Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Enneking staging system description.

A
I - low grade
II - high grade 
III - metastatic
A - intracompartmental
B - extracompartmental
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2
Q

This tumor characteristic is most strongly correlated with potential for metastasis.

A

Grade.

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3
Q

Immunostain CD1A and S100.

A

Langerhans cell histocytosis.

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4
Q

Immunostain CD20.

A

Lymphoma.

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5
Q

Immunostain CD99.

A

Ewing sarcoma.

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6
Q

Immunostain Keratin and S100.

A

Chordoma.

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7
Q

Immunostain CD138.

A

Myeloma.

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8
Q

Immunostain Keratin.

A

Adamantainoma.

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9
Q

Rb.

A

Osteosarcoma.

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10
Q

t(12;16)

A

Myxoid liposarcoma.

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11
Q

t(11;22)

A

Ewing sarcoma

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12
Q

t(X;18)

A

Synovial sarcoma.

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13
Q

t(9;22)

A

Myxoid chondrosarcoma.

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14
Q

t(1;13)

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma.

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15
Q

Melanocytic hamartomas of the iris.

A

Lisch nodules.

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16
Q

The most common pediatric sarcoma.

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma.

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17
Q

SYT-SSX1.

A

Synovial sarcoma.

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18
Q

SYT-SSX2.

A

Synovial sarcoma.

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19
Q

Degree of response to non-surgical NSAID tx for osteoid osteoma.

A

50% respond w/o surgery.

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20
Q

Chemotherapeutic agents used for osteosarcoma (2).

A
  1. Doxorubicin

2. Methotrexate

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21
Q

Doxorubicin side effect.

A

Cardiac toxicity.

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22
Q

Most common site of osteosarcoma metastasis.

A

Lung.

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23
Q

Second most common site of osteosarcoma metastasis

A

Bone

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24
Q

Osteosarcoma is associated with abnormalities in these tumor suppressor genes (2).

A
  1. Rb (Retinoblastoma)

2. p53 (Li-Fraumeni)

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25
Q

Most osteosarcomas present as this stage.

A

IIB (high grade, extracompartmental)

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26
Q

Most common site of parosteal osteosarcoma.

A

Posterior distal femur.

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27
Q

Treatment of parosteal osteosarcoma.

A

Wide resection. Chemotherapy not required.

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28
Q

Multiple enchondromas.

A

Ollier disease.

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29
Q

Multiple enchondromas with hemangiomas.

A

Maffucci syndrome.

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30
Q

Risk of malignancy with Ollier disease.

A

30%.

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31
Q

Risk of malignancy with Maffucci syndrome.

A

100%

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32
Q

Inheritance of multiple hereditary exostoses.

A

Autosomal dominant.

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33
Q

Risk of malignancy with MHE.

A

10%.

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34
Q

Mutation in this gene is associated with MHE.

A

EXT1 and EXT2.

35
Q

EXT1 or EXT2 has greater burden of disease and greater risk of malignancy?

A

EXT1

36
Q

Location of chondroblastoma.

A

Epiphysis.

37
Q

Chondroblastoma treatment.

A

Curretage and bone grafting.

38
Q

Chondroblastoma may metastasize here.

A

Lung.

39
Q

Treatment of chondromyxoid fibroma.

A

Curettage and grafting.

40
Q

Treatment of chondrosarcoma.

A

Wide resection. No chemo or radiation tx.

41
Q

Treatment of de-differentiated chondrosarcoma.

A

Wide resection and chemotherapy.

42
Q

Most malignant cartilage tumor.

A

De-differentiated chondrosarcoma.

43
Q

Malignant neoplasm derived from cells of primritive notochordal tissue.

A

Chordoma.

44
Q

Physaliferous cells.

A

Chordoma.

45
Q

Treatment of chordoma.

A

Wide resection.

46
Q

Common osseous location of hemangiomas.

A

Vertebral bodies.

47
Q

Most common axial location of giant cell tumors.

A

Sacrum.

48
Q

Purely lytic lesion in metaphysis that extends into the epiphysis in patient with closed physes.

A

Giant cell tumor of bone.

49
Q

Treatment of giant cell tumor of bone.

A

Curettage with chemical cauterization and grafting or PMMA.

50
Q

Differential diagnosis for small round blue cell tumor in children (2).

A

Neuroblastoma or Ewing sarcoma.

51
Q

Ewing sarcoma may be confused with.

A

Osteomyelitis.

52
Q

For Ewing sarcoma this procedure is needed for staging purposes.

A

Bone marrow biopsy.

53
Q

Low-grade, malignant tumor of long bones that contain epithelium-like islands of cells.

A

Adamantinoma.

54
Q

Treatment of adamantinoma.

A

Wide resection.

55
Q

Cavernous blood-filled spaces without endothelial lining.

A

Aneurysmal bone cyst.

56
Q

When simple bone cyst abuts the physeal plate.

A

Active UBC.

57
Q

When simple bone cyst is separate by physis by normal bone.

A

Laten UBC.

58
Q

Genetic mutation of fibrous dysplasia.

A

Activating mutation of a surface G-protein.

59
Q

Genetic mutation of fibrous dysplasia results in increased production of this.

A

cAMP.

60
Q

Ground glass.

A

Fibrous dysplasia.

61
Q

This type of grafting is not used in fibrous dysplasia.

A

Autogenous cancellous grafting.

62
Q

Medical therapy for fibrous dysplasia.

A

Bisphosphonates.

63
Q

PTHrP stimulates the release of this.

A

RANKL.

64
Q

Which gene is involved in etiology of aneurysmal bone cysts?

A

USP6

65
Q

AJCC staging system for bone malignancies.

A

IA, IB, IIA, IIB, III, IVA, IVB.

66
Q

AJCC staging system, IA stage.

A

Low grade, size < 8cm, any depth, no mets.

67
Q

AJCC staging system, IB stage.

A

Low grade, size > 8cm, any depth, no mets.

68
Q

AJCC staging system IIA stage.

A

High grade, size < 8cm, any depth, no mets.

69
Q

AJCC staging system, IIB stage.

A

High grade, size < 8cm, superficial, no mets.

70
Q

AJCC staging system, III.

A

Any grade, discontinuous (skip) lesions, deep, no mets.

71
Q

AJCC staging system, IVA.

A

Any grade, any size, deep, lung mets only.

72
Q

AJCC staging system IVB.

A

Any grade, any size, any depth, mets other than lung.

73
Q

Differentiates benign lipoma from atypical lipomatous tumor

A

Ring chromosome (MDM2) on cytogenetic testing.

74
Q

Any necessary contraindication to XRT after THA or hemi after metastatic pathologic femoral neck fx?

A

No contraindication.

75
Q

Physaliferous cells.

A

Chordoma.

76
Q

Treatment of chordoma.

A

Resection.

77
Q

Chordoma is radiosensitive, true or false?

A

True.

78
Q

For patients with metastatic disease, what should they be put on to reduce risk of pathologic fracture?

A

Bisphosphonates.

79
Q

t(17;22)

A

Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans.

80
Q

CD34 immuostaining positivity.

A

Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans.

81
Q

This tumor relies on PDGFB-Collagen-1 alpha gene fusion product.

A

Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans.

82
Q

Nuclear beta-catenin staining positivity.

A

Desmoid tumor.

83
Q

Anterior ankle structures from medial to lateral.

A

Tib ant, EHL, anterior tibial artery, deep peroneal nerve, E, EDL