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ABOS Part I > Trauma > Flashcards

Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

Universal blood donor.

A

O-negative.

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2
Q

Proportion of PRBCs, FFP, platelets to be transfused in unstable trauma patients

A

1:1:1

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3
Q

Calcium levels in massive transfusion.

A

Can be decreased due to citrate binding with calcium.

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4
Q

Lactate level below this indicate adequate resuscitation.

A

2.5

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5
Q

Physiologic changes in class I hemodynamic shock.

A

None.

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6
Q

Blood volume loss in class I hemodynamic shock.

A

Up to 15%

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7
Q

Blood volume loss in class II hemodynamic shock.

A

15-30%

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8
Q

Increased or decreased systemic vascular resistance in hypovolemic shock.

A

Increased SVR.

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9
Q

Treatment of neurogenic shock.

A

Dobutamine or dopamine.

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10
Q

Femur fractures may be converted from ex-fix to IMN in this time period.

A

3 weeks

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11
Q

Tibia fracture should be converted from ex-fix to IMN in this time period.

A

10 days

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12
Q

Most common cause of death in pregnancy.

A

Trauma.

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13
Q

Place all pregnant patients at more than 20 weeks gestation in this period.

A

Left lateral decubitus.

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14
Q

Why pregnant women placed in left lateral decubitus.

A

Prevent vena cava compression by gravid uterus.

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15
Q

Intracompartmental pressure within ____ mm Hg of diastatolic pressure indicates compartment syndrome.

A

30 mmHg

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16
Q

Complications of antivenom administration after snakebite.

A
  1. anaphylaxis

2. serum sickness

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17
Q

Duration of treatment of indomethacin for HO ppx.

A

6 weeks.

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18
Q

IMN bending stiffness related to this function of radius.

A

Radius cubed (r^3).

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19
Q

IMN torsional stiffness related to this function of radius.

A

Radius to the fourth power (r^4).

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20
Q

First motor function to return after radial nerve palsy after humerus shaft fx (2).

A
  1. Brachioradialis

2. ECRL

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21
Q

Last motor function to return after radial nerve palsy after humerus shaft fx (2).

A
  1. EIP

2. EPL

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22
Q

Most common direction of elbow dislocation.

A

Posterolateral.

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23
Q

Synostosis after BBFA ORIF associated with this.

A

Single excision.

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24
Q

Galeazzi fx.

A

Distal third radius fracture with radioulnar dislocation.

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25
Q

Unreducible DRUJ most likely due to this.

A

Interposition of extensor carpi ulnaris tendon.

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26
Q

Stages of perilunate instability.

A
  1. Scapholunate dissociation
  2. Lunocapitate disruption
  3. Lunotriquetral disruption
  4. Lunate dislocation
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27
Q

Differentiates APC2 and APC3 pelvic ring injuries.

A

APC2 – Posterior sarcoiliac ligaments intact

APC3 – Posterior sacroiliac ligaments disrupted. Complete disruption of SI joint.

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28
Q

Denis sacral fracture zone I.

A

Lateral to foramen.

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29
Q

Denis sacral fracture zone II.

A

Through foramen.

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30
Q

Denis sacral fracture zone III.

A

Medial to foramen.

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31
Q

This pelvic radiograph allows optimal visualization for S1 neural foramen.

A

Pelvic outlet.

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32
Q

Most common simple acetabular fracture.

A

Posterior wall.

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33
Q

Most common associated acetabular fracture.

A

Associated both column.

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34
Q

Axial pelvis CT, this type of acetabular fracture has vertical line.

A

Transverse or T-type.

35
Q

Axial pelvis CT, this type of acetabular fracture has horizontal line.

A

Column fracture.

36
Q

Posterior wall tab fx ORIF approach.

A

Kocher.

37
Q

Transverse tab fx ORIF approach.

A

Kocher.

38
Q

Anterior column tab fx ORIF approach.

A

Ilioinguinal.

39
Q

Associated both column tab fx ORIF approach.

A

Ilioinguinal.

40
Q

This starting point in piriformis entry nails is associated with risk of iatrogenic comminution.

A

Anterior.

41
Q

Higher femoral fracture union rate – ream or unreamed nails?

A

Reamed.

42
Q

Medial or lateral meniscal tears more common with lateral tibial plateau fractures?

A

Lateral.

43
Q

Medial or lateral meniscal tears with medial tibial plateau fracture (Schatzker IV)?

A

Medial.

44
Q

In general lateral or medial meniscal pathology more common with tibial plateau fx?

A

Lateral.

45
Q

Bone substitute with highest compressive strength.

A

Calcium phosphate.

46
Q

Calcium phosphate or autogenous iliac graft with lower rate of subsidence?

A

Calcium phosphate.

47
Q

Keep external fixation wires or pins this far from joint to avoid septic knee/

A

15mm

48
Q

BMP used for tibial nonunions.

A

BMP-7.

49
Q

BMP used as adjuvant for type III open tibia fractures acutely.

A

BMP-2.

50
Q

Common malreduction of proximal third tibia shaft fractures.

A

Valgus and procurvatum (apex anterior).

51
Q

Use of VAC does or does not change the risk of infection in open tibia fractures?

A

Does not.

52
Q

Patchy subchondral radiolucency of talar dome.

A

Hawkins sign.

53
Q

Hawkins sign indicates this.

A

Good blood flow. AVN unlikely.

54
Q

This type of malunion is most common after talar neck fracture.

A

Varus due to medial comminution.

55
Q

Medial or lateral subtalar dislocation more common?

A

Medial.

56
Q

If medial subtalar dislocation is irreducible, what is blocking reduction?

A

Extensor digitorum brevis

57
Q

If lateral subtalar dislocation is irreducible, what is blocking reduction?

A

Posterior tibial tendon

58
Q

Best calcaneus ORIF outcomes in these patients.

A

Young female nonsmokers with nonlabor jobs.

59
Q

Eponym of C1 burst fracture.

A

Jefferson.

60
Q

Indication for operative treatment of C1 fracture.

A

Combined lateral mass displacement greater than or equal to 7mm

61
Q

If atlanto-dens inverval is greater than 3mm.

A

Transverse ligament injury.

62
Q

If altanto-dens interval is greater than 5mm.

A

Both transverse and alar ligaments injured.

63
Q

Operative treatment of C1 fx w/ incompetent transverse ligament.

A

C1-2 or occiput-C2 fusion.

64
Q

Operative treatment of C1 fx w/ transverse ligament intact.

A

Halo.

65
Q

Risk factors for nonunion in type II odontoid fractures (5)..

A
  1. displacement >5mm
  2. angulation >10 deg
  3. posterior displacement
  4. age >40 yrs
  5. delayed treatment
66
Q

Tx of type I odontoid fx.

A

Rigid cervical orthosis.

67
Q

Tx of type III odontoid fx.

A

Halo.

68
Q

Hangman’s fracture.

A

Traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2. Bilateral C2 pars fractures.

69
Q

How many pins for halo traction in adult?

A

4

70
Q

Torque to pins for halo traction in adult?

A

6-8 inch-lb

71
Q

How many pins for halo traction in children?

A

8-10

72
Q

Torque to pins for halo traction in children?

A

2 inch-lb

73
Q

Indications for non-operative management of burst fractures.

A
  1. kyphosis less than 30 deg
  2. no neurologic def
  3. canal compromise less than 50%
  4. less than 50% loss of body height
74
Q

Physeal bridge resection with fat interposition used to treat these types of growth arrest.

A

2cm growth remaining, less than 50% physeal involvement.

75
Q

Completion of physeal arrest and contralateral epiphysiodesis used to treat this type of growth arrest.

A

Arrest involving more than 50% of physis.

76
Q

Cubitus varus malunion consequences.

A

Cosmetic not functional.

77
Q

Overgrowth after femur fracture is common in this pediatric age group.

A

< 10 years old

78
Q

Incidence of growth arrest after distal femur physeal injury.

A

30-50%

79
Q

Tearing of this artery in pediatric tibial tubercle fractures may cause compartment syndrome.

A

Anterior tibial recurrent artery.

80
Q

Eponym for SH III fractures of distal tibia.

A

Tillaux fx.

81
Q

Salter-Harris type of triplane distal tibia fractures.

A

SH-IV.

82
Q

This portion of the distal tibia physis closes last.

A

Anterolateral.

83
Q

For triplane fractures, the Thurston-Holland metaphyseal fragment is usually located here.

A

Posterolateral.

ABOS Part I (16 decks)

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