Transfusion Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

What is Fresh whole blood (FWB)

A

a unit of blood that has been obtained less than 8 hours prior to admin, contains all the cellular and plasma components of the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What patients are administered FWB

A

p’s in need of RBCs, plasma, and platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does stored whole blood contain

A

all the cellular and plasma components of the blood except platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the expiration date of stored whole blood and what temperature is it stored at

A

28days; 4 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What patients are given stored whole blood

A

patients that are anemic and hypoproteinemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is pack red blood cells (pRBC)

A

a unit that has had all the RBC separated from the plasma content within 8 hours of collection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the expiration date of pRBC and what temperature is it stored at

A

42 days; 4 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most common indication for a pRBC transfusion

A

anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

A

a unit of blood that has been separated from RBC and the plasma components remaining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

FFP is viable for up to _ _ when it is stored in temperatures of 20-40C

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is present in FFP

A

all coagulation factors, albumin, and protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a common indication for use of FFP

A

primary or secondary coagulopathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

_ transfusions have also been proven to benefit patients with acute pancreatitis, DIC, liver failure, rodenticide toxicity, and parvo

A

FFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Frozen or store plasma (SP) is frozen plasma that has been store at temperatures of 20-40C for greater than 1 year. It is viable for up to _ years.

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Stored plasma no longer contains _ _

A

clotting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some indications for transfusing frozen or stored plasma

A

hypoproteinemia and hypoalbuminemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some other blood products available as component therapy?

A

cryoprecipitate, cryoprecipitate-poor plasma, platelet-rich plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

_ contains high levels of fibrinogen, fibronectin, factor VIII, and vWF. It is indicated in patients with coagulopathies due to any of the above plasma protein deficiencies.

A

Cryoprecipitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

_ is indicated in patients that are hypoproteinemic but the risk of synthetic plasma expanders outweighs the benefit.

A

Cryoprecipitate- poor plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

_ is only viable for 5 days at a constant agitation. Most commercial blood banks make it available.

A

Platelet-rich plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The specific surface markers in an individual animal are genetically determined and are referred to as

A

blood-group antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

- reactions can occur with blood transfusions due to variation in blood-group antigens between the recipient and the donor.

A

Antigen-antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Once a transfusion has been given to an animal, antibodies against the ____ form.

A

RBC antigen (immune antibodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

More than _ different canine blood groups have been described

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Nomenclature for the blood group systems is designated with the letters ___ followed by a number

A

DEA (for dog erythrocyte antigen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

For DEA systems, the erythrocytes are designated as _ or _ for that specific antigen.

A

postive or negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the major blood groups for dogs

A

DEA 1, DEA 3, DEA 4, DEA 5, and DEA 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The blood groups considered to be clinically significant for dogs are

A

DEA 1 and DEA 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The _ sub-group elicits the greatest antigen response and causes the most serious transfusion reactions.

A

DEA 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Approximately _% of all dogs are positive for the DEA 1 antigen

A

50

31
Q

_-_dogs are at high risk of transfusion incompatibility if they are to receive multiple blood transfusions. Therefore, Dal blood typing, in addition to standard DEA 1 typing, is recommended in these breeds, especially in previously transfused dogs.

A

Dal-negative

32
Q

If a previously immunized DEA 1-negative dog receives DEA 1-positive blood,_ _ occur in less than 1 hour.

A

severe reactions

33
Q

One blood group system has been identified in the cat, designated the _ system.

A

AB

34
Q

Blood groups of cats include _, _, and _. Few cats have group AB.

A

A, B, AB

35
Q

The vast majority of cats have group _, which probably accounts for the low incidence of transfusion reactions in cats.

A

A

36
Q

Unlike dogs, cats do possess _ _ _ to the erythrocyte antigen they are lacking.

A

naturally occurring antibodies

37
Q

Type _ cats have strong anti-A antibodies while type A cats have weak anti-_ antibodies.

A

B

38
Q

Transfusing type B cats with type A blood may result in

A

serious reaction and death

39
Q

An additional blood cell antigen, the _ antigen, has also been described in cats

A

Mik

40
Q

_ _has been documented in type A or type AB kittens born of type B queens with naturally occurring anti-A antibodies.

A

Neonatal isoerythrolysis

41
Q

Methods of identifying some canine and feline blood groups are available for use in veterinary practice. These methods include an _ _ and a / _ _.

A

immunochromatography assay ; card/slide agglutination assay

42
Q

The _ method is the gold standard for blood typing but is primarily used in reference laboratories.

A

tube

43
Q

The tube method for determining blood type requires the use of _ , which consist of antibodies specific for each possible blood type of a given species.

A

antisera

44
Q

The tube method requires collection of a whole blood sample using

A

EDTA, heparin, or acid-citrate-dextrose anticoagulant

45
Q

Blood samples used to perform the card-based assay must not already show evidence of _ , usually visible as clumps in the blood sample.

A

autoagglutination

46
Q

Whereas blood typing tests reveal the blood group antigens on the red blood cell surface, blood crossmatching tests assess the serologic _ or _ between donor and recipient.

A

compatibility or incompatibility

47
Q

the crossmatch test checks for the presence or absence of naturally occurring and induced alloantibodies in serum (or plasma) without determining the blood type and thus does not replace _ _

A

blood typing

48
Q

What is true about blood donors

A

should have never received a blood transfusion to avoid sensitization

49
Q

A canine blood donor that has never received a blood transfusion is considered to be a universal donor if they are

A

DEA 1 negative

50
Q

It is thought that the most important canine blood type is DEA 1 because it has a strong

A

alloantibody response after sensitization.

51
Q

_____ reaction is a common immunologic reaction noted.

A

The febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR)

52
Q

_ _ reactions include transmission of infectious diseases from the donor to the recipient and sepsis induced bacterial contamination from the unit or volume overload.

A

Non-immunologic

53
Q

If a patients has a mild reaction to transfusion, what does treatment therapy consist of?

A

stopping the transfusion and monitoring the patient’s vitals. Restarting the transfusion in approximately thirty minutes at a reduced rate can usually be handled by the patient.

54
Q

Other clinical signs seen in a mild transfusion reaction include

A

fever, urticarial, and facial edema

55
Q

What does a moderate reaction include clinical signs of

A

fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, or vomiting.

56
Q

What should be done if a moderate reaction is noted

A

stop transfusion and administer glucocorticoids, monitor vitals closely and restart transfusion if necessary

57
Q

Clinical signs of severe reactions

A

include tachypnea, hypotension, collapse, fever, bradycardia, or even sudden death.

58
Q

Transfusion to _ _ _ is unnecessary to alleviate clinical signs and will remove the stimulus for the patient to increase its own marrow red cell production.

A

a normal PCV

59
Q

Usually a post-transfusion PCV of _% in cats and -% in dogs will be sufficient to reverse the signs of anemia without significantly dampening the regenerative response.

A

20; 25-30

60
Q

What equation is used to calculate volume required

A

Blood volume to be transfused = k * wt in kg (required PCV – recipient PCV) / PCV of donor blood
k = 90 in dogs; 66 in cats

61
Q

Collection of large volumes of blood from donor animals will result in an immediate _ and anemia within hours of collection

A

hypovolemia

62
Q

Dogs and cats can donate _% of their total blood volume with no adverse effect

A

10

63
Q

Collection of greater than _% of blood volume can produce hypovolemia of sufficient magnitude to compromise the health of the donor and is therefore not recommended.

A

20

64
Q

Blood can be collected from a donor every - weeks; however, it is advisable to routinely check the donor’s PCV before each blood collection to ensure normal red cell regeneration has occurred.

A

4-6

65
Q

_ supplementation is therefore advisable if donors are required to give blood at less than monthly intervals.

A

Iron

66
Q

_ blood is normally collected directly into a human blood collection bag, which contains enough acid citrate dextrose (ACD), citrate phosphate dextrose (CPD) or citrate phosphate dextrose adenine (CPDA) anticoagulant for approximately 500 ml of blood.

A

Canine

67
Q

Feline blood is routinely collected into a 50-ml syringe with an attached butterfly catheter. Although heparin can be added to the syringe, _ or _ are preferred since the blood can then be stored for up to 4 weeks after collection, provided it is refrigerated

A

ACD or CPD

68
Q

The most important factor in determining the need for transfusion is the

A

clinical condition of the patient

69
Q

Transfusion is always indicated in an anemic patient that exhibits signs of clinical compromise such as

A

weakness, dyspnea and ataxia

70
Q

In severely hypotensive or pediatric patients, the blood can be given into the _ _ using an 18–20-g intravenous needle or a spinal needle placed in the trochanteric fossa.

A

proximal femur

71
Q

Blood should be administered through a filtered giving set specifically designed for blood products, which reduces the risk of _ entering the circulation.

A

microthrombi

72
Q

Blood should not be administered concurrently (through the same catheter) with intravenous fluids containing _ or _.

A

calcium or glucose

73
Q

Vomiting during transfusion can be associated with

A

too rapid flow rates