real prop Flashcards

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1
Q

Generally, a real covenant is

A

an agreement between parties to do or not do something on land (e.g., maintain a stone wall) that is enforceable by an action for money damages.

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2
Q

the promising parties to a real covenant are bound under contract law, but their successors in interest are bound only if

A

the covenant runs with the land.

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3
Q

A real covenant will only bind successors in interest if the following elements are met: (6)

A

(1) writing,
(2) intent to run,
(3) touch and concern,
(4) horizontal privity,
(5) vertical privity, and
(6) notice if the person to be bound was a purchaser.

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4
Q

a grantor’s intent to transfer can be

A

presumed in some cases

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5
Q

when the grantor keeps the deed, what must evidence an intent to make a present transfer of the property interest?

A

the grantors “outward and visible acts”

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6
Q

where a grantor leaves the deed on a table in his residence, there is no ______________ of delivery

A

no presumption of delivery

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7
Q

a note left with a deed, reading: “this lot NOW belongs to X” demonstrates

A

a clear intent to immediately transfer the property to X- rendering the deed delivered

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8
Q

Under a land-sales contract, the seller can use the proceeds from the sale to eliminate a

A

mortgage obligation on the property.

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9
Q

If the proceeds of the sale of the house exceed the amount of the outstanding mortgage, then a title defect will be

A

extinguished and the seller can deliver marketable title to the buyer upon closing.

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10
Q

A purchase-money mortgage is granted to the seller or a third-party lender when

A

(1) the loan proceeds are used to acquire title to or construct improvements on the property and
(2) the mortgage is given as part of the same transaction in which title is acquired.

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11
Q

any type of mortgage is an

A

encumbrance that may render title unmarketable—regardless of priority.

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12
Q

A mortgage is subject to the same defenses (e.g., mistake, duress, fraud) as

A

the underlying obligation or debt secured by that mortgage.

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13
Q

when mortgaged property is transferred to a donee, the donee is entitled to assert

A

the donor-mortgagor’s defenses against the mortgagee-lender.

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14
Q

a purchaser who assumes an existing mortgage obligation as part of the purchase price

A

may not assert the donor-mortgagor’s defenses.*

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15
Q

A joint tenancy is a type of concurrent estate in which each

A

cotenant has an undivided and equal interest in the property with the right of survivorship.

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16
Q

The right of survivorship means that

A

a joint tenant’s interest disappears upon that tenant’s death and the remaining joint tenants’ interests automatically expand to absorb it.

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17
Q

joint tenants cannot

A

devise their interests upon death.

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18
Q

joint tenants are free to convey their interest to another

A

during life without the other tenants’ consent.

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19
Q

transfer of a joint tenant’s interest during their lifetime will

A

sever the joint tenancy and convert it into a tenancy in common

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20
Q

once the joint tenancy is severed, an a tenancy in common remains, each co tenant has

A

an equal right to possess the property without the right of survivorship.

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21
Q

each tenant in common is free to

A

unilaterally transfer or devise his/her interest.

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22
Q

A life estate is

A

a present possessory interest that terminates upon the death of an individual (the measuring life).

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23
Q

A life estate is _________transferable

A

freely transferrable

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24
Q

a life estate becomes “pur autre vie when

A

it is measured by the life of someone other than the current holder of the life estate (the life tenant).

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25
Q

The future interest that follows a life estate is either

A

a reversion (if held by the grantor) or a remainder (if created in a grantee).

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26
Q

a life tenant has the right to all

A

rents and income during the tenancy.

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27
Q

a life tenant also has a duty to pay

A

current charges that become due (e.g., property taxes, mortgage interest) unless the document creating the life estate provides otherwise.
(duty limited to amount of income that can be generated from the land)

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28
Q

The warranty of marketable title is

A

implied in all real estate contracts unless otherwise provided.

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29
Q

warranty of marketable title guarantees that

A

upon closing, the seller will convey the buyer title that is free from an unreasonable risk of litigation.

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30
Q

Whether the seller is aware of a substantial defect in title is irrelevant in determining

A

marketability of title

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31
Q

title must be marketable at the time of

A

closing—not at the time the contract is entered

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32
Q

A property that is free from encumbrances may nevertheless be unmarketable due to

A

a defect in the title itself—e.g., misnamed grantor or grantee, variance in property description between different deeds.

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33
Q

Marketable title does not mean that title must be free of any defect, but it should ensure

A

peaceable and quiet enjoyment of the property.

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34
Q

under the doctrine of tacking, an adverse possessor may

A

tack on the predecessor’s time if there is privity between successive adverse possessors.

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35
Q

Privity between successive adverse possessors is satisfied if

A

the possessor takes by nonhostile means (e.g., by descent, devise, contract, deed).

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36
Q

For who bears the risk of loss, most states follow the logic of the doctrine of

A

equitable conversion and place the risk of loss on the buyer during the executory period

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37
Q

doctrine of equitable conversion places the risk of loss on the buyer during

A

the executory period

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38
Q

the executory period is the period between

A

the execution of the real-estate contract and closing.

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39
Q

under equitable conversion the risk of loss is on the buyer during the executory period regardless of whether

A

buyer takes possession of the property during that period.

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40
Q

minority of jurisdictions have adopted the

A

Uniform Vendor and Purchaser Risk Act.

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41
Q

Under the Uniform Vendor and Purchaser Risk Act, the risk of loss remains with

A

the seller until the buyer takes possession of or receives legal title to the property.

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42
Q

when the owner/seller has possession of the building subject to the contract at the time it was destroyed; the most important issue in awarding judgment is whether

A

the jurisdiction has adopted the UVPRA or applies equitable conversion doctrine

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43
Q

The type of deed that a seller must supply when the contract is silent on this issue has no impact on

A

which party bears the risk of loss during the executory period.

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44
Q

Absent contrary language, an implied covenant of marketable title is part of

A

every land-sales contract.

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45
Q

an implied covenant of marketable title

A

that title to the property is free from an unreasonable risk of litigation

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46
Q

an implied covenant of marketable title does not guarantee

A

that the property itself is free from damage or dictate which party held the risk of loss.

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47
Q

Buyers can acquire casualty insurance in every jurisdiction because

A

buyers have an equitable interest in the purchased building.

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48
Q

the fact that buyers have an insurable interest has no impact on

A

who bears the risk of loss during the executory period.

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49
Q

An equitable mortgage can be established when

A

a debtor gives an absolute deed to a lender with the intent to secure a loan

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50
Q

an absolute deed

A

a deed that is free of encumbrances and transfers unrestricted title to property

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51
Q

To establish the existence of an equitable mortgage, the debtor-grantor must prove by clear and convincing evidence that

A

the deed was intended as security for a loan—not as an outright transfer.

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52
Q

under an equitable mortgage, if a debtor defaults, the deed recipient, like any other lender, may then bring

A

foreclosure action

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53
Q

owner conveyed his lot to the investor outright by warranty deed with the intent to secure a $75,000 loan from the investor. The investor had agreed to reconvey the lot to the owner once the loan was paid in full.

A

transaction created an equitable mortgage—not an outright transfer of the lot.
Therefore, the investor cannot immediately evict the owner.
The lender must first follow any applicable foreclosure procedures.

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54
Q

The statute of frauds generally requires that a transfer of real property be

A

in writing to be enforceable

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55
Q

The Statute of Frauds relating to land sale contracts does not prevent the introduction of

A

oral evidence to explain or interpret a written deed—e.g., to show that the deed was subject to an agreement that the property serve as security for a loan.

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56
Q

A void deed is invalid at its

A

inception and conveys no title to the grantee

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57
Q

void deed is unenforceable even if

A

it is relied upon by a bona fide purchaser

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58
Q

a bona fide purchaser—i.e., one who

A

purchases a property interest without notice of another’s prior interest in the property.

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59
Q

A deed need not be ___________ to be valid and convey _________ ________.

A

recorded;
good title

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60
Q

A warranty deed promises that

A

the grantor has title to the property and the right to transfer title without encumbrances.

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61
Q

a deed and the warranties therein are unenforceable if

A

the deed is forged

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62
Q

A future-advances mortgage (i.e., “line of credit”) is a mortgage given by a debtor (mortgagor) in exchange for

A

the right to receive money from the lender (mortgagee) in the future.

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63
Q

Priority with regard to proceeds from a foreclosure sale depends on whether the advances are:

A

optional or obligatory

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64
Q

if advances are optional

A

the future-advances mortgage has priority with respect to amounts loaned before the future-advances mortgagee received notice of a subsequent mortgage

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65
Q

if advances are obligatory

A

the future-advances mortgage has priority with respect to amounts loaned before and after the future-advances mortgagee received notice of a subsequent mortgage.

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66
Q

The Rule Against Perpetuities (RAP) applies only to

A

contingent future interests—i.e., future interests that are held by unknown/unborn persons or subject to a condition precedent.

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67
Q

Under the common law, RAP renders a contingent future interest

A

void ab initio (i.e., from the beginning)

unless the interest must vest or fail within 21 years after the end of a relevant life in being when the interest was created.

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68
Q

In foreclosure proceedings, lien priority is generally determined by

A

the “first in time, first in right” rule.

Unless there is recording act, then it governs

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69
Q

Under the “first in time-first in right rule”

A

liens that arise first (senior liens) typically have priority over liens that subsequently arise (junior liens).

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70
Q

A race-notice act gives a subsequent purchaser priority over a prior conflicting interest if the purchaser

A

(1) took its interest without noticeof the prior interest and
(2) recorded first.

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71
Q

A purchaser must “______ ________” for the interest in real property to be protected by the recording act.

A

“pay value”

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72
Q

____________ are considered to have paid value and are therefore protected, but this protection does not always extend to judgment liens.

A

“mortgagees”

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73
Q

Mortgage documents are used to convey a lender (mortgagee

A

an interest in real property to secure repayment of a debt

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74
Q

Mortgage documents may contain a “due on sale” clause, which

A

allows the lender to demand full payment of the remaining mortgage debt if the debtor(mortgagor) transfers the mortgaged property without the lender’s consent

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75
Q

if theres a “due on sale” clause, and the debtor does not pay, the lender can

A

can initiate foreclosure proceedings to recover any remaining debt.

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76
Q

Upon default on a loan obligation, a lender may elect to proceed against the debtor

A

personally or foreclose on the mortgage.

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77
Q

The applicable mortgage theory (lien or title) has no bearing on

A

the enforceability of a “due on sale” clause.

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78
Q

The applicable mortgage theory (lien or title) determines who (the mortgagor or the mortgagee) has

A

legal title to the mortgaged property.

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79
Q

Under the title theory, legal title is held by

A

the mortgagee until the mortgage debt has been fully paid.

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80
Q

An easement is the right held by one person to

A

make specific, nonpossessory use of another’s land (i.e., the servient estate).

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81
Q

an easement can be acquired by

A

prescription through OCAN

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82
Q

OCAN—i.e., use that is:

A

1) Open and notorious – apparent or visible to a reasonable owner,
2) Continuous –uninterrupted for the statutory period,
3) Actual – use of the land,
4) Nonpermissive – hostile and adverse to the owner

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83
Q

An easement can also be expressly created by the parties

A

in a writing that satisfies the statute of frauds

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84
Q

Owners of an easement have the right and the duty to

A

maintain the easement unless otherwise agreed.

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85
Q

when the easement is shared, the owner who maintains or repairs the easement may

A

seek contribution from the other owners.

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86
Q

The owner of the servient estate also has an obligation to

A

contribute if he/she uses the easement.

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87
Q

Specific performance

A

court-ordered performance of a contractual obligation—is available only when money damages are inadequate.

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88
Q

Since land is considered unique and money damages are inadequate to compensate for the loss of unique property, this remedy is

A

generally available to buyers.

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89
Q

The doctrine of after-acquired title (i.e., estoppel by deed) applies when

A

a grantor conveys property to a grantee by warranty deed before the grantor has acquired title to that property.

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90
Q

Under doctrine of after-acquired title (i.e., estoppel by deed); Once the grantor receives title, this doctrine will cause it to

A

automatically transfer to the grantee.

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91
Q

Detrimental reliance (i.e., promissory estoppel) and part performance are both defenses to

A

the statute of frauds, which requires that a land-sales contract be
1) in writing,
2) signed by the party against whom enforcement is sought,
3) and contain all essential terms

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92
Q

The “first in time, first in right” rule generally applies when determining

A

priority of interests in real property—i.e., whether an interest is junior or senior to another interest.

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93
Q

“first in time, first in right” rule is subject to various exceptions, including

A

purchase-money mortgages (PMMs) and recording acts.

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94
Q

A PMM is a mortgage granted to the seller of real property if

A

the mortgage is given as part of the same transaction in which title is acquired

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95
Q

A PMM has priority over liens that arose

A

prior to the PMM regardless of whether the PMM was recorded.

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96
Q

But a PMM does not necessarily

A

have priority over subsequent liens; the recording act (or, if there is no recording act, the “first in time” rule) will control

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97
Q

Condemnation is the

A

taking of land for public use or because it is unfit for use.

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98
Q

The right of a tenant upon condemnation depends upon whether the condemnation is:

A

partial or complete

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99
Q

partial condemnation

A

where only a portion of the leased property is taken, so the tenant must continue to pay rent but is entitled to compensation for the portion that was taken

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100
Q

complete condemnation

A

where the entire leased property is taken, so the tenant is discharged from his/her rent obligation and is entitled to compensation for the taking.

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101
Q

Every lease (commercial and residential) contains an implied covenant of

A

quiet enjoyment, under which the landlord promises not to interfere with the tenant’s possession of the leased premises.

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102
Q

implied covenant of quiet enjoyment is breached only when

A

the landlord prevents the tenant from possessing the leased premises.

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103
Q

A tenant’s duty to pay rent is excused due to

A

constructive eviction

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104
Q

constructive eviction occurs when

A

the landlord breaches a duty to the tenant that substantially interferes with the tenant’s use and enjoyment of the leasehold (e.g., failing to make repairs).

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105
Q

A partial eviction occurs when

A

a tenant is prevented from possessing or using a portion of the leased premises.

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106
Q

if a partial eviction occurs, The tenant is excused from paying rent for the entire premises if

A

the landlord was responsible for the partial eviction.

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107
Q

A mortgage is

A

an interest in real property given to a lender (mortgagee) to secure repayment of a debt.

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108
Q

The debtor (mortgagor) can freely transfer the mortgaged property to a grantee unless

A

the mortgage states otherwise.

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109
Q

After the conveyance, the mortgage remains attached to the property and the debtor remains

A

personally liable for the debt secured by the mortgage.

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110
Q

When a mortgage is conveyed, the grantee’s obligations depend on whether the grantee:

A

1) took subject to the mortgage
2) assumed the mortgage

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111
Q

took subject to the mortgage

A

then the grantee does not agree to pay and is not personally liable for the debt

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112
Q

assumed the mortgage

A

then the grantee agrees to pay and becomes primarily liable for the debt, and the debtor becomes secondarily liable as a surety.

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113
Q

debtor is relieved of personal liability for the mortgage debt if

A

the lender releases or impairs the mortgaged property

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114
Q

In a majority of jurisdictions, the seller of a residence has a duty to disclose

A

all material physical defects that are known to the seller and cannot be reasonably discovered by the buyer.

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115
Q

If the seller fails to disclose all material physical defects known to them,

A

buyer may rescind the sale or seek damages

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116
Q

A defect is material if it:

A

1) substantially affects the value of the residence,
2) impacts the health or safety of a resident, or
3) affects the desirability of the residence to the buyer.

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117
Q

buyer must show that the defect was not

A

readily observable or known to her

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118
Q

Landlords have a duty to repair defects that pose a health hazard, but

A

sellers do not

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119
Q

Sellers need only disclose a material physical defect to

A

prevent liability for those defects

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120
Q

The implied warranty of habitability (or of fitness, suitability, quality, workmanlike construction, performance) is implied in a contract for the sale of

A

a newly constructed residence

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121
Q

A defeasible fee is

A

an ownership interest in real property that has the potential to last forever but can be cut short if a specified event or condition occurs.

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122
Q

a fee simple determinable (FSD),

A

type of defeasible fee

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123
Q

fee simple determinable (FSD), which is created with

A

durational language (e.g., “so long as,” “during,” “until”).

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124
Q

The future interest that follows an FSD is either

A

a possibility of reverter; or an executory interest

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125
Q

a possibility of reverter

A

estate automatically reverts back to the grantor when the specified event occurs (presumed if not expressly stated)

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126
Q

executory interest

A

the estate automatically passes to a third party when the stated event occurs.

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127
Q

a possibility of reverter

A

freely alienable by the owner during life and upon death

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128
Q

FSD is freely

A

alienable, devisable, and descendible, it is always subject to the stated condition

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129
Q

A land-sales contract is executed when

A

the seller promises to deliver marketable title and the buyer promises to pay the purchase price.

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130
Q

promises must be performed on the closing date set forth in the contract if the parties set a strict closing deadline, which occurs when:

A

1) express language in the contract makes time of the essence,
2) the circumstances strongly suggest that the parties intended it to be or
3) one party gives the other party notice that time is of the essence.

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131
Q

when time is not of the essence

A

strict adherence to the closing date is not required in equity.

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132
Q

when time is not of the essence

A

performance is due upon closing or a reasonable time thereafter.

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133
Q

so long as performance can be rendered within a reasonable time after the closing date,

A

the delay does not provide grounds to rescind the contract and the other party must perform.*

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134
Q

a party that fails to render performance on the date set for closing in the real-estate contract will be

A

in breach and liable for incidental losses such as taxes, interest, etc.

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135
Q

Under the doctrine of equitable conversion, equitable title passes to the buyer upon entering the land-sales contract, but the seller retains

A

legal title during the pendency of the contract.

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136
Q

seller needs legal title to deliver

A

marketable title to the buyer at closing.

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137
Q

To be valid, a deed must:

A

1) be in writing and signed by the grantor
2) unambiguously identify the grantor and the grantee
3) unambiguously describe the land and
4) include words of transfer.

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138
Q

to clarify ambiguities in the deed

A

Extrinsic evidence can be admitted

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139
Q

if the extrinsic evidence is also unclear, then a court will not speculate as to the grantor’s intent and the deed

A

will be deemed void (i.e., of no legal effect).

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140
Q

Real-estate contracts usually require the buyer to make a deposit of

A

a portion of the purchase price (i.e., an “earnest money” deposit).

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141
Q

A liquidated damages clause is often included, which allows the seller to

A

retain the buyer’s deposit if the buyer breaches the contract and refuses to purchase the property.

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142
Q

liquidated damages clause is generally enforceable when

A

the amount of liquidated damages is reasonable—e.g., no more than 10 percent of the purchase price.

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143
Q

when evaluating reasonableness of a liquidated damages clause, courts may also consider:

A

1) sophistication of the buyer,
2) the nature of the transaction (commercial v. residential), and
3) whether the seller suffered an actual loss (if not, courts may refuse to enforce the clause).

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144
Q

A deposit for a reasonable amount may be retained in accordance with the liquidated damages clause—even if

A

the liquidated damages ($5,000) exceed actual damages ($4,000).

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145
Q

In a majority of jurisdictions, the nonpermissive requirement is met when

A

(1) the land is possessed without the owner’s permission and
(2) the possessor objectively demonstrates an intent to claim the land as his/her own
—the possessor’s subjective intent is irrelevant.

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146
Q

the exclusivity requirement focuses only on

A

the portion of the tract claimed by the adverse possessor—not the entire tract.

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147
Q

A court must balance the equities in determining

A

whether to issue an injunction.

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148
Q

A joint tenancy is a type of concurrent estate in which

A

two or more persons each own an undivided and equal interest in property with the right of survivorship

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149
Q

The right of survivorship means that a joint tenant’s interest

A

disappears upon death and the remaining joint tenants’ interests automatically expand proportionally to absorb it

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150
Q

joint tenant cannot

A

devise his/her interest at death.

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151
Q

When a foreclosure is conducted by a judicially supervised sale, the foreclosing mortgagee (here, the original owner):

A

1) must give notice to the holders of any junior interests in the property and
2) make them parties to the foreclosure action so that they can participate or send a representative
—otherwise, the junior-interest holder’s interest will remain after the sale may, but need not, join others who have an interest in the property (e.g., a senior-mortgage holder) or are liable on the debt (e.g., a guarantor) as proper, but not necessary, parties

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152
Q

a valid foreclosure only eliminates interests in the foreclosed property that are

A

junior to the interest being foreclosed

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153
Q

The doctrine of merger provides that

A

all obligations contained within a land-sale contract merge into the deed once the deed is delivered to and accepted by the buyer.

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154
Q

Under doctrine of merger, Any obligations contained within the land-sale contract can be enforced thereafter only if

A

they are incorporated into the deed.

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155
Q

obligations that are collateral to and independent of the conveyance (e.g., the seller’s obligation to remove his/her personal property prior to closing) are usually

A

not subject to the doctrine of merger.

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156
Q

certain transfers of residential real property are not subject to a due-on-sale clause—including

A

a transfer to the mortgagor’s living trust

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157
Q

A right of first refusal (ROFR) is

A

a preemptive right that gives its holder the opportunity to acquire property from a seller before it is transferred to a third party.

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158
Q

right of first refusal provision is valid if

A

it complies with the statute of frauds, and its terms are reasonable

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159
Q

reasonableness of right of first refusal provision is determined by

A

balancing the utility of the purpose served by this restraint against the likely harm that would result from enforcing it.

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160
Q

though direct restraints on alienation are invalid, an

A

ROFR is a reasonable indirect restraint

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161
Q

An express easement arises when

A

it is affirmatively created by the parties in a writing that complies with the statute of frauds (e.g., a deed).

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162
Q

unless limited by the easement’s express terms, the easement holder has the right to use the servient estate in any manner that is

A

reasonably necessary to use and enjoy the easement

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163
Q

An easement also anticipates

A

reasonable and natural development of the easement holder’s land (i.e., the dominant estate).

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164
Q

easement holder may increase the manner, frequency, and intensity of the easement’s use—so long as

A

that increase does not unreasonably damage or interfere with the use or enjoyment of the servient estate.

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165
Q

Even if the intent to bind successors in interest is not explicitly stated in the lease, it is generally presumed when the covenant

A

touches and concerns the land.

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166
Q

When a lease covenant does not run with the land, the original landlord

A

retains the right to enforce it.

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167
Q

RAP does not apply to a right of first refusal where

A

(1) granted in a lease to a current leasehold tenant or
(2) in most jurisdictions, created in a commercial transaction.

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168
Q

To finance the purchase of real property, a borrower typically executes two documents that serve as evidence of the debt:

A

Promissory note
Mortgage

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169
Q

Mortgage is recorded in the deed records to

A

provide notice of an outstanding debt attached to the real property.

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170
Q

A promissory note can be assigned to

A

another (an assignee) independent of the mortgage.

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171
Q

Once a note has been properly assigned, the mortgage

A

automatically transfers with the note

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172
Q

A negotiable promissory note can be assigned by

A

simply endorsing and delivering the note to the assignee

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173
Q

a nonnegotiable promissory note requires

A

a separate assignment document to transfer ownership.

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174
Q

a judgment obtained against the seller after the execution of the land-sale contract is not enforceable against the real property—even if

A

the claim arose before the contract was executed. (doctrine of equitable conversion)

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175
Q

A deed that names a nonexistent grantee is

A

void as to that nonexistent grantee.

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176
Q

if a nonexistent grantee was conveyed an interest in a tenancy in common, then the grantor would

A

retain the nonexistent cotenant’s interest and have a tenancy in common with the other cotenant(s) named in the deed.

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177
Q

Only the ___________ signature is required to render a deed valid

A

grantors

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178
Q

If the seller cannot convey marketable title (e.g., due to a zoning violation), the buyer can

A

rescind the contract and refuse to close; or can choose to accept the land with defect and enforce the contract

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179
Q

if seller refuses to perform, the buyer can

A

1) rescind the contract and seek restitution
2) seek specific performance with an abatement of the purchase price* or
3) sue for damages.

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180
Q

if buyer seeks abatement of the purchase price, this is

A

a price adjustment to compensate for the defect.

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181
Q

Under the doctrine of subrogation, a third party (subrogee) who pays another’s mortgage loan in full

A

becomes the owner of the loan and the mortgage securing that loan to the extent necessary to prevent unjust enrichment

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182
Q

Under the doctrine of subrogation subrogee may seek

A

reimbursement from the debtor (the former owner) or enforce the mortgage.

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183
Q

A common-interest community is

A

a real-estate development in which individually owned lots or units are burdened by a covenant that imposes an obligation to pay dues to an association.

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184
Q

association is typically governed by a board, which exercises the association’s power to

A

manage common property, administer the covenants, and carry out functions set forth in the declaration or granted by statute.

185
Q

board must act reasonably when

A

exercising its discretionary powers.

186
Q

A common-interest community association does not automatically possess the right to

A

impose aesthetic restrictions on a homeowner’s use of his/her property.

such power must be granted by statute or set forth in the declaration

187
Q

In a land-sales contract, two essential terms are

A

price and subject matter.

188
Q

Price is sufficiently certain and definite if

A

there is a practicable method for the court to determine what the price should be (e.g., fair market value).

189
Q

subject matter is sufficiently certain and definite if

A

it enables the court to determine exactly what property is being sold.

190
Q

A deed signed by the principal-grantor’s agent with only the principal-grantor’s name satisfies the signature requirement so long as

A

the agent had authority to sign on the principal-grantor’s behalf.

an agent may execute a deed on the principal-grantor’s behalf.

191
Q

A fixture is tangible personal property attached to real property in such a manner that it is treated as

A

part of the real property when determining its ownership (e.g., the sculpture).

192
Q

absent an agreement to the contrary, a fixture that the tenant has attached to the leased property may be removed if:

A

the leased property can be and is restored to its former condition and the removal and the restoration are made within a reasonable time.

193
Q

A reasonable time for removal generally does not extend beyond

A

the termination of the lease.

194
Q

A reasonable time for removal does extend beyond the termination of the lease when

A

1) the termination was not due to a breach by the tenant and
(2) the date of termination was not foreseeable by the tenant sufficiently far enough in advance to permit removal before the lease terminates.

195
Q

To terminate a periodic tenancy, the landlord must

A

give the tenant notice of termination before the beginning of the intended last period of the periodic tenancy.

196
Q

For a month-to-month tenancy, notice must be given

A

before the first day of the last month of the tenancy.

197
Q

In the event that a seller breaches a contract to sell land, the buyer is entitled to

A

specific performance since the buyers remedy at law is considered inadequate due to the unique nature of land

198
Q

while a check is not a typical land sale contract

A

it can satisfy the statute of frauds if the payee indorses the check as well, who is the party that enforcement is sought against; contains the parties names; states the property to be sold; and sets out the price

199
Q

under virginia law, the defense of part performance is established by a showing that:

A

1) the parol agreement relied on is “certain and definite in its terms”
2) the acts proved in part performance “refer to, result from, or were made in pursuance of the agreement” and
3) the agreement was “so far executed that a refusal of full execution would operate a fraud upon the party, and place him in a situation which does not lie in compensation.”

200
Q

a nonbreaching party on a land sale contract, who performs his contractual obligation can argue for the contract to be removed from the statute of frauds under the defense of

A

part performance

201
Q

the land that is subject to the easement is the

A

servient estate

202
Q

the land benefited from an easement on a servient estate is the

A

dominate estate

203
Q

typically an easement is created by

A

an express grant by the owner of the servient estate to the owner of the dominant estate

204
Q

an easement may also be recognized if

A

the dominant estate is virtually useless (landlocked) without the benefit of an easement across servient estate (easement by necessity)

205
Q

in order for an easement by necessity to be recognized

A

1) both the dominant and servient estates must have been under common ownership in the past
2) necessity must have arisen at the time that the property was severed and the two estates were created.

206
Q

where access to a public road is circuitous and extremely difficult, its not impossible, meaning

A

its not landlocked

207
Q

an express easement arises when

A

it is affirmateively created by the owner of the servient estate in writing that is in compliance with the statute of frauds

208
Q

an easement may be either

A

appurtenant or in gross

209
Q

an easement appurtenant benefits

A

the owner of the dominant estate in his use and enjoyment of his property

210
Q

an easement in gross is

A

given to an individual to benefit them personally

211
Q

an easement appurtenant passes to

A

a successor in interest of the dominant estate

212
Q

an easement in gross does not

A

automatically pass to a successor in interest of the dominant estate

213
Q

where there is uncertainty as to the type of easement granted by the owner of the servient estate,

A

an easement appurtenant is favored by law

214
Q

Even if a court interprets the language of an easement as not prohibiting a subsequent expansion of the scope of an easement, the court will not

A

expand the easement to cover property that was not part of the dominant estate at the time that the easement was granted.

215
Q

a joint tenancy exists when

A

two or more persons own property with the right of survivorship

216
Q

under virginia law, if a right of survivorship is not expressly reserved in the grant

A

then the tenancy will be construed as a tenancy in common rather than a joint tenancy

217
Q

in a tenancy in common, each tenant can

A

devise or freely transfer his interest to anyone, without affecting the interest of any other tenant in common

218
Q

if a tenant in common transfers/sells her interest to a third party, the third party will take

A

subject to other tenants in common interest in the property

219
Q

a remainder is

A

a future interest created in a grantee that is capable of becoming presently possessory upon the natural expiration of a prior possessory estate that is created in the same conveyance in which the remainder is created

220
Q

a vested remainder is an interest that is

A

not subject to any conditions precedent and is created in an ascertainable grantee

221
Q

in Virginia, all future interests, including vested remainders are

A

fully transferable inter vivos, devisable by will, and descendible by inheritance

222
Q

while future interests including vested remainders are fully transferrable, until the future interest becomes possessory, purchasing party of interest will take title

A

subject to the the present possessory life estate

223
Q

a fee simple determinable is

A

a present fee simple estate that is limited by specific durational language, such that it terminates automatically upon the happening of a stated event and full ownership of the property is returned to the grantor

224
Q

the grantors retained future interest following a fee simple determinable is called

A

a possibility of reverter

225
Q

a possibility of reverter arises automatically even if

A

the grantor does not specifically reserve it

226
Q

where a party is wrongfully in possession of property at the time a party lawfully acquires title, to acquire possession, the party may need to

A

bring an action to eject the party unless they willingly vacate

227
Q

Although the ownership of the property is deemed to automatically revert to the grantor upon the occurrence of the event, if the grantor must initiate legal action to regain possession of the property, Virginia requires the grantor to

A

commence the action within 10 years of the occurrence of the event

228
Q

unless a grantor can convince or force a party to vacate the premises by closing, this would violate the covenant of marketable title, and the buyer could

A

rescind the contract to purchase the property, sue for breach of contract, or bring an action for specific performance with an abatement of the purchase price to reflect the unmarketable title

229
Q

a vested remainder, as a real property interest, can be encumbered by

A

a deed of trust

230
Q

pursuant to a deed of trust, which function as a mortgage in Virginia, a landowner delivers title to real property to a trustee as

A

security for the payment of an obligation that typically the landowner owes another person (e.g. a lender)

231
Q

in a deed of trust, on the landowners default on his obligation, the other person can instruct the trustee to

A

sell the property and apply the sale proceeds to repay the obligation

232
Q

prior to the trustees sale, the landowner may

A

regain title to the property by repaying the obligation

233
Q

the landowner subject to the deed of trust may

A

sell the property that is subject to a deed of trust, and use the proceeds from the sale to repay the obligation and regain title to the property which landowner then transfers to the buyer of the property

234
Q

“with general warranty” used in granting part of deed

A

constitute a covenant by grantor the he, his heirs and personal representatives, will forever warrant and defend the property unto grantee, his heirs, personal representatives and assigns, against the claims and demands of all persons, whomsoever

235
Q

unlike a special warranty by a grantor that no defect of title occurred during his ownership of the property, when a grantor gives a general warranty, he is warranting that the defect did not occur during

A

his or any preceding ownership of the property

236
Q

“with english covenants of title” in the granting of a deed means

A

the six covenants of title apply

237
Q

virginia statutorily denominates the covenant of quiet enjoyment as the

A

covenant of quiet possession; and treats them as functional and legal equivalents

238
Q

the three present covenants of title are

A

covenant of seisin
covenant of right to convey
covenant against encumbrances

239
Q

the covenant of seisin warrants that

A

the grantor owns the land as it is described in the deed

240
Q

the covenant of right to convey gaurantees that

A

the grantor has the right to transfer title

241
Q

the covenant against encumbrances guarantees that

A

the deed contains no undisclosed encumbrances

242
Q

breach of the present covenants occurs, if at all, at the time of

A

conveyance

243
Q

In Virginia the three future covenants of title are

A

covenants of quiet possession
covenant of warranty
covenant of further assurances

244
Q

covenant of quiet possession guarantees that

A

the grantees possession will not be interfered with a third party lawful claim for title

245
Q

covenant of warranty guarantees that

A

grantor will defend against a third party’s lawful claim for title

246
Q

covenant of future assurances guarantees that

A

grantor will do whatever necessary to perfect title should it be defective

247
Q

breach of future covenant of title occurs, if at all only upon

A

interference with possession by a third party

248
Q

under the common law doctrine of merger, obligations contained in the contract of sale (such as sellers duty to deliver marketable title, or description of size or location of property) are

A

merged into the deed and cannot thereafter be enforced unless the deeds contains the obligation

249
Q

doctrine of merger is generally not applicable to obligations that are

A

collateral to and independent of the conveyance itself

250
Q

a tenant in common or a joint tenant generally has the right to

A

unilaterally partition the property

251
Q

a tenant by the entirety does not have the right to

A

unilaterally partition the property

252
Q

property can be partitioned either

A

voluntarily or involuntary

253
Q

voluntary partition of property occurs by

A

co tenants agreeing in writing on the division of the land

254
Q

involuntary partition of the property occurs by

A

court action

255
Q

upon divorce of the owners of property held in tenancy by the entirety, the ownership is converted into

A

a tenancy in common

256
Q

generally courts favor partition __________ of jointly owned property

A

in kind

257
Q

in a partition in kind action, the court

A

divides the property into distinct physical portions

258
Q

if physical division of the property is not practicable or fair, the court may order

A

a partition by sale and distribute the proceeds

259
Q

generally, a co-tenant does not have the right to reimbursement for

A

improvements made to the property

260
Q

upon partition of the property, a court may allocate the proceeds from the sale of the property to

A

compensate the co-tenant for the value of the improvement

261
Q

common language used for a TODD

A

“at my death, I transfer and convey my interest in the described property to X, as my designated beneficiary, if X survives me.”

262
Q

Elective share:

A

1) 50% of the value of marital property portion of augmented estate.
2) If a legal spouse, they must file a notice of election within 6 months from admission of will to probate, or if none, from appointment of administrator.
3) Then must file the complaint to determine the elective share NLT 6 months after filing election.
4) Shares range from 3% of augmented estate for marriages of less than 1 year- 100% for marriages 15 years or more.

263
Q

Augmented estate:

A

net probate estate, nonprobate transfers to third persons, nonprobate transfers to surviving spouse, surviving spouses property and nonprobate transfers to others.

264
Q

The doctrine of adverse possession allows ownership to be granted to a person who

A

exercises exclusive physical possession of a piece of property for a certain amount of time.

265
Q

Adverse possession: For possession to ripen into title, possession must be

A

continuous, open and notorious, actual, exclusive, and hostile.

266
Q

Adverse possession: In Virginia, possession must be

A

continuous and uninterrupted for a period of 15 years.

267
Q

Adverse possession: Seasonal or infrequent use may be sufficiently continuous if

A

it is consistent with the type of property that is being possessed.

268
Q

Adverse possession: possession must be open and notorious, such that

A

a reasonable true owner would become aware of the claim.

269
Q

to be considered “hostile” the adverse possessor must possess the land

A

1) without the owner’s permission and
2) with the intent to claim the land as his own against the claims of others

270
Q

In Virginia, if possession is by a family member, then the presumption is that

A

the family member was on the land with permission, and therefore not hostile.

271
Q

In order for possession to be exclusive, it cannot be

A

shared with the true owner, although two or more people can join together to create a tenancy in common by adverse possession.

272
Q

b/c of family member presumption with adverse possession, unless he can overcome presumption, he cant satisfy the

A

hostile element required for successful adverse possession claim

273
Q

An easement is

A

the right held by one person to make:
1) specific,
2) limited
3) use of land owned by another.

274
Q

The land that is subject to the easement is

A

the servient estate

275
Q

land benefited from an easement on a servient estate is

A

the dominant estate.

276
Q

for an easement by necessity to be created:

A

The property must be virtually useless without the benefit of the easement

277
Q

Generally, easements by necessity arise when

A

property is divided and as a result a portion becomes landlocked and cannot be accessed without use of an easement.

278
Q

In Virginia, easements by prescription can be obtained by

A

continuous, actual, open, and hostile use for a period of 20 years.

279
Q

for easement by prescription, the use

A

need not be exclusive

280
Q

the scope of an easement by prescription is limited to

A

the nature and extent of the adverse use.

281
Q

regarding a contract for the sale of a real property interest, promises contained in such a contract are merged

A

with deed

282
Q
A
283
Q

Virginia narrowly circumscribes the doctrine of merger, limiting it to

A

obligations in a real estate contract that relate to title or are addressed in the deed.

284
Q

A closing statement, which is signed by both parties, is not

A

a deed

285
Q

A closing statement merely reflects the parties’ prior agreement by

A

assigning dollar values to the terms in the contract.

286
Q

a closing statement is not a deed, but a document of lesser

A

importance than either a deed or a contract.

287
Q

Reformation is

A

1) the modification of a document that has legal effect, such as a contract or a deed,
2) by a court
3) upon petition by a party.

288
Q

Reformation of a writing for mistake is available if:

A

(i) there was a prior agreement between the parties;
(ii) there was an agreement by the parties to put that prior agreement into writing; and
(iii) as a result of a mistake, there is a difference between the prior agreement and the writing.

289
Q

A party’s failure to notice a mistake

A

will not preclude reformation of the instrument.

290
Q

A deed that has been delivered is effective to

A

transfer ownership of real property, even though the deed is not recorded.

291
Q

To transfer ownership of real property, the grantor must, at the time of transfer, intend to make

A

a present transfer of a property interest to the grantee.

292
Q

Typically, the intent to make a present transfer of a property interest to the grantee is manifested by

A

delivery of the deed.

293
Q

Delivery of deed may be completed by

A

physically handing or mailing the deed to the grantee or the grantee’s agent.

294
Q

the recording of a deed by the grantor or someone at his direction may indicate

A

an intent to make a present transfer of a property interest to the grantee

295
Q

While the recording of a deed by the grantor or someone at his direction may indicate an intent to make a present transfer of a property interest to the grantee

A

there is no requirement that a deed must be recorded for ownership of the property to pass to the grantee.

296
Q

The words “with English covenants of title” in the granting of a deed is deemed to include the following covenants of title:

A

(i) covenant of seisin,
(ii) covenant of the right to convey,
(iii) covenant of “free from all encumbrances,”
(iv) covenant of “no act to encumber,”
(v) covenant of further assurances, and
(vi) covenant of quiet possession (i.e., covenant of quiet enjoyment).

297
Q

The covenant of seisin warrants

A

warrants that the grantor owns the land as it is described in the deed.

298
Q

The covenant of the right to convey guarantees

A

that the grantor has the right to transfer title.

299
Q

The covenant of “free from all encumbrances” guarantees that

A

the deed contains no undisclosed encumbrances.

300
Q

The covenant of “no act to encumber” more narrowly guarantees that

A

the grantor has taken no act that results in the encumbrance of the property.

301
Q

In Virginia, an encumbrance is

A

a claim or liability that is attached to property that may lessen its value, such as a lien or mortgage.

302
Q

Because a zoning restriction is not a claim or liability attached to property, it does not constitute

A

an encumbrance

303
Q

The covenant for further assurances guarantees that

A

the grantor will do whatever is necessary to perfect title should it turn out to be defective.

304
Q

The covenant of quiet possession guarantees that

A

the grantee’s possession will not be interfered with by a third party’s lawful claim for title.

305
Q

Unlike a zoning restriction, a judgment lien is

A

an encumbrance.

306
Q

Grantee’s constructive or actual knowledge of encumbrance does not constitute a defense to

A

grantor’s breach of covenant free from encumbrances or the covenant of “no act to encumber,” if applicable.

307
Q

when the words “with general warranty” are used in the granting part of any deed, these words are deemed to create

A

a covenant by the grantor that she, her heirs, and her personal representatives will forever warrant and defend such property unto the grantee, his heirs, and his personal representatives and assigns against the claims and demands of all persons whomsoever.

308
Q

A tenant in common or a joint tenant generally has the right to unilaterally partition the property, but

A

a tenant by the entirety does not have the right to unilaterally partition the property

309
Q

Property can be partitioned either

A

voluntarily (if the co-tenants agree in writing on the division of land) or involuntarily (by court action).

310
Q

divorce automatically severed their ownership of the home as tenants by the entirety with the right of survivorship and converted their tenancy into

A

a tenancy in common.

311
Q

While there is a preference for a partition in kind (i.e., a physical division of the property), such an action is generally not possible where

A

the property to be partitioned is a home.

312
Q

Tenancy by the entirety is

A

a joint tenancy between married persons with a right of survivorship.

313
Q

The same rules for joint tenancy apply to

A

tenancy by the entirety.

314
Q

The tenancy by the entirety must be created (4 unities +)

A

(i) with each joint tenant having the equal right to possess or use the property,
(ii) with each interest equal to the others,
(iii) at the same time,
(iv) in the same instrument, and
(v) when the joint tenants are married.

315
Q

tenancy by the entirety, Neither party can alienate or encumber the property

A

without the consent of the other.

316
Q

Joint tenants who own real property generally have the right to partition the property, but tenants by the entirety

A

do not have a right to unilateral partition.

317
Q

Divorce severs

A

a tenancy by the entirety

318
Q

Without the right of survivorship, each tenant can

A

devise or freely transfer his interest to anyone.

319
Q

Each co-tenant holds

A

an undivided interest with unrestricted rights to possess the whole property, regardless of the size of the interest.

320
Q

Under the applicable Virginia statute, which is a codification of the equitable doctrine of estoppel by deed, a grantor who conveys an interest to land before actually owning it is estopped from

A

later denying the effectiveness of the deed.

321
Q

under estoppel by deed when the grantor does acquire ownership of the land, the after-acquired title is

A

transferred automatically to the prior grantee.

322
Q

Each co-tenant holds

A

an undivided interest with unrestricted rights to possess the whole property, regardless of the size of the interest.

323
Q

An absolute divorce extinguishes the rights of each spouse in

A

the other’s real or personal property.

324
Q

upon divorce property held as joint tenants or tenants by the entirety is converted into a

A

tenancy in common

325
Q

because there is no right of survivorship in a tenancy in common,

A

each tenant can unilaterally devise, encumber, or transfer his or her interest to anyone, without affecting the other co-tenant’s interest

326
Q

Marketable title is a title

A

free from defects, i.e. free from an unreasonable risk of litigation.

327
Q

Defects in title rendering title unmarketable include:

A

(i) title acquired by adverse possession that has not yet been quieted;
(ii) future interests wherein the holders of such interests have not agreed to the transfer;
(iii) private encumbrance (e.g., mortgage, covenant, option, or easement);
(iv) violation of a zoning ordinance; or
(v) significant physical defect.

328
Q

An easement is

A

the right held by one person to make specific, limited use of land owned by another.

329
Q

An easement appurtenant is

A

transferred with the land to which it relates.

330
Q

Easements are presumed to be

A

appurtenant (i.e., tied to the land) unless there are clear facts to the contrary.

331
Q

An easement is in gross if

A

it was granted to benefit a particular person (as opposed to the land).

332
Q

Traditionally, an easement in gross could not be transferred, but most courts now look to the intent of the parties to determine whether

A

the parties intended only the holder of the easement in gross to enjoy the right, in which case it is not transferable, or whether the parties intended the holder to be able to transfer it.

333
Q

In Virginia, if the original purpose for which an easement is created no longer exists

A

then the easement will be terminated

334
Q

A license is

A

a non-possessory right to enter another’s land for some delineated purpose; such as to use a pool.

335
Q

Traditionally, a license

A

could not be transferred by the licensee, and the attempt to do so resulted in the loss of the license.

336
Q

A unity of person is only required for

A

tenancies in the entirety

337
Q

A joint tenancy must be created

A

(i) with each tenant having the equal right to possess or use the property (unity of possession),
(ii) each tenant having an equal interest in the property (unity of interest),
(iii) at the same time (unity of time), (iv) and in the same instrument.

338
Q

each joint tenant’s interest must be created by

A

the same instrument

339
Q

each joint tenants interest must be created at

A

the same time

340
Q

a joint tenancy must be created with each joint tenant having

A

an equal right to possess or use the property

341
Q

An action for ejectment generally must be brought within

A

15 years of the accrual of the right to bring this action

342
Q

An action for ejectment generally must be brought within 15 years of the accrual of the right to bring this action, but if a person entitled to bring an action is an infant at the time the cause accrues, the period of limitations

A

does not start to run until the disability is removed

343
Q

in an action to recover land, the action must be brought within

A

25 years from when the cause of action first accrued

344
Q

the statute of limitations for bringing an ejectment action against an adverse possessor is

A

15 years

345
Q

an action to recover land is subject to maximum limit of

A

25 years from when the cause of action first accrued

346
Q

An unlawful detainer action is an action at law by which

A

the owner of real property can regain possession from a person who is in wrongful possession of the property

347
Q

The most common use of an unlawful detainer action is

A

by landlords seeking to evict a tenant

348
Q

ejectment is a legal claim to

A

try title to land and to establish that the movant is the holder of title to the land

349
Q

If the landlord brought an action for ejectment and won, the remedy would be

A

a writ of possession from the court directing the sheriff to deliver possession to the plaintiff

350
Q

distress is an in rem law claim by a landlord for

A

recovery of rent by proceeding against the tenant’s tangible personal property

351
Q

Easements can be obtained by prescription, there must be

A

continuous, actual, open, and hostile use for a specific period (20 years in Virginia); doesnt need to be exclusive, unlike adverse possession

352
Q

there must be continuous use to obtain an easement by

A

prescription

353
Q

use must be hostile to obtain an

A

easement by prescription

354
Q

the use to obtain an easement by prescription must be

A

open

355
Q

Each unit owner of a condominium also owns the common areas of the building together with the other unit owners as

A

tenants in common

356
Q

In Virginia, the common elements of a condominium include

A

all parts of the condominium other than the living units

357
Q

only the owners’ association has standing to sue for

A

claims or actions related to the common elements of the condominium;

The individual owners of the units do not have standing to bring such claims.

358
Q

Under the doctrine of adverse possession, ownership of real property is transferred to a person who

A

exercises exclusive physical possession of that property for a certain amount of time

359
Q

In order to establish title by adverse possession, the possession must be

A

continuous, actual, open and notorious, hostile, and exclusive

360
Q

Virginia requires possession to be

A

continuous and uninterrupted for 15 years.

361
Q

A license is a right to enter another’s land for some delineated purpose and can be created without

A

consideration or a writing.

362
Q

A license is freely revocable unless

A

it is coupled with an interest or detrimentally relied upon, in which case the license is irrevocable and amounts to an equitable easement

363
Q

Detrimental reliance requires the licensee to

A

expend money in reasonable reliance on the license

364
Q

To transfer a real property interest, the grantor must demonstrate

A

the intent to make a present transfer of the interest (e.g., delivery of the deed) and the grantee must accept the interest.
In addition, pursuant to the Statute of Frauds, the transfer of a real property interest must be evidenced by a writing (e.g., a valid deed).

365
Q

An easement is

A

the right held by one person to make specific, limited use of land owned by another.

366
Q

The land that is subject to the easement is

A

the servient estate

367
Q

the land that benefits from an easement on a servient estate is

A

the dominant estate

368
Q

An affirmative easement gives another the right to use the land for

A

a specific purpose.

369
Q

If a written easement is granted but not recorded against the servient estate, then the easement is

A

not enforceable against a bona fide purchaser (i.e., a purchaser with no notice of the easement).

The easement is not actually terminated, but rather becomes unenforceable.

370
Q

When the words “with general warranty” are used in the granting part of any deed, these words are deemed to create

A

a covenant by the grantor that she, her heirs, and her personal representatives will forever warrant and defend such property unto the grantee, his heirs, and his personal representatives & assigns against the claims and demands of all persons whomsoever

371
Q

By delivering a General Warranty deed, Bob has warranted that he will

A

defend all claims against the property.

372
Q

The words “with English covenants of title” in the granting of a deed mean that

A

the six covenants of title are included in the deed, including the covenant against encumbrances

373
Q

covenant against encumbrances

A

1) a “present” covenant
2) guarantees that the deed contains no undisclosed encumbrances
3) Breach of a present covenant occurs at the time of conveyance.

374
Q

A land sale contract is subject to the Statute of Frauds, and thus, must

A

(i) be in writing,
(ii) be signed by the party to be charged, and
(iii) contain all essential terms.

375
Q

essential terms of a land sale contract SOF requirement

A

names of parties/ price/ property description

376
Q

Once a duty to perform exists, nonperformance is

A

a breach unless the duty is otherwise discharged.

377
Q

Absent contrary language, a seller of real property is required to deliver marketable title at closing as

A

an implied part of performance

378
Q

Marketable title is a title that is

A

free from an unreasonable risk of litigation.

379
Q

The party who commits a material breach of his contract obligations cannot sue for contract damages but would ordinarily be entitled to

A

the fair value of any benefit conferred on the non-breaching party

380
Q

A material breach occurs when

A

the non-breaching party does not receive the substantial benefit of his bargain.

381
Q

Seller was not willing to provide a marketable title or any remedy for its being unmarketable. Therefore, Seller

A

breached his duty to deliver marketable title at closing.

382
Q

In Virginia, the risk of loss between execution of the land sale contract and the closing date is

A

placed on the buyer

383
Q

because he breached the contract with Purchaser, Seller cannot sue for damages, including

A

specific performance

384
Q

a land sale contract generally must meet the requirements of

A

the Statute of Frauds

385
Q

under the doctrine of part performance, either party may seek specific performance when the acts of performance constitute

A

persuasive evidence of the existence of a contract

386
Q

In Virginia, specific performance may be allowed under the doctrine of part performance by showing that

A

(i) the parol evidence agreement has certain and definite terms,
(ii) the part performance was made pursuant to the agreement, and
(iii) the agreement has been executed in a way that requires full execution to prevent a fraud upon the party that has partially performed.

387
Q

When Seller refused to transfer the property to Purchaser, he

A

breached the contract

388
Q

When damages are an inadequate remedy, the non-breaching party may pursue

A

the equitable remedy of specific performance

389
Q

In Virginia, a party seeking specific performance must demonstrate that

A

1) there is no adequate remedy at law and
2) that the terms of the contract sought to be enforced are sufficiently definite.

390
Q

A buyer is entitled to specific performance for a seller’s breach of a contract to sell real property because

A

the buyer’s remedy at law is considered inadequate due to the unique nature of real property.

391
Q

In order to grant specific performance of a contract to sell real estate, the court must conclude generally that the contract is

A

1) both valid and enforceable [not subject to legitimate defenses],
2) that both parties have obligations to perform under the contract, and
3) that there is no adequate remedy at law.

392
Q

Because real estate is considered to be unique, it is often the subject of

A

specific performance claims.

393
Q

Virginia’s Statute of Frauds, Va. Code §11-2[6] requires any contract for the sale of real estate to be

A

in writing

394
Q

There is an exception to the requirement of a writing where

A

the party seeking specific performance has partially performed.

395
Q

the court should grant specific performance, based on

A

[1] the terms of the oral agreement being certain and definite;
[2] the acts proved in part performance must refer to, result from or be made in pursuance of the agreement; and
[3] refusal to order specific performance would operate as a fraud on the buyer.

396
Q

The doctrine of equitable conversion exists in Virginia, not as a rule of law, but as a discretionary doctrine to be applied when

A

equity considers a thing to be done which ought to have been done.
It is a legal fiction based on the presumed intention of the parties.

397
Q

where a valid contract for the sale of land exists, the doctrine of equitable conversion would

A

allow the court to specifically enforce the sale.

398
Q

application of the doctrine of equitable conversion is limited to cases where the enforcement of the contract is

A

1) in accord with the intention of the parties,
2) free from fraud, and
3) where enforcement will not produce inequitable results.

399
Q

The doctrine of equitable conversion will not be applied in a case where to do so would result in

A

hardship or injustice forced upon one party, through a change in circumstances not contemplated by the parties at the time of the contract.

400
Q

Specific performance will not be decreed where a contract is

A

1) founded in fraud, or
2) where a subsequent change of circumstances has defeated the purpose of the contract

401
Q

When the servient tenement is transferred, the new owner takes subject to the easement unless

A

the new owner is a bona fide purchaser for value with no notice of the easement

402
Q

if an easement is not recorded, the purchaser doesnt have

A

record notice

403
Q

physical location of an easement can put the purchaser on

A

constructive notice

404
Q

Pursuant to the General Warranty, the grantor covenants that

A

he, his heirs and personal representatives will forever warrant and defend such property unto the grantee, his heirs, personal representatives and assigns, against the claims and demands of all persons whomsoever.

405
Q

only the condominium unit owners’ association had standing to sue for claims related to

A

common elements and limited common elements.

406
Q

Supreme Court of Virginia has held that “where a grantor conveys land by deed describing it as bounded by a road or street, the fee of which is vested in the grantor, he implies that

A

such way exists and that the grantee acquires the benefit of it;
Nothing in the Virginia case law, however, permits the grantee to allow others to use the boundary road on the grantor’s property

407
Q

Ordinarily, a written memorandum would take an oral agreement outside the statute of frauds—and allow it to be enforceable—if the written memorandum

A

1) identifies the subject of the contract,
2) is sufficient to indicate a contract has been made, and
3) includes the essential terms of such contract, as well as
4) be signed by the party to be charged.

408
Q

Specific performance is an equitable remedy typically employed to

A

enforce a contract for unique property, such as land.

409
Q

a tenant in common or joint tenant “who places improvements upon common property at his own expense is entitled to

A

compensation in the event of partition

410
Q

a determinable fee

A

conveyance was denominated with the durational limit “so long as

411
Q

With a general warranty deed, the grantor covenants against

A

title defects that either he or his predecessors created.

412
Q

A general warranty deed and the English Covenants of Title guarantee against

A

defects in title, not defects in the condition of the property.

413
Q

Under the merger doctrine, a previous contract is

A

extinguished by an instrument of higher dignity – the deed.

414
Q

The doctrine of merger only applies to

A

the subject matter specifically covered by the deed;

It does not apply to provisions that are collateral to the passage of title.

415
Q

The merger doctrine is of

A

narrow scope and disfavored

416
Q

failure to record the deed does not

A

invalidate it.

417
Q

a lawfully adopted zoning ordinance is not an

A

“encumbrance,” tenancy, or lien on the land

418
Q

In other words, the language “English covenants of title” simply mean that

A

the deed is conveyed in fee simple, without any encumbrances of tenancies, or liens on the property

419
Q

The English covenants of title include

A

1) seisin
2) right to convey
3) quiet possession
4) free from encumbrances
5) further assurances
6) no act to encumber

420
Q

The covenant of quiet possession free from encumbrance simply constitutes a promise that

A

a grantee will hold and enjoy the land free from any interruption, claim or demand by anybody, and that grantor would indemnify and save grantees harmless against any and every charge or encumbrance.

421
Q

An encumbrance has been defined as including

A

the existence of physical intrusions or encroachments or superior title or interest in the land held by another party.

Lawful zoning ordinances are not encumbrances.

422
Q

with regard to judgment liens, it is generally recognized that so long as the judgment is unenforced

A

no actual damages are incurred by the buyer unless he discharges the lien or suffers damages as a result of the judgment creditor’s enforcement of the lien.

423
Q

the covenant free from all encumbrances would include

A

any right to, or interest in, the land, to the diminution of the value of the land. An outstanding right in anyone other than the grantee usually is an encumbrance.

424
Q

Whether a property’s title is or is not encumbered is not a matter of

A

agreement of the parties.

425
Q

A deed may validly convey real property by inter vivos gift so long as there is

A

[1] donative intent, [2] delivery, and [3] acceptance.

426
Q

The deed must

A

[1] be in writing, [2] signed by the grantor; and reasonably identifies [3] the parties and [4] the land.

427
Q

With respect to the identification of the parties, the parties’ names need only to be

A

reasonably identifiable

428
Q

Delivery can occur by various methods, including

A

manual deliver

429
Q

The grantee becomes bound by the terms of the deed by

A

his acceptance of a deed delivered by the grantor, even though a deed is signed only by the grantor.

430
Q

Acceptance on the part of the grantee can be implied since

A

the conveyance is presumed to be beneficial.

431
Q

The suretyship provision of the Statute of Frauds provides that

A

no action concerning an agreement shall be brought against any person upon a promise to answer for the debt, default, or misdoings of another, unless that agreement is in writing and signed by the party to be charged or his agent.

432
Q

A collateral undertaking applies when the promisor is

A

merely a surety or guarantor, receives no direct benefit, and is liable only if the debtor defaults.

433
Q

A grantee who assumes an existing mortgage is not

A

a surety

434
Q

The grantee makes no promise to the mortgagee to pay the debt of another, but promises the grantor to

A

to pay the mortgagee the debt the grantee owes to the grantor.

435
Q

a valid deed containing an assumption clause, when accepted by the grantee, is

A

an enforceable agreement to assume the mortgage debt

436
Q

Parole evidence is inadmissible to vary or contradict a

A

complete and unambiguous written instrument.

437
Q

Where the language of a deed is explicit, the intention is clear, and the result is not repugnant, the court should

A

look no further than the four corners of the instrument.

438
Q

A unilateral mistake of fact will

A

not invalidate a contract

438
Q

A contract may be reformed or rescinded in equity on the ground of

A

mutual mistake

439
Q

On its face, Virginia’s recording statute reads as

A

a notice statute

440
Q

the Virginia Supreme Court has found no error in the trial court’s conclusion that Virginia’s recording act makes Virginia a

A

race-notice jurisdiction

441
Q

Under a notice statute analysis

A

a subsequent bona fide purchaser that takes without notice will prevail over a prior property interest holder.

442
Q

Notice can occur in three ways, including

A

record notice

443
Q

Under a race-notice analysis, the subsequent purchaser must

A

take without notice, and must record their interest first.

444
Q

Under the doctrine of merger, provisions in a contract for sale are

A

extinguished and merged into the deed.

445
Q

under merger doctrine, if a buyer has a claim against a seller, then the basis of the claim must be based on

A

the covenants in the deed, if any, and not on the contract itself

446
Q

provisions which are collateral to the passage of title and not covered by the deed are

A

not merged into the deed and survive its execution

447
Q

Not all agreements between the parties regarding the purchase and sale of the property are

A

contained in the deed.

448
Q

agreements not contained in the deed, are considered collateral to the sale, and survive execution of the deed, if

A

1) they are distinct agreements made in connection with the sale of the property
2) do not affect title to the property
3) not addressed in the deed
4) do not conflict with the deed

449
Q

To establish fraud, must prove

A

a false representation of a material fact made knowingly, with the intent to mislead and be relied upon by party to his detriment.

450
Q

The element of misrepresentation can also be established by proving

A

a concealment of a material fact

451
Q

Reliance may not be justified, however, when

A

a potential buyer undertakes investigation regarding a matter at issue because the buyer is charged with knowledge that the investigation reveals or knowledge that would have been revealed had the investigation been pursued diligently.

452
Q

A purchaser need only purchase without notice of the prior interest to prevail under

A

a notice statute.

453
Q

A race-notice statute requires a subsequent purchaser to take the interest

A

without notice of a prior conflicting interest and be the first to record.

454
Q

Delivery of deed may be completed by

A

physically handing or mailing the deed to the grantee or the grantee’s agent

455
Q

Intent can be implied from the words and conduct of the grantor, such as when

A

the grantor drafts and records a deed.

456
Q

when the grantor keeps the deed, intent to transfer is

A

not presumed;
Instead, parol evidence is admissible to establish whether the grantor had the intent to make a present transfer of the property interest.

457
Q
A