives a devise from the will of the settlor of the trust (i.e., a “pour over” trust) is not an invalid trust due to

A

failure to conform to the formalities required for a will

61
Q

In Virginia, a “pour over” trust is valid if

A

the trust was identified in the testator’s will and the terms of the trust were set forth in a written instrument.

62
Q

Virginia does not require that a “pour over” trust be created before

A

the will that provides a “pour over” devise to the trust is executed.

63
Q

Virginia recognizes a “pour over” trust, even though the trust is not funded until

A

the trust receives the devise from the testator’s will.

64
Q

Virginia recognizes the right of a settlor to change the terms of a “pour over” trust after

A

the will has been executed.

65
Q

In Virginia, a remainder interest in a charitable trust that is triggered by the termination of the trust’s specific charitable purpose must give way to the application of the doctrine of cy pres if

A

more than 21 years have passed since the creation of the trust

66
Q

Typically, the doctrine of cy pres does not apply when

A

a conditional gift is directed to a specific charitable purpose and that purpose can no longer be achieved.

67
Q

Virginia permits cy pres to override a condition in a trust that requires the termination of the trust and distribution of the trust assets to a noncharitable beneficiary when

A

(i) the beneficiary is not the settlor, and (ii) more than 21 years have passed since the creation of the trust.

68
Q

where a remainder interest in the children of the settlor’s sibling would be void under the common law Rule Against Perpetuities, the Virginia Rule Against Perpetuities also contains

A

an alternative “wait and see” provision.

69
Q

“wait and see” provision

A

the remainder interest vested within the 90 year time period for the “wait and see” provision.
Consequently, the remainder interest in the trust is not void under the Virginia Rule Against Perpetuities.

70
Q

While a trust for the care of an animal can include more than one animal, the animals must be

A

alive during the settlor’s lifetime

71
Q

Virginia does not permit a trust for the care of

A

unborn animals

72
Q

Virginia, by statute, specifically recognizes the validity of a trust to

A

care for an animal.

73
Q

Under the “90-year wait-and-see” alternative to the common law rule

A

an interest that currently violates the Rule Against Perpetuities is not invalid unless it does not actually vest or fail within 90 years of the creation of the interest

74
Q

although a settlor does not have the power to place excessive amounts in trust for the benefit of an animal, when a settlor does so,

A

the trust is not invalidated

75
Q

when a settlor places excessive amounts in trust for the benefit of an animal, the excess is

A

distributed in accord with the terms of the trust, or if the trust is silent, in accord with the statute

76
Q

The Virginia Uniform Prudent Investor Act is the default rule governing

A

the standards that a trustee must meet when investing trust assets that can be altered by the terms of the trust.

77
Q

A trustee must invest and manage trust assets as

A

a prudent investor would

78
Q

a prudent investor would invest and manage trust assets exercising

A

reasonable care, skill, caution

79
Q

Trustees with specialized investing expertise have a duty to

A

use their expertise in investing trust assets.

80
Q

Nothing here suggests that the trust instrument modified the default rule, so

A

the VA UPIA standards apply to management of the trust assets.

81
Q

a trustee must diversify the investments of the trust unless

A

the trustee reasonably determines that, because of special circumstances, the purposes of the trust are better served without diversifying.

82
Q

Virginia trustee’s obligation of impartiality under Virginia’s Uniform Principal and Income Act.

A

The duty of impartiality requires that the trustee consider the interests of both present and future beneficiaries when deciding on trust investments, balancing of interests between income beneficiaries and remaindermen

83
Q

In order to create a trust, the settlor must have

A

capacity to do so and indicate an intention to create a trust.

84
Q

A trust need not be evidenced by

A

a trust instrument, but the creation of an oral trust and its terms may be established only by clear and convincing evidence.

85
Q

a trustee who commits a breach of trust is liable to the beneficiaries affected for the greater of

A

(i) the amount required to restore the value of the trust property and trust distributions to what they would have been had the breach not occured, or (ii) the profit the trustee made by reason of the breach

86
Q

use of trust funds by a trustee as his own is

A

a breach of trust

87
Q

even though a trust does not suffer a loss resulting from a breach of trust by the trustee, where the trustee makes a profit from a breach of trust, the beneficiaries are entitled to

A

the profit made by the trustee

88
Q

a co-trustee’s failure to take action upon learning of his co trustee’s taking of trust funds for personal use

A

constitutes a breach of the co-trustee

89
Q

a trustee who received a benefit from the breach of trust is not entitled to

A

contribution from another trustee to the extent of the benefit received

90
Q

In general, a self-settled irrevocable trust is not

A

protected from claims against the settlor

91
Q

in a self-settled irrevocable trust a creditor of the settlor may reach

A

the maximum amount that can be distributed to the settlor or for the settlor’s benefit

92
Q

Since the trustee has the discretion to distribute all the trust assets to the physician, the patient may reach

A

all of the assets in the trust

93
Q

In Virginia, the trustee of a testamentary trust must qualify with

A

the clerk of the circuit court or the court in order to serve as trustee.

94
Q

During the settlor’s lifetime, if the trust is revocable, the duties of the trustee are owed exclusively to

A

the settlor

95
Q

Since the trust in question did not specify that it was irrevocable, the trust is presumed to be

A

revocable in Virginia

96
Q

While a trust is revocable, a trustee may follow the directions of the settlor, even if

A

those directions would violate the trust terms

97
Q

while a trustee generally has a duty to follow the terms of a trust, the trustee of a revocable trust may

A

follow the directions of the settlor, even if those directions would violate the trust terms.

98
Q

generally a trustee is subject to the prudent investor standard unless

A

the terms of the trust provide otherwise, the trustee of a revocable trust may follow the directions of the settlor, even if those directions would violate the prudent investor standard

99
Q

the independence of a trustee from the settlor will not relieve a trustee from

A

adhering to the terms of the trust or the prudent investor rule.

100
Q

An exculpatory clause that excuses the trustee from breach of trust is unenforceable to the extent that it

A

provides immunity for a breach committed in bad faith or with reckless indifference to trust purposes or the interests of the beneficiaries.

101
Q

a trustee is not a guarantor of

A

the success of the investments made by the trustee, even in the absence of the grant of absolute discretion as to trust investments.

102
Q

even if the court determines that the trustee violated the prudent investor rule, the exculpatory clause would

A

protect the trustee from liability so long as the violation did not result from conduct that was undertaken in bad faith or with reckless indifference to trust purposes or the beneficiaries’ interests

103
Q

the exculpatory provision, while generally effective to immunize the trustee from negligent conduct that results in a breach of trust, does not protect the trustee from liability for such conduct that was

A

undertaken in bad faith or with reckless indifference to trust purposes or the beneficiaries’ interests.

104
Q

Creditors of the beneficiary of a spendthrift trust generally may not reach the interest of the beneficiary until

A

the beneficiary is entitled to receive a distribution of that interest

105
Q

a child of the beneficiary who has a judgment or court order against the beneficiary for support is

A

an exception creditor who may reach the beneficiary’s interest in the spendthrift trust.

106
Q

although many states classify the recipient of a spousal award as an exception creditor

A

Virginia does not

107
Q

If all of the beneficiaries as well as the settlor of an irrevocable noncharitable trust consent to its termination, the court may

A

enter an order terminating the trust, even if the termination of the trust is inconsistent with a material purpose of the trust.

108
Q

Although a spendthrift provision in a noncharitable irrevocable trust can constitute a material purpose that prevents the termination or modification of the trust when the settlor does not consent to the termination or modification, when

A

all of the beneficiaries and the settlor consent to the termination of the trust, the court may order the termination of the trust.

109
Q

while a trust provision may authorize ways in which a trust may be terminated, a trust provision cannot affect

A

the power of a court to modify or terminate a trust.

110
Q

Trustees have a duty to administer the trust and invest trust assets in

A

good faith, in accordance with its terms and purposes and the interests of the beneficiaries.

111
Q

To give different beneficiaries successive enjoyment of property, trusts often

A

give income to one beneficiary and a remainder to another.

112
Q

A trustee’s duty of impartiality requires that the trustee consider the interests of

A

both beneficiaries when deciding on trust investments.

113
Q

Virginia has adopted the Uniform Fiduciary Principal and Income Act (UFPIA), which facilitates the balancing of

A

interests between income beneficiaries and remaindermen.

114
Q

The UFPIA gives the trustee power to make discretionary adjustments between

A

principal and income

115
Q

In exercising discretion, the trustee must

A

(1) act in good faith,
(2) administer the trust impartially (to the extent directed under the trust instrument), and
(3) administer the trust in accordance with its terms.

116
Q

VUTC common law grounds for trustee removal

A

1) breach of trust
2) failure to cooperate w/ co-trustees
3) lack of fitness
4) persistent failure to administer trust effectively

117
Q

VUTC other recognized removal grounds, when court finds

A

1) substantial change in circumstances
2) removal requested by ALL qualified beneficiaries
3) best interest of all beneficiaries
4) not inconsistent with material purpose of trust
5) suitable co-trustee/successor trustee available

Chris's bar essays law (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions