Training Bulletins, Memos & Index Files Flashcards

1
Q

According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, steel I beams will elongate when heated and can push out a load-bearing walls. A 50-foot (15.2m) beam may elongate by as much as ___ inches/mm when heated to about 1,000 degrees F (538 degrees C):
A) 2 inches (50.8 mm)
B) 4 inches (102 mm)
C) 8 inches (203.2 mm)
D) 11 inches (279.4 mm)

A

B) 4 inches (102 mm)

(Answer B: TS 3-4a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, the temperature at which a steel member will depend on many variables. Which of the following is NOT one of those variables:
A) Size
B) Load
C) Composition
D) Age

A

D) Age

(Answer D: TS 3-4b)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT a safety precaution for imminent building collapse:
A. Immediately evacuate personnel within the building
B. Set up a collapse zone around the building perimeter
C. Allow personnel or apparatus to operate within the collapse zone
D. Use only unmanned master streams if fire streams are necessary within the collapse zone

A

C. Allow personnel or apparatus to operate within the collapse zone

(Answer C: TS 3-12)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

According to the Personal Note Taking document on HFDnet, under the heading Best Practices, notes are to be completed as events occur, or at the first available opportunity. What is the time frame that notes should be completed within?
A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 2 days
D) 1 week

A

B) 24 hours

(Answer B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

According to the Personal Note Taking document on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT an advantage of good note taking?
A) Thorough notes make your evidence more credible
B) Cover against civil liability
C) Shows a commitment to quality work
D) Less likely to be subjected to prolonged cross examination

A

C) Shows a commitment to quality work

(Answer C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

According to the Personal Note Taking document on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of poor note taking?
A) May require you to rewrite your notes
B) Without notes our memories tend fail. It can be embarrassing when court trials are not called until months and years after the even
C) May have to concede under cross examination that recollection may not be as accurate
D) A lack of notes is usually an indicator for the defense to conduct a tenacious cross examination

A

A) May require you to rewrite your notes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

According to Memo 2017 – AP – 110, all personnel will rotate the use of their Bunker Gear:
A) On a monthly cycle or sooner if required and logged into FDM
B) On a biannual cycle in conjunction with deep clean and inspection by an outside contractor and logged into FDM
C) On a three (3) month cycle or sooner if required and logged into FDM
D) On a “as needed” cycle and logged into FDM

A

C) On a three (3) month cycle or sooner if required and logged into FDM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

According to Memo 2020 – AP – 647 - Daily Absence Report, the daily entries for absences entered into FDM:
A) By the Platoon Chief or Divisional Chiefs and must be entered into the system by 1000 hours
B) By the station Officers and must be entered into the system by 1100 hours
C) By the Platoon Chief or Divisional Chiefs and must be entered into the system by 1100 hours
D) By the Platoon Chief or Divisional Chiefs and must be entered prior to the end of the shift

A

C) By the Platoon Chief or Divisional Chiefs and must be entered into the system by 1100 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

According to AP Memo 2021-AP-676 “Training Tablets and New Training Tablet Policy”, what is the passcode for all the tablets:
A) 123654
B) Passcode
C) H@mi1t0n
D) Summer2012

A

A) 123654

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

According to AP Memo 2021-AP-676 “Training Tablets and New Training Tablet Policy”, Who will be held accountable for the tablets while in service in the stations?

A) 6.1 Senior Chiefs and Safety Officers will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer

B) 6.1 Station Officers and supervisors will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer.

C) 6.1 Training Officers will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer.

D) 6.1 All firefighters will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer.

A

B) 6.1 Station Officers and supervisors will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

According to Training Bulletin #271 – “Cold Environments – Working in the Cold”, which temperature range is considered a Moderate risk in wind chill conditions (Table 2)?
A) 0 to – 9 degrees Celsius
B) – 10 to – 27 degrees Celsius
C) – 28 to – 39 degrees Celsius
D) – 40 to – 47 degrees Celsius

A

B) – 10 to – 27 degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

According to Memo 2018-AP-157, Workplace Safety & Insurance Board (WSIB)Injury/Exposure Reporting Checklist, it is imperative that all personnel make themselves familiar with the procedures, the completion the Parklane Report is the responsibility of:
A) The highest-ranking officer on scene
B) The individual leading the Training session
C) The Workplace Supervisor
D) The Station Captain

A

C) The Workplace Supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

According to Training Bulletin # 270 Blitzfire Portable Ground Monitor, procedures to reduce the risk of unlimited movement do not include:
A) Always keep the hose directly behind the monitor for approximately 10 feet
B) Always loop the hose in front of the monitor
C) Always tie off the monitor
D) Keep personnel out of the potential path of a moving/sliding monitor

A

B) Always loop the hose in front of the monitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following construction features is not associated with Center Core Construction according to HFDNET - High Rise Construction:
A) The core of this building contains the necessary pipes and ducts for all building services
B) Balconies act as a fire break in addition to serving as a sage refuge area in the event of a fire.
C) Water, electrical wires, cables, fuel lines etc. along with air supply and exhaust/return ducts are all located within the core
D) All means of vertical travel are located within the core as well

A

B) Balconies act as a fire break in addition to serving as a sage refuge area in the event of a fire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

According to Memorandum 2021-AP-523 – Deployment of Rescue 42 Vehicle Stabilization kits:
A) Rescue 42 struts shall be the preferred equipment utilized during an incident that requires stabilization
B) Z-mag stabilization equipment will remain on apparatus along with Rescue 42 equipment
C) If both Z-Mags and Rescue 42 equipment are available, Z-Mags will be the preferred stabilization device
D) If first arriving apparatus on-scene only have Z-Mags, crews shall delay extrication efforts to wait for Rescue 42 stabilization equipment to arrive

A

A) Rescue 42 struts shall be the preferred equipment utilized during an incident that requires stabilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

According to HFDNET - High Rise Construction, the description of “Stratification of Smoke” in high-rise buildings does not include:

A) Because a higher percentage of heat and smoke can accumulate in a confined space (high rise) with little potential for top level ventilation, the sudden admittance of air into the high rise can easily lead to a backdraft potential

B) The creation of layers of smoke and fire gases on floors below the top floor of sealed multi-story buildings is a relatively new phenomenon.

C) Since no normal leakage occurs, all of the smoke and fire gases produced will accumulate at various levels until the building is ventilated.

D) The products of combustion rise through any vertical opening until their temperature is reduced to the temperature of the surrounding air. When this occurs, smoke and fire gases form layers or clouds within the building

A

A) Because a higher percentage of heat and smoke can accumulate in a confined space (high rise) with little potential for top level ventilation, the sudden admittance of air into the high rise can easily lead to a backdraft potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

According to Memo 2019-AP-608 - High Flow Rate Nozzle Deployment, the correct nozzle pressure and flow for HFD Akron Assault 38mm and 65mm nozzles is:
A) 350 KPa delivering 550 Lpm and 1050 Lpm respectively
B) 350 KPa delivering 570 Lpm and 970 Lpm respectively
C) 700 KPa delivering 500 Lpm and 1475 Lpm respectively
D) 570 KPa delivering 350 Lpm and 700 Lpm respectively

A

B) 350 KPa delivering 570 Lpm and 970 Lpm respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

According to Training Bulletin #136, Helicopter Safety, what are the minimum dimensions that should be used for the Landing Zone?
A) 200ft x 200ft
B) 500ft x 500ft
C) 150ft x 150ft
D) 1000ft x 1000ft

A

C) 150ft x 150ft

(Answer C : Ornge Helicopter Safety Sheet)

19
Q

According to Training Bulletin #136, Helicopter Safety, when on uneven ground, which side should you approach the helicopter from?
A) Uphill side
B) Downhill Side
C) Side doesn’t matter as long as you cover your head
D) None of the above

A

B) Downhill Side

(Answer B: Point 13 on page 2 and Ornge Helicopter Safety Sheet)

20
Q

According to Training Bulletin #136, Helicopter Safety, which of the following is a false statement?
A) Any hose line that has been laid out shall be charged prior to air ambulance arrival
B) Use flares to outline the safe landing zone for the helicopter
C) Ensure that all vehicles remain 150 feet away from the landing zone
D) Ensure that all personnel remain 200 feet clear of the on-ground helicopter

A

B) Use flares to outline the safe landing zone for the helicopter

(Answer B: Point 6 on page 1 and Ornge Helicopter Safety Sheet)

21
Q

According to TB 266, the MSA Premaire Cadet G1 Escape Pack Visual Inspection and Function Test. A Visual Inspection of All Components, including the Facepiece, Regulator, Cylinder and Valve Assembly will be conducted _________.
A) Daily
B) Monthly
C) Weekly
D) Bi-Weekly

A

C) Weekly

22
Q

According to TB 266, the MSA Premaire Cadet G1 Escape Pack Visual Inspection and Function Test. A
Functional Test will be performed_________.
A) Monthly
B) Weekly
C) Daily
D) Only after use

A

A) Monthly

23
Q

According to TB 262 Cylinder Tagging. Each cylinder has a colored zip tie secured around the neck of the cylinder. The colors represent_____________.
A) Station Identification
B) District Identification
C) Apparatus Identification
D) A Hydrostatic Testing Schedule

A

D) A Hydrostatic Testing Schedule

24
Q

According to TB 264, Spare MSA G1 Facepieces C73 and C74. Each will carry a compliment of ______ temporary facepieces.
A) 10
B) 12
C) 5
D) 8

A

C) 5

25
Q

According to TB 264, Spare MSA G1 Facepieces C73 and C74. If a facepiece is issued to replace a faulty or damaged one, what must be done with the issued replacement when the original personal issued is repaired and returned.
A) The issued replacement is sent to stores
B) The issued replacement is kept in station as a spare
C) The issued replacement is cleaned, sanitized and returned to the original issuing Car73 or Car74
D) None of the above

A

C) The issued replacement is cleaned, sanitized and returned to the original issuing Car73 or Car74

26
Q

According to TB 265 MSA G1 Facepiece and Regulator Cleaning and Disinfecting, what is the minimum recommended contact time for the Facepiece and Regulator using Confidence Plus 2.
A) 20 seconds
B) 30 seconds
C) 60 seconds
D) 45 seconds

A

B) 30 seconds

27
Q

According to Training index files, Elevator Awareness, which of the following is not found in the 3 Golden Rules for Operating an Elevator in Firefighter Emergency Operations (FEO)?
A) Turn the switches ON (Phase I and Phase II)
B) Never leave the elevator car without the key (HOLD)
C) Have the RP (Responsible Person) operate the elevator.
D) If all goes wrong turn the Phase II switch OFF.

A

C) Have the RP (Responsible Person) operate the elevator.

28
Q

According to Training index files, Elevator Awareness, who is the Authority Having Jurisdiction with regards to elevators in Ontario?
A) CSA (Canadian Standards Association)
B) MOL (Ministry of Labor)
C) TC (Transport Canada)
D) TSSA (Technical Standards & Safety Act)

A

D) TSSA (Technical Standards & Safety Act)

(Answer D: PPT pg.6)

29
Q

According to, Training Bulletin 38, Aerial Ladder Load Limits and Interpreting Load Charts, under what condition can an Aerial Ladder be lowered to rest upon a structure?
A) High Winds
B) Rescue Situation
C) Under no circumstances
D) Full Extension

A

C) Under no circumstances

30
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, what appliance should be installed at the mouth of the Fire Location’s laneway, through which water will be supplied to the 100mm hose, feeding the attack or relay pump?
A) Clappered Siamese Manifold
B) 100 mm Adapter
C) 150 mm Hard Suction
D) Drafting Elbow

A

A) Clappered Siamese Manifold

(Answer A: Slide 15 of PowerPoint)

31
Q

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, how many portable water tanks will be set up in front of the Drafting Pump?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

A

C) 3

(Answer C: Slide 7 of PowerPoint)

32
Q

According to, Training Bulletin 14, PPV, where should the positive pressure fan be placed?
A) 4’ to 6’ inside of the doorway
B) In the doorway
C) 10’ to 15’ outside of the doorway
D) 4’ to 6’ outside of the doorway

A

D) 4’ to 6’ outside of the doorway

(Answer D: Page 2 Diagram)

33
Q

According to Training Bulletin 14, PPV, and the use of Positive Pressure Fans with Garage Doors it states?
A) Not use Positive Pressure Fans with Garage Doors
B) Only partially open Garage Doors and use 2 or more fans
C) Open garage doors fully
D) Only partially open Garage Doors and use 1 fan

A

B) Only partially open Garage Doors and use 2 or more fans

(Answer B: Page 3 Diagram)

34
Q

According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, What are the stages of fire growth in a “Vent Controlled” fire?
A) Volume, Velocity, Density, Colour
B) Ignition, First Growth, Vent Limited, Explosive Growth, Fully Developed, Decay
C) Ignition, Incipient, Fully Developed, Decay
D) Laminar, Pressurized, Turbulent, Wispy

A

B) Ignition, First Growth, Vent Limited, Explosive Growth, Fully Developed, Decay

35
Q

According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, What are the stages of fire growth in a “fuel controlled” fire?
A) Volume, Velocity, Density, Colour
B) Ignition, First Growth, Vent Limited, Explosive Growth, Fully Developed, Decay
C) Ignition, Incipient, Fully Developed, Decay
D) Laminar, Pressurized, Turbulent, Wispy

A

C) Ignition, Incipient, Fully Developed, Decay

36
Q

According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, which of these factors do NOT influence the smoke?
A) Building size & compartments
B) Weather
C) Firefighting actions
D) Time of day

A

D) Time of day

37
Q

According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family Dwelling Fires, the article states that SFD (Single Family Dwelling) fires accounted for ________ % of residential fires in 1994?
A) 60 %
B) 70 %
C) 73 %
D) 69 %

A

B) 70 %

(Answer B, TB 033 pg. 2 Paragraph 1)

38
Q

According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family Dwelling Fires, which of the following is NOT considered a factor which can contribute to an attic fire?
A) Defective wiring
B) Defective chimneys
C) Interior fire exposure
D) Platform construction

A

D) Platform construction

(Answer D, TB 033 pg. 7 “Upon arrival”)

39
Q

According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family Dwelling Fires, window size, shape and location suggest room use. A small, narrow window between two larger windows usually indicates a __________ room?
A) Bedroom
B) Living room
C) Bathroom
D) Kitchen

A

C) Bathroom

(Answer C, TB 033 pg. 3 - 3a)

40
Q

Hamilton Emergency Services – Fire Division – July 14 - 2011 – All Personnel Memo: 2011-AP- 221: Trade/Exchanges/Union Subs/ Overtime on the 24 hour Shift Schedule, states that “any twenty-four hour (24) period on duty must immediately be followed by a minimum of ____________________.”
A) Twenty (20) hours off duty.
B) Twenty-Four (24) hours off duty.
C) Twelve (12) hours off duty.
D) None of the above.

A

A) Twenty (20) hours off duty.

41
Q

Hamilton Emergency Services – Fire Division – May 24, 2012 – All Personnel Memo: 2012-AP- 149, Training Bulletin #177 – Safety Bulletin Photovoltaic Systems concludes “the single most critical message of emergency response personnel ”:
A) Is to always consider photovoltaic systems all their components as de-energized if disconnected from the site panel.
B) Is to always consider the weight of the photovoltaic systems on construction components.
C) Is to always consider photovoltaic systems and all their components as electrically energized when exposed to sunlight.
D) Is always to have accurate knowledge of the type of photovoltaic system that has been on fire or impinged by fire.

A

C) Is to always consider photovoltaic systems and all their components as electrically energized when exposed to sunlight.

42
Q

Hamilton Fire Department – March 14, 2016, All Personnel Memorandum 2016-AP-094-01 REVISED Mobile Command Unit, states that the Command Unit may requested by ___________________.
A) The Fire Chief, Deputy Fire Chief, or Assistant Deputy Chief.
B) Incident Command, the Fire Chief, or the EOC (Emergency Operations Centre).
C) Incident Command, a Platoon Chief, District Chief, or the Fire Chief, Deputy Fire Chief or Assistant Deputy Chief.
D) A Platoon Chief, the Fire Chief, or Deputy Fire Chief.

A

C) Incident Command, a Platoon Chief, District Chief, or the Fire Chief, Deputy Fire Chief or Assistant Deputy Chief.

43
Q

Training Bulletin 184 - Where are secondary means of Egress Flags to be attached when put onto ground ladders used for secondary means of Egress?
A) Bed rung of ground ladder on the 5th or 6th rung
B) Bed rung of ground ladder on the 1st rung
C) Onto the tied off halyard
D) On the tip of the ladder

A

A) Bed rung of ground ladder on the 5th or 6th rung