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Finals Blood Banking > Transfusion Practices > Flashcards

Transfusion Practices Flashcards

1
Q

The injection of blood and a blood component into the bloodstream

A

Blood Transfuion

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2
Q

It is generally the process of receiving blood or blood products intravenously. Transfusions are used for various medical conditions to replace lost components of the blood

A

Blood Transfusion

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3
Q

Give Purposes of Transfusion

A

Restore blood volume
★ Replace clotting factors
★ Improve oxygen carrying capacity
★ Restore blood elements that are depleted
★ Maintain hemostasis and prevent
complications

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4
Q

Patients undergoing significant surgeries such as scoliosis repair, liver biopsy, mastectomy, and the likes.

A

Surgical Procedures

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5
Q

Patients who loss blood during vaginal or cesarean delivery.

A

Childbirth

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6
Q

Blood vessels open when placenta detaches from uterus

A

Vaginal delivery

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7
Q

This is happens when cutting of large blood vessels to open uterus wall

A

Cesarean delivery

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8
Q

Patients with severe injuries following accidents or disasters which necessitate blood transfusions.

A

Traumatic Events

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9
Q

Patients who receive transfusion are suffering from diseases or disorders like anemia, cancer, hemophilia, sickle disease, and the like.

A

Medical Conditions

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10
Q

Give the Transfusion Process

A

Preparation
Starting the Procedure
Monitoring
Finishing up
Post transfusion care

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11
Q

In transfusion process:
Medical team ensures patient’s identity and compatibility with the donor’s blood. Additionally, nurses will check the patient’s blood pressure, pulse, and temperature.

A

Preparation

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12
Q

In transfusion process:

Intravenous (IV) line is inserted into the patient’s vein in the arm or hand.

A

Starting the procedure

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13
Q

In the transfusion process:

During transfusion, the patient is continuously monitored for any adverse reactions. This includes checking vital signs like blood pressure, heart rate, and temperature.

A

Monitoring

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14
Q

In the transfusion process:
IV line is carefully removed and the medical team continues to monitor the patient for a short while to ensure no late-onset reactions.

A

Finishing up

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15
Q

In the transfusion process:

Patient’s vital signs are checked and the IV is removed. Also, the patient needs to report any unusual symptoms or feelings in the days following transfusion.

A

Post transfusion Care

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16
Q

Involved giving a person all components of blood (red cells, white cells, platelets, plasma, etc.).

A

Whole blood transfusion

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17
Q

This recipients of this transfusion is a Patients who experienced severe traumatic hemorrhage

A

Whole blood transfusion

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18
Q

Called Packed Red blood cells or packed cells

A

Red blood cell transfusion

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19
Q

This recipients in component therapy transfusion are the Patients with anemia (iron deficiency), blood disorders, or experienced traumatic events.

A

Red blood cell transfusion

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20
Q

Aka white blood cell transfusion

A

Granulocyte transfusion

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21
Q

A rare component of transfusion

A

Granulocyte transfusion

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22
Q

In granulocyte transfusion, the doctors used another drugs called?

A

Colony stimulating factors or Growth factors

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23
Q

This help in the production of white blood cells

A

Colony stimulating factors

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24
Q

Patients with low white blood cell count or severe infection which cannot be treated with antibiotics.

A

Wbc transfuion

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25
Q

Component of blood that stop the body from bleeding

A

Platelets

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26
Q

Patients with illnesses such as thrombocytopenia other type of cancers especially if their platelet count drops post- chemotherapy.

A

Platelet transfusion

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27
Q

Types of blood transfusion: Transfusion of blood or blood components taken from a donor to a recipient.

A

Allogenic/Homologous Transfusion

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28
Q

Also called “self-transfusion” is the reinfusion of blood or blood products taken from the same patient.

A

Autologous transfusion

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29
Q

Types of Blood Transfusion

A

Allogenic/Homologous Transfusion
Autologous Transfusion
Massive Blood Transfusion
Emergency Transfusion
Neonatal Pediatric Transfusion
Exchanged Transfusion
Plasma Transfusion
Bone Marrow Transplantation
BLood Substitutes Transfusion

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30
Q

Transfusion of blood or blood components taken from a donor to a recipient.

A

Allogenic/Homologous Transfusion

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31
Q

Also called “self-transfusion” is the reinfusion of blood or blood products taken from the same patient.

A

Autologous Transfusion

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32
Q

This types of autologous transfusion is a transfusion of blood to a patient anticipating a need for transfusion (e.g., scheduled surgery).

A

Pre deposit

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33
Q

This autologous type of transfusion is a transfusion of 1 or 2 units of collected blood from the patient just before a surgical procedure and give back to the patient at or near the end of surgery. Removed blood is replaced with crystalloid or colloid solution.

A

Intra operative Hemodilution or Acute Normovole,ic Hemodilution

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34
Q

This type of autologous transfusion is a blood lost during surgery is collected, mixed with anticoagulant solution, washed and re-infused during (interoperative salvage) or after (postoperative salvage) surgery.

A

Blood Salvage

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35
Q

Replacement of one or more blood volumes within 24 hours, or about 10 units (5000 mL) of blood in an adult.

A

Massive blood transfusion

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36
Q

A type of transfusion performed for patients who are rapidly bleeding and requires immediate transfusion. Group O, Rh-negative red cells are preferably used.

A

Emergency transfusion

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37
Q

This is significantly different from transfusion issues for adults because of the small size, hemoglobin changes, and erythropoietin response in early infancy.

A

Neonatal pediatric transfusion

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38
Q

A.k.a “Replacement Transfusion” can be defined as the use of whole blood or equivalent to replace the neonate’s circulating blood.

A

Exchange transfusion

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39
Q

Bone marrow can be harvested from

A

Iliac crest

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40
Q

A type of transfusion in which blood is substituted for transfusion.

A

Blood substitutes transfusion

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41
Q

A transfusion reaction occurring within 24 hours of transfusion

A

Immediate /Acute Reaction

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42
Q

A transfusion reaction occurring more than 24 hours of transfusion

A

Delayed Reaction

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43
Q

Adverse reaction that occur as a result of body’s immune system recognising and reacting to specific components within the transfused blood

A

Immune/Immunologic Reaction

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44
Q

Adverse reaction that occur during or after a blood transfusion that are NOT mediated by the immune system

A

Non Immune or Non Immunologic

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45
Q

Rapid destruction of red blood cells
shortly after receiving a blood
transfusion.

A

Acute hemolysis

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46
Q

Will take 5-7 days for symptoms to
manifest.

Sudden decrease of hemoglobin,
hematocrit, and jaundice (possible
but not always)

A

Delayed hemolytic anemia

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47
Q

Severe allergic response

A

Anaphylaxis

48
Q

Rapid destruction of rbc outside of the body’s normal process

A

External hemolysis

49
Q

Transcribed:
TA GVHD

A

Transfusion associated graft versus host disease

50
Q

Transcribed TRALI

A

Transfusion related acute lung injury

51
Q

Rapid destruction of red blood cells ouotside of the bodys normal process

A

External hemolysis

52
Q

Any transfusion-related adverse effect which occurs during or after the transfusion of whole blood or one of its components and human- derived plasma products.

A

Immediate Transfusion Reaction
Acute Transfusion reaction

53
Q

Most commonly associated with a secondary (anamnestic) response

A

Delayed Transfusion Reaction

54
Q

Delayed Transfusion Reaction, occurs betweem how many days?

Occasionally how many day occurs after transfusion?

A

2-8 days

14 days after transfusion

55
Q

The associated hemolysis in the transfusion reaction is generally Extravascular

A

Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction

56
Q

viruses that some people carry in
their blood and can be spread from one
person to another.

A

Blood borne viruses

57
Q

What family viruses is Hepa A

A

Picornaviridae

58
Q

Incubation period of Hepatitis A

A

28 days on average

59
Q

Family viruses of Hepa B

A

Hepadnaviridae

60
Q

In hepatitis B, what immunoglobulin the first
antibody to emerge and lasts around 6 months.

A

IgM anti HBc

61
Q

Detection of anti HBsAg is detectable up to how many weeks after exposure

A

2 to 12 weeks

62
Q

What member of family is Hepatitis C

A

Flaviviridae

63
Q

What hepatitis is Most become chronic carriers,
develop chronic liver disease or cirrhosis.

A

Hepatitis C

64
Q

Family member of Hepa E

A

Caliciviridae

65
Q

What hepatitis does not progress to chronic

A

Hepatitis E

66
Q

causes a common childhood illness called “fifth disease

A

Parvovirus B19

67
Q

presents with a mild rash described as “slapped cheek.”

A

Parvovirus B19

68
Q

Member of herpes virus

A

Epstein Barr Virus

69
Q

Can cause mononucleosis

A

Epstein Barr Virus

70
Q

Called kissing disease

A

Epstein Barr Virus

71
Q

What herpesvirus is a very common virus that causes a lifelong infection.

A

Human herpesvirus 6

72
Q

This herpesvirus causes roseola
infantum, also known as exanthem
subitum or sixth disease.

A

Human Herpes Virus 6

73
Q

This herpesvirus associated with several diseases including Kaposi’s sarcoma (KS), primary effusion lymphoma,
and multicentric Castleman’s disease.

A

Human herpes virus 8

74
Q

the causative agent of syphilis

A

Treponema Pallidum

75
Q

The causative agent of Lyme borreliosis currently consists of three pathogenic species:

A

-B. burgdorferi
- Borrelia afzelii
- Borrelia garinii

76
Q

is caused by spirochete bacterium. It is a cutaneous systemic infection generally transmitted by a hard-bodied tick and caused by Borrelia burgdorferi.

A

Lyme Disease

77
Q

It is a tick-borne disease caused by the bacterium Rickettsia rickettsii.

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

78
Q

is a zoonotic disease transmitted by infected deer tick bites.

A

Babesiosis

79
Q

It causes Chagas’ disease

A

Trypanosoma Cruzi

80
Q

Triatomine bugs, also known as

A

T. Cruzi

81
Q

also known as “kissing bugs,” serve as vectors for T. cruzi

A

Triatomine bugs

82
Q

Time interval for a simple blood transfusion.

A

1-4 hours

83
Q

What blood component is most likely transfused to a patient who experienced severe traumatic hemorrhage?

A

Whole blood

84
Q

What component is most likely transfused to a patient with low white blood cell count or severe infection which cannot be treated with antibiotics?

A

Granulocyte

85
Q

This is a blood component which usually drops following chemotherapy.

A

Platelet concentration

86
Q

If this blood component is depleted and left untreated, it will cause weakness, fatigue, and, in extreme cases, shortness of breath, or rapid heartbeat. That is why physicians prescribe to transfuse this blood component.

A

Packed red blood cells

87
Q

During intraoperative hemodilution or acute normovolemic hemodilution, transfusion of one or two units of blood is collected from the patient just before the surgery and give back the blood component of the patient at the near end of the surgery. The removed blood is replaced with what substance/solution?

A

Crystalloids or colloids

88
Q

A type of transfusion wherein replacement of one or more blood volumes within 24 hours or about 10 units of blood in adults.

A

Massive Blood Transfusion

89
Q

In neonatal pediatric transfusion, very-low-birth-rate infants, blood should be selected to be leukoreduced to prevent what infection, which can be serious in premature infants.

A

Cytomegalovirus

90
Q

What is usually given to a patient who is rapidly bleeding and requires immediate transfusion in the emergency room when he/she is considered as a trauma patient? Blood type and component.

A

Packed red blood cells (blood type O Rh-negative)

91
Q

What is the treatment of choice for neonates who have HDFN, wherein their RBCs are being destroyed, resulting to the production of hemoglobin that are metabolized to bilirubin? They will develop kernicterus, the deposition of bilirubin in the mucous membranes.

A

Phototherapy

92
Q

Enumerate conditions wherein blood pressure and heart rate usually drops during transfusion.

A

Bacterial sepsis
Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
Anaphylaxis
Transfusion-related acute lung injury
Citrate toxicity

93
Q

What is the laboratory diagnosis or what is being detected for hepatitis A?

A

IgM anti-HAV antibodies

94
Q

This is a double-stranded DNA hepatitis virus which can resist humidity and high temperatures.

A

Hepadnaviridae

95
Q

This is an icosahedral, positive-sense RNA virus which is commonly transmitted through fecal-oral route and also associated in transfusion.

A

Hepatitis A

96
Q

Hepatitis B surface antigen is also known as ______

A

Australia antigen

97
Q

A single-stranded DNA virus which is only detectable during coinfection or superinfection with hepatitis B virus.

A

Deltaviridae

98
Q

This is the most common type of hepatitis which is commonly transmitted through transfusion, arising from 80% of hepatitis- associated transfusion infections. It is also known as the transfusion hepatitis.

A

Hepatitis C

99
Q

Screening test for HIV.

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

100
Q

Confirmatory test for HIV.

A

Western blot

101
Q

Give at least 3 cellular lineages wherein the HIV virus attaches.

A

CD4+ lymphocytes
CD4+ macrophages
CD4+ antigen-presenting cells

102
Q

Give the 2 names of scientists who discovered HIV. The first discoverer is a French scientist and discovered HIV but he did not know that HIV is the cause of AIDS. The second discoverer is an American and explained the pathophysiology/pathogenicity of the HIV infection.

A

Robert Gallo Luc Montagnier

103
Q

Give the different methods used to diagnose CMV infection.

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
Fluorescence assays
Indirect hemagglutination
Latex agglutination

104
Q

This is a type of spirochete which causes cutaneous systemic infection, generally transmitted by a hard body tick.

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

105
Q

Confirmatory test for syphilis infection.

A

Venereal Disease Research Laboratory

106
Q

This used to detect the presence of treponeme in the CSF.

A

Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test

107
Q

What substance or molecule is being detected in southern blotting?

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid

108
Q

What substance or molecule is being detected in northern blotting?

A

Ribonucleic acid

109
Q

What substance or molecule is being detected in western blotting?

A

Protein

110
Q

What is the gold standard serologic test for the diagnosis of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Immunofluorescence assay

111
Q

How many fold or rise in antibody titer to consider that a certain specimen is significant for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Four

112
Q

What is the etiological agent of human monocytic ehrlichiosis in the US?

A

Erhlichia Chaffeensis

113
Q

This parasite causes Chaga’s disease.

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

114
Q

What is the vector of Chaga’s disease which leads to a painful localized nodule known as Chagoma, taking up to 3 months to heal?

A

Reduviid bug

115
Q

This is a Plasmadium species which is prevalent worldwide.

A

Plasmodium vivax

Finals Blood Banking (7 decks)

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