Training Bulletins 81 - 119 Flashcards by Danny Elizarraras

TB #101 - (SEMS) When tactical resources are assigned to the Incident Base, what is their availability status?

Out-of-service

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #101 - (SEMS) Resources can be described both by _______ and by ______.

“Kind” and “Type”

Examples

Kind = helicopter, fire engine, patrol vehicle, etc.
Type = Type 1, Type 3, etc.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #101 - (SEMS) A staging area is a temporary location at an incident where personnel and equipment are kept while awaiting tactical assignments. This will be located within ______ minute(s) travel time to the area of expected need.

5 minutes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #101 - The ICS Forms Catalog has been added to the Department library in Volume 5. Operational SEMS forms begin with “ICS Form No. _____” and end with “ICS Form No. _____.”

ICS Form No. 201
ICS Form No. 221

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #101 - (SEMS) Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFR) is airspace restrictions for non-emergency aircraft in the incident area. They are limited to a _____ nautical mile radius and ______ feet in altitude.

5 nautical mile
2,000 feet

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #101 - (SEMS) In the staging area, resources are always in a available status. This means they are ready for an assignment within _____ minute(s).

3 minutes

There may be more than one staging area for an incident.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #101 - (SEMS) Operational Periods is the time scheduled for execution of a given set of operation actions as specified in the Incident Action Plan. Operational Periods can be of various lengths, although usually not over _____ hour(s).

24 hours

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #101 - (SEMS) How many status conditions can tactical resources be in at an incident?

3 status conditions
Assigned resources
Available resources
Out-of-service resources

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #101 - How many organizational levels is SEMS divided into?

5 levels
Field response level
Local government level
Operational area
Regional
State

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #101 - (SEMS) All primary services and support activity for the incident are usually located and performed here. What is the name of this incident facility?

Incident Base

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #101 - (SEMS) A geographical area in which a task force/strike team leader or supervisor of a single resource is assigned authority and responsibility for coordination of resources and implementation of planned tactics. What is this area called?

Segment

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #101 - What level of SEMS is the communication link to the Federal disaster response system?

State level

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #101 - (SEMS) Regarding the Incident Base, how many are allowed for each established incident?

Only one

Normally the Base will not be relocated.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #101 - ICS National Training Curriculum is a series of _____ training modules consisting of instructor guides, visuals, test, and student materials.

17 modules

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #101 - (SEMS) What type of numbers are Segments identified with?

Arabic numbers

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #101 - The Span of Control pertains to the number of individuals that one supervisor can effectively manage. In ICS, the span of control for any supervisor falls within the range of _____ to _____ individuals.

3 to 7 individuals

The rule of thumb is 5 subordinates for every supervisor.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #101 - The Standardized Emergency Management System (SEMS) was a result of the 1991 “_____________ Fire” in Oakland. After the fire, Senate Bill 1841 was passed by the State Legislature and made effective January 1, 1993.

“East Bay Hills Fire”

The intent of this law is to improve the coordination of State and Local emergency response agencies in California.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #101 - (SEMS) Supervisors must maintain a Unit Log, ICS Form _____ indicating names of personnel assigned and a listing of major activities during an Operational Period.

ICS Form 214

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - When applying Class “B” foam, it is desirable to utilize a high-quality foam stream. At least _____% of the stream flow should land on the flammable liquid.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - Since less energy is needed to proportion the foam concentrate with water, Hydro-Foam Nozzles can operate effectively at low nozzle pressures of _____ PSI or less.

75 PSI or less

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - In-line Foam Eductor - friction loss is ____ PSI per 100 feet of 1-1/2” hose, or ____ PSI per 100 feet of 1-3/4” hose.

35 PSI
25 PSI

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - Connect sufficient 1-1/2” hose to reach from the JRC discharge to reach the Hydro-Foam Nozzle “pigtail.” What is the maximum amount of hose you can use?

1,000 feet

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - (In-line Foam Eductor) What is the desired selected mixture percent for Class “B” flammable liquids/polar solvents?

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - The Bubble Cup spray tip nozzle pressure is 100 PSI and friction loss for 1” hose is _____ PSI per 100 feet.

25 PSI

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - When using the Hydro-Foam Nozzle and JRC together, expect to use _____ gallon(s) of concentrate per minute of operation while water is flowing.

20 gallons

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - The Hydro-Foam Nozzle comes with a reinforced plastic “pigtail” that is _____ feet long.

8 feet long

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 -To pump foam using the Hydro-Foam Nozzle and JRC, develop a hose lay to deliver a minimum of _____ GPM at 100 psi from the source of water to the Hydro-Foam Nozzle.

660 GPM

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - The Hydro-Foam Nozzle produces high-quality foam that expands to the optimum Class “B” foam range from ___:1 to ___:1.

3:1 to 6:1

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - What GPM tip must always be used with the 1-1/2” In-line Foam Eductor?

125 GPM spray tip

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - How many feet reach does the Hydro-Foam Nozzle have?

180 feet

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - When calculating the pressure to pump to the JRC, the appliance is ____ PSI (constant), and the 1-1/2” hose is _____ PSI per 100 feet.

50 PSI
35 PSI

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - The Hydro Foam Nozzle delivers ______ GPM at 100 PSI.

660 GPM

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - The In-line Foam Eductor has metering that allows foam mixtures ranging from 0.5% to ____% (Williams’ Brand) and 0.25% to ____% (Task Force Tips).

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 -When using 1-1/2” hose with the In-line Foam Eductor, the hose lay from the eductor to the spray nozzle must be ______ feet.

150 feet

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - The foam proportioned mixture on the Hydro-Foam Nozzle is ____%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - The Bubble Cup spray tip is capable of producing aspirated foam, with an expansion ratio of ___:1, as well as conventional straight stream and wide protective fog pattern.

8:1 expansion ratio

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - The Hydro-Foam Nozzle and Jet Ratio Controller are carried on all ______________.

200 Series Engines

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - The Task Force Tips Bubble Cup spray tip is both a conventional and aspirating type nozzle. The Bubble Cup tip has a flow range of ___/___ GPM.

10/40 GPM

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - When using 1-3/4” hose with the In-line Foam Eductor, the hose lay from the eductor to the spray nozzle must be ______ feet.

250 feet

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - When 1-1/2” or 1-3/4” hose is utilized to move the in-line educator away from the apparatus and closer to the objective, pump ______ PSI plus the required friction loss.

200 PSI

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #103 - Class “A” foam increases the effectiveness of water by ____ to ____ times.

3 to 5 times

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - (USAR) The Atmospheric Monitor is responsible for determination of atmospheric conditions. This person(s) must be trained to the Confined Space Rescue Operations Level for “___________” confined space rescues (OSHA).

“Permit required”

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - (USAR) Supplied Air Respirators used by Rescue Team member(s) involve a separate air supply manifold, which is maintained by a Breathing Air Supply Monitor outside of the confined space. The rescuer is connected by air hose, up to a maximum of ______ feet in length, to the air manifold.

300 feet

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - (USAR) As an incident expands, problems and/or specific needs may increase to a point where the IC cannot effectively manage all of them. The solution is to delegate the responsibility and form the ___________ Staff.

General Staff

Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance/Administration

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - (USAR) What team will prohibit unauthorized or unprotected personnel from entering the operational area on a USAR incident?

Perimeter Control Team

This can be a non-USAR company.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - (USAR) Statistics show that nearly ____% of all confined space deaths are potential rescuers associated with secondary entries.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - (USAR) Which team leader is responsible for the execution of all rescue, shoring, extrication, patient packaging and removal operations?

Rescue Team Leader

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - (USAR) This “section” will maintain situation and resource status records, document any information relative to the incident, and provide required technical expertise. What section is this?

Planning Section

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - OSHA records have shown that _____% of all confined space injuries and deaths are related to atmospheric condition.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - (USAR) What “section” is responsible for specific functions such as ground support, food, base, supplies, communications, etc.?

Logistics Section

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - NFPA Standard on Operations and Training for Technical Rescue Incidents, identifies and establishes levels of functional capability for safely and effectively conducting operations at technical rescue incidents. This is NFPA _______.

NFPA 1670

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - (USAR) Regarding confined space PPE’s, unless not practical, a confined space rated harness with upper _______ midpoint attachment shall be worn for entries.

Upper back midpoint attachment

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - (USAR) This member is responsible for direct control of the entry portal at a USAR incident. What position is this?

Attendant

This member will maintain communications with the rescue team(s) and operates at the entry to the rescue site.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - (USAR) What “section” has the function to deploy, direct, and coordinate tactical resources engaged in the tactical activities required to meet strategic goals established by the IC?

Operations Section

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - This team supports the Rescue Team operations based on incident specific needs. When required for incidents, they will provide rope rescue systems and anchors for rescue and retrieval of patients. What team is this?

Technical Support Team

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - NFPA 1670 identifies how many technical rescue incidents types?

7 types
Structural collapse
Rope rescue
Confined space operations
Vehicle and machinery extrication
Water rescue
Wilderness search and rescue
Trench and excavation rescue

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - (USAR) The __________ assigned to the divisional US&R task force and the officer assigned to US&R 88 should be used to assist the IC with the development of an operational plan.

Captain II

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - (USAR) What’s the title of the Supervisor who is responsible for the completion of the “Permit Entry” when a Confined Space Entry Permit is required?

Rescue Group Supervisor

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - (USAR) The Technical Safety Officer (TSO) assigned to the Technical Support Team will be responsible for overseeing all operations in the operational area in regards to technical systems and safety. What member from USAR 88 will normally fill this role?

Apparatus Operator

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #104 - The ICS system is expandable, based on the needs of the incident. Components may be added or removed as such on large scale, moderate duration incidents lasting ____ to ____ hours.

6 to 8 hours

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #106 - What Chief from the United States Forest Service developed LCES after being involved in several fatal wildland fires?

Chief Paul Gleason

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #106 - (LCES) What type of “vision” does the company officer operating on a hoseline with their crew have?

Surrounding vision

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #106 - (LCES) This is an area that does not require any protection, such as SCBA’s and hoselines, for the members in order to survive. What is this area called?

Safety zone (or safe refuge)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #106 - The LL in LLCCESS stand for _________ and _________.

Lookouts
Location

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #106 - (LCES) At a multi-story incident, how many floor(s) below the fire may the safety zone be?

2 floors below fire

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #106 - A method of communicating to a company operating inside that the fire conditions are changing is by ________ on the hoseline.

Pulling on the hoseline

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #106 - (LCES) How many “watch out” situations have been identified for interior structure firefighting?

14 “watch outs”

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #106 - (LCES) How has communications been best accomplished when members are working at incidents?

Face to face

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #106 - (LCES) Our department has adopted the air horn signal as an adjunct to an operational retreat. Sounding the horn for 10 seconds followed by 10 seconds of silence and repeating this cycle _____ time(s) for a total of _____ second(s) indicates that all companies need to retreat to their safe area.

3 times
50 seconds

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #106 - (LCES) How many “watch out” situations have been identified for fighting fire in the wildland?

18 “watch outs”

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #107 - Nerve agents belong to a group of chemicals known as ______________, which cause physiological effects similar to many pesticides.

Organophosphates

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #107 - Which auto-injector from the Mark 1 Kit should be given first?

Atropine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #107 - Which are the only LAFD members who can administer Mark 1 Kits to affected civilians?

Only Paramedics

FF/EMT’s may only use for themsleves or another LAFD member.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #107 - Survival Technologies, Inc. (STI) has supplied over _____ million auto-injectors to the U.S. Department of Defense and allies since 1958.

65 million

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #107 - Any patient who recieves one dose from the auto-injector should be immediatley placed under medical evaluation for at least _____ hour(s).

24 hours

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #107 - After the intra-muscular injection of 2 PAM Cl, _____ to _____ minutes after, mild to moderate pain may be experienced at the site of injection.

40 to 60 minutes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #107 - Administer an auto-injector in the thickest part of the thigh. Hold firmly in place for _____ second(s), then remove. Massage the area of injection.

10 seconds

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #107 - The Mark 1 Kit contains Atropine ____ mg, and 2-Pam Chloride ____ mg.

2 mg
600 mg

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #107 - What is the shelf life for a Mark 1 auto-injector kit?

5 years

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #107 - Cold weather will affect the physcial state of the auto-injectors since they freeze at temperatures below _____ degrees F.

29 degrees F

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #107 - The Atropine in the Mark 1 Kit has a ________ cap.

Yellow cap

(Green body)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #107 - Division and Battalion Sedans will store the Mark 1 Kit in a marked bag in the __________.

Trauma box

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #107 - The 2-Pam Chloride in the Mark 1 Kit has a ______ cap.

Grey cap

(Black body)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #107 - The Mark 1 Kit has auto-injectors that are the antidotes which relieves or counters the effects of poisons such as ___________.

Nerve agents

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #107 - Special Duty and Staff Personnel will store the Mark 1 Kit in a trauma box if assigned. If no trauma box is available, the Mark 1 Kit shall be stored in the _____________.

Glove compartment

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #107 - What forms are needed for a replacement of lost or stolen Mark 1 Kits?

F-______
F-______

F-225 (to BES)
F-80 (Medical Supplies Unit)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #107 - When replacing lost or stolen Mark 1 Kits, who do you forward the F-225 to?

Bureau of Emergency Services (BES)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #109 - What is the preferred method for delivering oxygen in the prehospital care setting?

Non-rebreather mask

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #109 - What covers the exhalation ports on the non-rebreather mask?

Rubber washers

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #109 - On the non-rebreather mask, what prevents the patient’s exhaled air from mixing with oxygen in the reservoir?

One-way valve

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #109 - (Non-rebreather mask) Set the oxygen regulator flow at a rate that prevents the reservoir bag from collapsing when the patient inhales. The usual setting is _____ LPM.

15 LPM

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #109 - The nasal cannula will have a oxygen setting no less than ____ LPM and no greather than ____ LPM.

1 LPM (no less)
6 LPM (no greater)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #109 - The nasal cannula will deliver a O2 concentration ranges from 24% to ____%.

24% to 44%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #109 - All Paramedic and EMT resources shall maintain a minimum supply of 3 nasal cannulas, 3 adult non-rebreathers, and 3 pediatric oxygen masks. How much of an additional supply shall be maintained in quarters?

1 month supply

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #109 - How many primary oxygen adjuncts are used in the prehospital care setting?

2
Non-rebreather mask
Nasal cannula

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #109 - On the non-rebreather mask, during inhalation, the patient draws in _____% oxygen from the reservoir bag.

100%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #110 - (Bullard Thermal Imager) For best performance, charge each of the batteries every _____ week(s) at a minimum.

2 weeks

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #110 - When using the Bullard Thermal Imager, cooler objects will appear ________ or darker shades.

Black

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #110 - (Bullard Thermal Imager) How often do you replace with a fully charged battery?

Weekly

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #110 - When viewing the screen on the Bullard Thermal Imager, what can occur around the hottest objects?

Haloing

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #110 - In a very hot environment, actual visible flames may appear as _________ when using the Bullard Thermal Imager.

White

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #110 - (Bullard Thermal Imager) What color is the large button on the left side of the unit that turns on the imager?

Green

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #110 - To conserve battery life on the Bullard Thermal Imager, put the unit into sleep mode by pressing the ________ sleep button on the left hand side of the unit.

Yellow

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #110 - When using the Bullard Thermal Imager, the hottest objects will appear _________ or lighter shades.

White

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #110 - (Bullard Thermal Imager) The Thermal Throttle controls the amount of energy that reaches the thermal detector (similar to a pupil in the eye.) Most of the needed adjustment will be accomplished within a __/__ turn of the Thermal Throttle.

1/4 turn

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #110 - When turning on the Bullard Thermal Imager, after approximately _____ second(s), the thermal image will appear accompanied by a calibrating gray scale at the bottom of the screen.

20 seconds

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #110 - (Bullard Thermal Imager) Before using the nickel metal hydride battery for the first time, how many times should it be charged and discharged?

3 times

This will enable the battery to achieve maximum life.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #110 - The Bullard Thermal Imager requires a few moments to warm up and complete the self-calibration process. It will be fully operational in _____ second(s).

45 seconds

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - On the Foam Tender, the Class “B” foam system is capable of pumping _____ GPM of concentrate.

350 GPM of concentrate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - When the Foam Tender’s Class “A” Foam setting is at 0.3% (lowest setting), it can produce _________ gallons of solution.

60,000 gallons

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - The Foam Tender is built on what type of chassis?

Freightliner 112

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - The Foam Tender has four Class “A” foam metering valves adjustable from ____% to ____%.

0.3% to 1.0%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - The Foam Tender monitors have a reach of ______ feet when using CAFS.

270 feet

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - If a Foam Tender is needed, how many shall be requested?

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - How many passenger(s) can the Foam Tender sit?

2 passengers

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - The Class “B” system on the Foam Tender automatically balances and proportions the foam solution ranging from ____% to ____% despite variations in water pressure or flow.

1.0% to 10.0%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - The Foam Tender has a ______ gallon Class “A” foam concentrate tank.

200 gallon (Class “A” concentrate)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - For larger hydrocarbon spills, the Foam Tender has sixteen 4”x10’ polypropylene oil-only Booms designed to be linked together for use on water or land. When saturated, they can absorb up to ____ times their own weight of the product.

25 times

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - The Foam Tender has a ______ gallon Class “B” foam concentrate tank.

1000 gallon (Class “B” concentrate)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - The Foam Tender has a 1 inch chemical hose reel on both sides of apparatus that are _______ feet each.

150 feet

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - The Foam Tender is equipped with a _____ cubic foot per minute air compressor used for either the compressed air foam system (CAFS) or pneumatic tools such as those used by USAR apparatus.

400 CFM

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - On the Foam Tender, for larger spills, there are sixteen 4” x ___’ polypropylene oil-only booms designed to be linked together for use on water or land.

4” x 10’

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - The Foam Tender is equipped with kits for controlling hydrocarbon spills. The small kit contains ____ pad(s), five 48” socks, and four clean-up bags.

50 pads

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - At _____ PSI, the rear 2-1/2” monitor can produce 2,000 GPM.

116 PSI

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - The Foam Tender has two _____ pound dry chemical “Purple-K” systems.

350 pounds

(700 total)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - When supplied by an adequate water service, the Foam Tender will flow ________ GPM from various monitors and discharge outlets.

4,000 GPM

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112- The Foam Tender is equipped with _____ feet of 1-1/2” hose located on the transverse hose bed.

400 feet

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - The Foam Tender relies on a independent pumping apparatus for a water supply. When practical, the Foam Tender should be supplied by up to ______ pumping apparatus.

3 pumping apparatus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - The Foam Tender’s rear discharge and top mounted rear monitor have the capability of flowing up to _______ GPM each.

2000 GPM

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - On the Foam Tender, the Class “A” foam system is capable of pumping _____ GPM of concentrate.

24 GPM of concentrate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - Engineers should supply the Foam Tender with a minimum of _____ 4 inch supply lines.

2 supply lines

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #112 - When pumping to the Foam tender, the required flow pressure is _____ PSI, in volume, to the inlets.

100 PSI

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - Forty percent of the gross national product ( ____ million containers) is shipped through the Los Angeles and Long Beach ports annually.

25 million

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - There are 46 ladders located along the Alameda Corridor. They are located along the mid corridor trench every ______ feet.

1000 feet

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) “DC” within a _______ shape indicates “DRAIN CUT OFF” (dike) at that location.

Square shape

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) “T” within a ________ shape indicates an “EMERGENCY TELEPHONE.”

Traingle shape

Telephone boxes are located at the top and bottom of the trench adjacent to the access ladders.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) Retractable ladders are lowered with a hand crank. It takes ____ to ____ minutes to lower the retractable ladder to access the bottom of the corridor.

1 to 1-1/2 minutes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - The Alameda Corridor extends from the ports of Long Beach and Los Angeles on the south to the downtown rail yards on the north, running on a _____ mile strip along Alameda Street and the Southern Pacific’s San Pedro branch right-of-way.

20 mile

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - The east track of the Alameda Corridor is identified as Track #____.

Track #1

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) There are ____ access points (ladders) that lead into the corridor from the street level.

46 access points

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) When the retractable ladder is lowered, trains are notfied to slow down to _____ MPH.

10 MPH

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) Trains can take over how far to stop?

1 mile

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - The center track of the Alameda Corridor is identified as Track #____.

Track #2

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113- (Alameda Corridor) If you are working on an incident in the corridor, consider placing companies ____ to ____ miles away on both sides of the incident to act as scouts to warn the Incident Commander of oncoming trains.

1-1/2 to 2 miles

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - For medical emergencies within the Alameda Corridor, you will get a “___” Assignment and a Rescue Ambulance.

“A” Assignment

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) In the midcorridor section north of the 91 freeway, trains will descend into a _____ mile long (33’ deep x 51’ wide) trench through the cities of Compton, Lynwood, South Gate, Huntington Park, Vernon, and Los Angeles.

10 mile long

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - How many pump stations does the Alameda Corridor have?

2 pump stations

Located

Nadeau St.
Greenleaf Ave.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - The average speed in the Alameda Corridor is _____ MPH.

40 MPH

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - The Alameda Corridor will eliminate conflicts at ______ street level railroad crossings, improve the roadway on Alameda Street along the corridor, and synchronize traffic.

200 crossings

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - If dispatched for a fire within the Alameda Corridor, you will get a “___” Assignment.

“B” Assignment

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) Each Division, Battalion, and fire company will be issued a Knox Box key engraved “________.” This will access the Knox Lock.

“ACTA”

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) Each pump station contains a catch basin located under the corridor ( ___ ft deep x 100 ft long x 51 ft wide) with a scrubber.

10 feet deep

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) How many green Botz Dot(s) identify the retractable ladders?

2 green Botz Dots

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) On each side of the corridor, a _____ foot wide water channel takes the runoff from the corridor to the catch basins.

4 foot

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) In the case of a Haz/Mat materials spill, what can be inserted in the water channel to capture runoff?

Metal dikes

These are provided at the base of each ladder.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) Cameras are located at each of the six fixed stair shafts along the corridor, the pump stations, and the north and south ends of the trench. These are provided for corridor security and monitored ____ hour(s) a day by railroad police.

24 hours a day

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - The Ports of Los Angeles and Long Beach are the _____ largest container shipping facilities in the world.

3rd largest

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) The standpipe system is not a looped system. Dry standpipes are located every _____ feet along the corridor.

500 feet

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) “EL” within a ________ shape box indicates an “EMERGENCY LADDER.”

Diamond shape

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) Utilities that cross over the corridor will be labeled in accordance with __________ standards.

National standards

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) How many green Botz Dot(s) identify the standpipe connections?

1 green Botz Dot

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #113 - (Alameda Corridor) “DS” within a ________ shape indicates a “DRY STANDPIPE” connection at that location.

Circle shape

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #115 - For a high/lethal exposure to cyanide, after crushing the Amyl Nitrate, tape inside the mask/BVM and ventilate for ____ second(s), remove ampule, then ventilate for 15 seconds.

60 seconds

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #115 - The Paramedic Disaster Cache will be inventoried with the other controlled drugs at least _______ and anytime there is a change in personnel.

Daily

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #115 - The Paramedic Disaster Cache is secured in a gray plastic box, and is sealed with a small ________ padlock seal.

Green padlock seal

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #115 - There are _____ Mark-1 auto-injectors in the Paramedic Disaster Cache.

30 auto-injectors

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #115 - Who will restock any part of the Paramedic Disaster Cache?

EMS District Captain

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #115 - (Paramedic Disaster Cache) Replacement of lost or stolen kits, or contents, shall be requested on an F-225 with an F-80. Where shall the F-225 be forwarded to?

Bureau of Emergency Services (BES)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #115 - There are _____ Amyl Nitrate Ampules in the Paramedic Disaster Cache.

36 Amyl Nitrate

(3 boxes of 12)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #115 - What exposures does the Amyl Nitrate from the Paramedic Disaster Cache treat?

Cyanide exposures

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #115 - (Paramedic Disaster Cache) Over _________ tons of cyanide byproducts are produced annually.

300,000 tons

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #115 - If a patient gets a moderate to high exposure to cyanide, you may detect a bitter ________ odor on the patient’s breath.

Bitter almond odor

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #115 - If exposed to cyanide in the eyes, immediately irrigate with water for a minimum of _____ minute(s).

10 minutes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #115 - For a moderate cyanide exposure, crush the Amyl Nitrate ampule in a _________ and allow the victim to hold and inhale the antidote vapor for ____ second(s).

4 x 4 gauze
60 seconds

Administer a new ampule every 2-3 minutes.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #116 - The maximum speed for the Metro Heavy Rail Line trains are _____ MPH.

70 MPH

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) Fire Department apparatus augmenting the combined standpipe system should supply _____ PSI.

125 PSI

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) Each car can seat 59 passengers, and has one wheelchair space, but can accommodate a total of ______ passengers in a standing “crush load.”

220 passengers “crush load”

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) If the trip switch is pushed, which personnel must respond to re-rack the breakers to restore power?

Metro personnel

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The trains are propelled by four traction motors per car, operated from ______ volts direct current (VDC).

750 VDC

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #116 - On the Metro Rail Heavy Line cars, how many extinguisher(s) is each car equipped with?

2 extinguishers

10A/60BC

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) There are 2-1/2 inch outlets located approximately every _____ feet in the tunnel and cross passages.

250 feet

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) Emergency fans are powered by 200 horsepower electric motors and produce approximately __________ cfm.

150,000 cfm

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The third rail carries _____ volts and can be on either side of the track.

750 volts

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) This is the first level below ground, which is the public access level to the tunnel. What is this level?

Mezzanine Level

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) In the event of catastrophic loss of power, stationary diesel engine generators can be found in the main yard, and at the __________ Station.

Vermont Station

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) In the event of any possible tunnel evacuation, there are a total of 93 cross passages staggered at approximately _____ foot intervals throughout the tunnel.

750 foot intervals

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) What level is the Emergency Management Panel (EMP) located?

Mezzanine Level

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) When looking at the tunnels from the Union Station (at your back), the “AL” tunnel lies on the ______, and the “AR” tunnel is on the ______.

“AL” - Left
“AR” - Right

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The normal assignment for structure fire incidents is a “____” Assignment.

“B” Assignment

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) What is the most important area for initial Fire Department operations?

Emergency Management Panel (EMP)

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) In what room would you reset fire alarms?

Train Communication and Control Room (TC&C)

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) What level will the Emergency Trip Station (ETS) be found?

Platform Level

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) Where will you find the Fire Department lock box directly adjacent to?

Adjacent to the EMP (on the wall)

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) If an actual fire exists, where would the 3rd Task Force respond to?

Station opposite to incident

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The batteries are located under the “____” car and provide ______ VDC. A “disconnect switch” is located inside of the _________ compartment.

“B” car
37.5 VDC
Battery compartment

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) A fire suppression Under-Carriage Deluge System has been installed _________ the tracks at each side of all platforms. The deluge system is only activated _________.

Between
Manually

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The Emergency Trip Station (ETS) is located at each end of the station for each track. What is the ETS indicated by on the wall?

Blue Light Station (BLS)

TB #116 - This level contains the different control rooms for the station functions, such as the Train Communication and Control Room (TC&C), mechanical room, Department of Water and Power (DWP) power station, and fan room. What level is this?

Ancillary Level

In some stations, an ancillary level may be encountered as the first level below the street.

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Line) Each car has two extinguishers rated at 10A/______. One is located in the operator’s cab, and the other is between the transverse passenger seats.

10A/60BC

TB #116 - The Metro Red and Purple lines currently service _____ station(s).

16 stations

TB #116 - Currently the Metro Heavy Rail Red/Purple Line is currently _____ mile(s) in length.

17.4 miles

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The DWP power station room is energized with ________ volts and should not be entered by Fire Department personnel.

34,500 volts

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) What color are the emegency exit signs that do not exit to street level?

Red signs

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) Milepost markers are used in the tunnels between terminals and are marked at distances not to exceed __/__ of a mile.

1/10th of a mile

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) Who must be notified prior to pushing the trip switch?

Rail Operations Center (ROC)

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) Metro has an active fleet of _____ train cars.

104 train cars

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) - If you have an actual fire/physical rescue and a single Engine is first on scene, how many members will proceed to the lobby?

4 members

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) What color are the emegency exit signs that indicate street level egress?

Green signs

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The train configuration is set up with a minimum two car combination, which includes one “A” car (with the controller’s cab), and one “B” car, and up to _____ cars maximum.

6 car maximum

Normal configuration is 4 to 6 car trains depending on passenger load.

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The collector shoe slides along the electrified contact rail to conduct primary power to the car and return regenerative braking power from the car to the contact rail. There are _____ collector shoes on each car.

4 collector shoes

When any one of the collector shoes is energized by making contact with the contact rail, all collector shoes are energized, and the entire train is energized (750 VDC).

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) This level is the area where passengers enter and exit trains. Passengers can access this level by elevator, escalator, or stairs. What level is this?

Platform Level

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) A combined standpipe system is supplied by at least two _____ inch mains and will have two Fire Department Connections per station.

8 inch mains

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The Platform Levels are designed to accommodate a _____ car train.

6 car train

Platforms are over 450 feet long.

TB #117 - (Port of LA Red Car Line) If the need arises to warn or stop oncoming railtraffic, red ______ (daytime only), or red flares can be placed between the rails spaced approximately ______ feet in both directions from the incident.

Red flags
500 feet

TB #117 - The Port of LA Waterfront Red Car is on a ______ mile track, which is shared with trains of the Pacific Harborline (PHL) freight railroad.

1.5 mile track

TB #117 - (Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line) The streetcars are powered by _____ volts (DC) distributed to the cars by the direct suspension overhead contact system (OCS).

600 volts DC

TB #117 - The Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line has _____ station(s).

4 stations

TB #117 - (Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line) The entire overhead contact system should be considered energized. The contact wire is held under _______ to _______ pounds of tension.

2,500 to 3,000 pounds tension

It is critical that emergency responders do not cut contact wire.

TB #117 - The Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line has a maximum speed of _____ MPH.

20 MPH

TB #117 - (The Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line) The Red Car has a stopping distance of _____ feet.

120 feet

TB #117 - The Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line has _____ folding bridge(s) on the platform.

2 folding bridges

TB #117 - (Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line) Allow _____ feet of clearance between yourself and a stopped railcar, in case of sudden movement.

10 feet

TB #117 - (Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line) The station platform is _____ feet above the rail, and 54 feet long.

4 feet above the rail

TB #117 - (Port of LA Red Car Line) There are _______ signalized highway/rail grade crossings.

3 crossings

TB #117 - (Port of LA Waterfront Red Car Line) Streetcars are operated by a _____ person crew.

2 person crew

TB #118 - If you need a new operators manual for the Life Pack 12 defibrillator, where do you request a copy from?

In-Service Training, EMS Training Unit

TB #119 - The Conterra Airway Bag comes with _____ detachable vinyl window pockets for organizing tubing, oxygen delivery, and portable suction devices.

2 detachable window pockets

TB #119 - The Conterra Airway Bag has a main compartment that is divided into ______ areas to organize oxygen equipment.

3 areas

TB #119 - If the Conterra Airway Bag gets contaminated, clean with a mild detergent and ____% bleach solution.

10% bleach solution

TB #81 - Body armor protects against _______ and ________ handgun bullets.

Low
Medium

TB #81 - Body armor is not designed to protect against ________ fire.

Rifle fire

TB #81 - What are the names of the two different body armor vest manufacturers that the Department issues?

“Second Chance”
“Safariland”

TB #81 - On the __________ body armor vest, the ballistic panels cannot be removed.

“Second Chance”

TB #81 - Where can you obtain a temporary replacement body armor while your assigned vest is being washed and dried?

Battalion Office

TB #81 - You must remove the ballistic panels on the ___________ body armor vest before cleaning.

“Safariland”

TB #81 - When your body armor ballistic panels get damaged, where do you send them?

TB #81 - If a body armor vest should need any repairs to the outer shell, they may be made by the _______________.

Mobile turnout repairman

TB #81 - When body armor is carried on Department apparatus, it shall be stored in a ___________ or in a _______ Rescue Ambulance.

Compartment
Locked

TB #81 - Body armor is multi-layers of _________ or ___________.

Kevlar
Spectra Shield

TB #81 - The department issued body armor provides a protection Threat Level or Protection Level of ____.

TB #82 - What area of the world did the “Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome” (SARS) originate from?

Asia

TB #82 - If a member has been exposed to SARS, they need to monitor themselves for a fever and check their temperature _______ daily.

Twice daily

TB #82 - If the initial PPD skin test is negative, a repeat skin test is conducted in ____ week(s).

12 weeks

TB #82 - Contact limited to being in the presence of a suspected source patient (person suspected of having a communicable disease). What is this level of exposure?

Level I

TB #82 - This meningitis is generally less severe and resolves without specific treatment. What type of meningitis is this?

Viral meningitis

TB #82 - Members who may have been exposed to SARS should be vigilant of a fever greater than ______ degrees F.

100.4 degrees F

TB #82 - What immunization is the City’s Occupational Health and Safety Division providing to uniformed personnel?

Hepatitis B

TB #82 - Members who have been exposed to SARS should be vigilant of fever and respiratory symptoms over the ____ to ____ days following exposure.

10 to 14 days

TB #82 - What immediatley happens when a LAFD member has a positive chest x-ray?

Placed off-duty

TB #82 - Contamination of clothing or intact (non-broken) skin, by blood or body fluids. What level of exposure is this?

Level II

TB #82 - There is no specific treatment for smallpox disease, the only prevention is vaccination. Historically, smallpox has an overall fatality rate of about ____ percent.

TB #82 - If the need to recap a needle arises, what technique shall members use?

One-hand recap

TB #82 - Where do you discard the ziplock bags filled with the trash that was collected from an EMS incident?

Hospital

In red-labeled biohazard bag or sharps container.

TB #82 - All exposed members to possible TB shall receieve a Purified Protein Derivative (PPD) at time of exposure unless they have had a negative skin test within the last ______ month(s).

3 months

TB #82 - What is needed when a LAFD member converts from a negative to a positive PPD skin test?

Chest x-ray

TB #82 - Patients who are actively coughing shall have a ______ mask or _________ mask placed on them.

N95
Oxygen mask

TB #82 - Exposure of non-intact (broken) skin or mucous/conjunctiva membranes to blood or body fluids. This category also includes needle punctures and human bites. What level of exposure is this?

Level III

Per Training Bulleting #82, what is the only level of exposure when a F-225 is forwarded to the Medical Liason Unit?

Level II

DISCREPENCY

Volume 2 - Complete an F-225 or 5020 (State DWC Form 1) for all Level II and III Exposures.

TB #82 - What type of mask shall you wear while decontaminating equipment with possible infectious diseases?

TB #82 - What level of exposure requires you to complete a F-420, F-166 and DWC Form 1?

Level III

TB #82 - Rescue ambulance patient care areas, apparatus seats, and equipment should be scrubbed with ____ part(s) bleach to ____ part(s) water when contaminated.

1 part bleach to 10 parts water (1:10)

Air dry, never use compressed air.

TB #82 - This meningitis can be quite severe and may result in brain damage, hearing loss, or learning disability. What type of meningitis is this?

Bacterial meningitis

TB #82 - For a Level I exposure, document in…

F-2 Journal
PRB

TB #82 - Before leaving the scene of an EMS incident, all trash created by members during the incident shall be collected and placed in ___________.

Ziplock bags

TB #82 - Interpretation of the PPD test is done _____ to _____ hours after administration at the facility that administered the test. The PPD test will be repeated if not read within the time frame, but no sooner than _____ day(s) after the first test was administered.

48 to 72 hours
10 days

TB #82 - Disease exposure may be classified as either….

“Bloodborne Pathogen Exposure”
“Airborne Pathogen Exposure”

TB #83 - African honeybee queens where imported into ________ in 1956.

Brazil

TB #83 - How far will Africanized Honeybees chase an intruder?

1/2 mile

TB #83 - The intent of a hybrid bee was to boost productivity of the ___________ honeybee.

European honeybee

TB #83 - European honeybees will drive a man or animal as far as _____ yard(s) before ceasing an attack.

400 yards

TB #83 - A Class “A” ___% mixture will kill Africanized Honeybees in minutes.

TB #83 - Africanized Honeybees have a defensive action that can last up to ____ hour(s) or more.

8 hours

TB #83 - If you are attempting to escape from an Africanized Honeybee swarm, how shall you run away?

Run in a straight line

Staying in one location can be fatal.

TB #83 - The Exclusion Zone will be a minimum of a _____ foot area established around the Africanized Honeybees. This area is subject to change according to swarm activity.

300 foot

TB #83 - After killing the Africanized Honeybees, where will you dispose of the insects?

Rubbish container

Secure from access to children, animals, and birds.

TB #83 - If you are trying to neutralize bees and you have no foam on your apparatus, use a 1 inch hose line with a wide-angle fog spray covering the ground and a _____ foot air space around the victim.

30 foot air space

Request a resource with foam capability and be aware that bees may become more agitated with the “water only” option.

TB #83 - Africanized Honeybees have been migrating at a rate of _____ to _____ miles annually through Latin America and into the Southern United States.

200 to 300 miles annually

TB #83 - Who monitors the migration of the Africanized Honeybees?

California Department of Food and Agriculture

TB #83 - Africanized Honeybees have the ability to detect the vibrations of a person or animal walking up to _____ feet away.

100 feet

They will then send out large numbers of bees to investigate/attack the disturbance. Once the first sting occurs, the bee releases an “attack pheromone” scent, which fills the air and signals to the hive that an attack has begun.

TB #83 - If a colony of bees is located inside a structure, such as in a wall, attic, or crawl space, the IC shall advise the property owner to select and request a pest control operator listed in the _____________.

Yellow pages

Fire Department personnel shall not attempt to remove bees located inside a structure.

TB #83 - When Africanized Honeybees have been signaled that an attack has bugun, several hundred bees will join forces to repel the invader with an average defensive action of ____ stings per 30 seconds.

85 stings

TB #84 - (Metrolink Commuter Train) Each individual train has a supply of ______ AC volts of power, this can be turned off by shutting off the breaker switch located at the panel.

480 AC volts

TB #84 - Metrolink trains have a diesel fuel tank located under the locomotive, on both sides. They have a capacity of ________ gallons.

2,200 gallons

TB #84 - How many crew members operate a Metrolink train during operation?

2 members (Conductor & Engineer)

TB #84 - What two map sources can you use to locate tunnels for the Metrolink in the Chastworth area?

LAFD 1200’ map
LA County Thomas Guide Book

TB #84 - Every Metrolink passenger commuter car has windows of double pane Lexan polycarbonate. Lexan is _____ time(s) stronger than safety glass.

250 times stronger

TB #84 - The locomotive on the Metrolink train is powered by a _____ Series Engine.

GM Series Engine

TB #84 - (Metrolink Commuter Train) Engine and electrical power shutdown can be accomplished at the locomotive and control cab area by utilizing the 2 in 1 Engine Stop Button. The engine will shut down within ____ to ____ seconds.

30 to 40 seconds

TB #84 - (Metrolink Commuter Train) The control cab steers the train to its destination. It is located in the passenger commuter car (opposite of locomotive) identified with a letter “___” below the control cab window.

Letter “F”

TB #84 - On a Metrolink train, which crew member is responsible for its entire service and safety?

Conductor

TB #84 - Metrolink trains will consist of advanced low-pollution diesel locomotives pulling _____ to _____ double-decked passenger cars.

4 to 7

TB #84 - (Metrolink Commuter Train) The electrical panel in the passenger commuter car can be found inside a panel door, identified with a “___________” decal on the door.

“No Smoking” decal

TB #84 - Metrolink trains have fuel cut off buttons located _________ the diesel tank on both sides of locomotive. Push the red button to shut off the Engine and Head End Power (HEP). Hold down for approximately _____ second(s) for fuel cut off.

Above
20 seconds

TB #84 - Metrolink trains can travel up to ______ MPH in certain locations.

79 MPH

TB #84 - (Metrolink Commuter Train) The electrical panel will normally be found on the “___” end of the commuter car.

“A” end

TB #84 - On a Metrolink train, which crew member is responsible to drive the train to its predesignated location?

Engineer

TB #84 - Metrolink trains can carry a total of ______ passengers. Of these passengers, 149 are sitting.

360 passengers total

TB #84 - The Metrolink Commuter Link System has an air brake system with _____ PSI lines running throughout.

140 PSI

TB #84 - What agency operates the Metrolink?

Southern California Regional Rail Authority

TB #84 - The completed Metrolink system will eventually travel over _____ miles and serve over _____ stations which will link the City of Los Angeles with five surrounding counties.

400 miles
60 stations

TB #84 - On Metrolink passenger cars, don’t cut into the passenger cars with a rotary saw, as the space between the walls contain electrical wires which can cause an electrical shock of up to ______ volts AC.

480 volts AC

TB #84 - (Metrolink Commuter Train) The emergency hand brake can be used to park the commuter car in an emergency. The hand brake can be located at the car __________ (between each passenger car). This handle is the color _________.

Car vestibule
White

To operate the emergency hand brake, locate the white handle, and pump the handle until the handle no longer moves. The use of the emergency hand brake shall be used only to park the passenger car.

TB #84 - (Metrolink Commuter Train) In the Chatsworth area of Battalion 15, there is a potential hazard due to _____ tunnel(s) with no _________ supply.

3 tunnels
No water supply

Companies should note that there is no water supply or access other than the openings at each end of the tunnels.

TB #86 - What fumigant is used when other pesticide applications and/or standard tent/tarp fumigation techniques are impractical; such as ships, trains, aircraft, grain silos and golf courses with gopher problems?

Aluminum phosphide

TB #86 - Under the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer and the Clean Air Act, methyl bromide was all but completely phased out of the United States in _______.

2005

TB #86 - During fumigation incidents when a rescue may need to be performed, ventilate by placing fire department blowers at a portal on the ___________ side of the structure.

Windward

LAFD blowers will ventilate the building faster than pest control industry fans.

TB #86 - Hydrogen cyanide was prohibited throughout the US due to regulation stemming from the _______________ Convention in the year _______.

Chemical Weapons Convention
1997

TB #86 - After fumigating with sulfuryl flouride, studies indicate there are less than 1 part per million within ____ hour(s) of clearing and no detectable levels within 24 hours after aeration.

6 hours

TB #86 - Sulfuryl flouride is used today in _____% of all fumigations in the United States.

TB #86 - There are approximately ________ fumigations in Los Angeles County each year.

32,000 fumigations

TB #86 - What is the only fumigant that is approved for use in Los Angeles County?

Sulfuryl flouride

TB #86 - Compressed Air Foam (CAF) is comprised of water, air and concentrate. What is the combination of these three components called?

Mix ratio

The consistency of CAF can be adjusted by changing the mix ratio.

TB #86 - What fumigant is used in 95% of all fumigations in the United States?

Sulfuryl flouride

TB #86 - Chloropicrin (tear gas) becomes unstable at temperatures above _____ degrees F, and can decompose violently above this temperature.

140 degrees F

It will off gas at normal atmosphere temperatures and is non-skin absorptive as as gas.

TB #86 - Aluminum phosphide cannot be used inside a structure nor closer than _____ feet from a structure where humans or domestic animals reside.

100 feet

TB #86 - All personnel working within _____ feet of the structure at pesticide incidents involving fumigation shall wear full PPE’s with SCBA on air.

30 feet

TB #86 - The ﬂammable range of methyl bromide is from 10% to 16% in air, which correlates to the number “___” on the NFPA 704 placard for flammability.

“1” (on NFPA 704 diamond)

TB #86 - Sulfuryl flouride is nonflammable, colorless, and odorless. What is the warning agent that will always be used with it?

Chloropicrin (tear gas)

TB #86 - Unlike most other fumigants, this fumigant is skin absorptive and flammable. What fumigant is this describing?

Methyl bromide

TB #86 - When hydrogen cyanide was phased out for fumigations, what fumigant replaced it?

Methyl bromide

TB #86 - Aluminum phosphide is colorless with a ________ like odor.

Garlic-like odor

TB #86 - At a incident where fumigation is being used, all personnel performing rescue or rapid extraction operations shall wear nitrile EMS gloves with either firefighting gloves or the ______ nitrile over-gloves from the Haz/Mat bag as the outer glove.

Green nitrile over-gloves (Haz/Mat bag)

TB #86 - Effective November 1, _______, state certified fumigators were required to comply with the California Aeration Plan (CAP).

2010

TB #86 - Methyl bromide is odorless and is never used without adding an odorant. What is this odorant?

Chloropicrin (tear gas)

TB #86 - Methyl bromide was phased out of the United States in 2005 because its effects on the _______ Layer.

Ozone Layer

TB #86 - Sulfuryl flouride can cause frostbite at _____% F (boiling point) as it changes from liquid to gas.

-67 degrees F

TB #86 - Methyl bromide is currently prohibited with the exception of a handful of agricultural, food processing, and commodity industries exempted from this prohibition. What industry in California would you still encounter this fumigant?

Strawberry industry

It is used to fumigate strawberry fields soil prior to planting.

TB #86 - Chloropicrin is used during fumigation as a warning agent. It’s vapors are ____ times heavier than air.

5.7 heavier than air

TB #86 - Typical fumigations under the California Aeration Plan (CAP) are generally _____ day(s).

3 days

TB #86 - On “Day 2” while fumigating under the California Aeration Plan (CAP), aeration with tarpaulins will be in place for a minimum of _____ hour(s).

12 hours

TB #86 - Request a full _________ assignment for incidents involving aluminum phosphides.

Haz/Mat assignment

TB #86 - Sulfuryl flouride is only 1/3 to ____ as effective as methyl bromide.

1/3 to 1/2 effective

TB #86 - Effective November 1st, 2010, state certified fumigators were required to comply with the California ___________.

California Aeration Plan (CAP)

TB #86 - A fumigator must post a notice on the building indicating the ______ and ______ for re-entry.

Day and time

TB #86 - What is the minimum size hose line that should be used for Emergency Decon at a fumigation incident?

1 inch

TB #87 - Proper spinal immobilization requires the patient’s head and spine to be secured to a backboard in a _________ in-line position before the patient is moved.

Neutral

TB #87 - How many member(s) are required for proper spinal immobilization techniques?

Two members

TB #87 - For spinal immobilization, the average adult patient requires 1.5 inches of padding between the patient’s occiput and backboard. Women require _____ inches and men require _____ inches on average.

Women - 1.3 inches
Men - 1.7 inches

TB #87 - Significant spinal inuries that result in a partial or complete dislocation of the vertebra from its normal alignment in the spinal column is called ____________.

Subluxation

TB #88 - Compressed Air Foam (CAF) is a combination of water, _______, and ___________.

Water
Air
Foam concentrate

TB #88 - A wet, fluid foam with a fast drain time is best suited for this type of application?

Direct application

TB #88 - A dry, stiff foam will adhere to vertical surfaces and provide an insulating layer to exposed combustibles. What type of application is this best suited for?

Indirect application (exposure protection)

TB #88 - Firefighting effectiveness of water improves when a surfactant is added because fog nozzle droplets are _____ times smaller resulting in increased surface area of water applied.

3 times

TB #88 - A dry stiff foam will adhere to vertical surfaces. While applying foam for exposure protection, a _____ inch layer is appropriate.

1/2 inch

TB #88 - The measure of foam produced compared to the amount of foam solution used to make the foam. What is this called?

Expansion ratio
Low - 1:1 to 20:1
Medium - 20:1 to 200:1
High - 200:1 to 1,000:1
Low - flame knockdown, immediate wetting and mop-up
Medium - putting down barriers, exposure protection and some mop-up applications
High - effective insulators and suited for exposure protection

TB #88 - Class “A” foam is a synthetic, __________ based, hydrocarbon surfactant, that enhances the fire suppressant properties of plain water.

Detergent based

TB #88 - If eyes are splashed with foam concentrate or solution, flush with clean water for _____ minute(s).

15 minutes

TB #88 - Which LAFD helicopter has an automatic foam injection system?

Fire 3

TB #88 - What percent of Class “A” foam mixture is utilized for aerial water drops on brush fires?

0.1%

TB #88 - To get a 0.1% foam mixture in a LAFD helicopter for water drops, add approximately __/__ gallon of concentrate to the helicopter water tank after the tank is filled with water.

1/3 gallon

TB #90 - A sudden full room or area involvement in flame, or the sudden auto ignition of combustible surfaces and/or gases in an area heated by convection and/or radiation, resulting in a sudden and intense rise in temperature. What flash phenomena is this?

Flashover

TB #90 - How many measurable factors are there in a Class “A” fire?

6 measurable factors
Input heat
Fuel
Oxygen
Proportioning of the fuel/air mixture
Mixing of the fuel/air mixture
Uninhibited chain reactions between active fuel/air molecules

TB #90 - This usually occurs after flashover and is defined as rapid flame spread over one or more surfaces during a fire. It is caused by the sudden ignition of combustible vapors that are produced from a heated surface. What flash phenomena is this?

Flame over

TB #90 - The quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when passing between phases. What is this called?

Latent heat

TB #90 - A firefighter caught in a flashover, just five feet inside a room, will be exposed to temperatures of _____ to _____ degrees F, and direct flame impingement for at least 2 seconds.

1,000 to 1,500 degrees F

During that time, face piece components will melt and portions of protective clothing will ignite and burn before the Firefighter could escape.

TB #90 - The transmission, spread, or distribution of heat through the motion of a heated fluid. What type of heat transfer is this?

Convection

TB #90 - For backdraft to occur, oxygen content must fall to between ____% to ____%.

11% to 15%

TB #90 - (Fire Burns) Tests indicate that exposure to temperatures of only 280 to _____ degrees F will cause extreme pain and severe, full thickness burns to all unprotected skin.

280 to 320 degrees F

TB #90 - The transfer of heat through matter without any visible motion of that matter. This is the only method of heat transfer through solid objects. What type of heat transfer is this?

Conduction

TB #90 - Steam can cause full thickness burns to unprotected skin with less than _____ second(s) of exposure.

3 seconds

TB #90 - What is the most dangerous stage of fire development and is one of the major causes of fire ground fatalities?

Flashover

TB #90 - What type of burns develop faster and are more severe, due to latent heat transfer?

Steam burns

TB #90 - For a backdraft to occur, explosive products of combustion are _____ to _____ degrees F and higher, well above their ignition temperature. They have mushroomed and pressurized the entire structure.

1,000 to 1,800 degrees F

TB #90 - Second degree burns can occur with exposure to only ______ degrees F.

111 degrees F

TB #90 - Radiant heat energy from a point source diminishes in intensity with increased distance according to the inverse square law or, if the distance is doubled, the temperature increase to the exposed body is reduced __________.

Fourfold

TB #90 - BTU or British Thermal Unit is a basic unit of heat. A BTU is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of _____ pound(s) of water _____ degree(s) fahrenheit.

1 pound water
1 degree fahrenheit

TB #90 - What are the three stages in fire development?

1. 3.

Growth stage
Fully developed stage
Decay stage

TB #90 - This heat energy is transmitted similar to light waves and emanates equally in all directions, in straight lines. What type of heat transfer is this?

Radiation

TB #90 - This is a sudden sporadic generation of flame mixed with smoke at the upper ceiling level just before flashover occurs. What flash phenomena is this?

Roll over

TB #91 - Paramedic units shall treat cases of “hyperventilation syndrome” as a case of shortness of breath and make base station contact as per Department of Health Services (DHS) Reference Number _______.

Reference Number 808

TB #91 - The “hyperventilation syndrome” occurs when people breathe _________ or ________ than normal, resulting in an _________ in the pH of the blood.

Faster or deeper
Increase in pH

TB #91 - The most common cause of “hyperventilation syndrome” in young people is simple __________.

Anxiety

TB #91 - Other serious medical problems presenting with hyperventilation and anxiety include the _______ phases of both aspirin overdoses and sepsis.

Early phases

TB #93 - When a Thermo-Gel coating dries, how do you rehydrate it?

Spray with a fine mist

TB #93 - When pumping and applying Thermo-Gel, deliver _____ PSI to the nozzle. Add _____ PSI friction loss for the eductor.

75 PSI to nozzle
60 PSI friction loss (eductor)

TB #93 - What is the stated shelf life for Thermo-Gel?

No stated shelf life

TB #93 - Only coat the portion of the structure with Thermo-Gel that is threatened by fire. A one gallon container will cover ______ to ______ sq feet.

500 to 700 sq feet

TB #93 - Do not get any water inside the Thermo-Gel container. How many drop(s) of water can react with the gel and has the potential to clog the metering valve?

1 drop

TB #93 - Thermo-Gel is a liquid concentrate composed of super absorbent __________.

Polymers

TB #93 - When the threat of fire diminishes, what can normally be used to wash off the Thermo-Gel product?

Ordinary garden hose

TB #93 - For Thermo-Gel applications, use ______ PSI friction loss per 100 feet of 1 inch hose.

10 PSI

TB #93 - The super absorbent polymers in Thermo-Gel can absorb how many times their weight in water?

Hundreds

TB #93 - Do not delay cleaning the nozzle and metering valve after Thermo-Gel use more than ______ hour(s).

12 hours

TB #93 - The LAFD has had some success removing partially dried Thermo-Gel from a surface with a stiff ___________ and sweeping up the dry gel within _____ to _____ hours.

Stiff bristle brush
24 to 48 hours

TB #93 - Before using Thermo-Gel, handshake vigorously for ______ minute(s).

2 minutes

TB #93 - What size container is the Thermo-Gel?

1 gallon

TB #93 - How often shall you rotate Thermo-Gel containers on the apparatus?

Monthly

TB #93 - Regarding Thermo-Gel, companies shall carry one case of _____ containers on the apparatus.

4 containers

TB #93 - What is the process when foaming agents (such as Class “A” foam) are mixed with air and water to produce air bubbles?

Aeration

TB #93 - When applying Thermo-Gel, coat the object until white and to a __/__ inch thickness.

1/4 inch thickness

TB #93 - How shall you store the Thermo-Gel containers while on the apparatus and in the station?

On their side

This will keep the product from settling on the bottom of the container.

TB #93 - Tests have demonstrated that air bubbles from foaming agents burst when exposed to temperatures in the range of ______ degrees F.

170 degrees F

TB #93 - How often do you shake Thermo-Gel containers that are stored on the apparatus?

Weekly

TB #93 - Every _____ month(s), Thermal-Gel will be shaken with the Battalion issued shaker for _____ minute(s).

6 months
5 minutes

TB #93 - Regarding Thermo-Gel, when the probability of brush fires increases, companies shall carry _____ additional case(s) on the apparatus. This brings the total product carried to _____ containers.

2 additional cases
12 containers

TB #93 - Foam blankets break down _____ to _____ minutes following application.

15 to 30 minutes

TB #93 - When applying Thermo-Gel, start with the _______ and then coat the _________ surfaces.

Roof
Vertical surfaces

Work back towards the apparatus.

TB #93 - Following application, Thermo-Gel can be expected to remain in place from _____ to _____ hours.

6 to 36 hours

TB #94 - Existing fire alarm manual pull boxes may be covered with plastic for protection from the asbestos abatement. How do you identify these covered devices?

Red duct tape square around device

A cutting device shall be kept immediately adjacent to device.

TB #94 - When asbestos insulation is removed from the structural steel in high-rise buildings, it is required to be replaced within _____ day(s).

15 days

TB #94 - On single story buildings, what is the total percent of floor space that can be under active asbestos abatement at any one time?

TB #94 - What FPB Unit do you report any illegal or unsafe asbestos abatement projects to?

High-Rise Unit, FPB

TB #94 - A Division ____ Permit is required when removing over ______ sq feet of asbestos or when the asbestos is removed and reduces the fire resistiveness of any building.

Division 5 Permit
100 sq feet

TB #94 - All existing sprinkler systems shall remain active on asbestos abatement projects. Sprinkler heads may be covered with a thin, 0.___ inch or less, plastic bag during abatement to avoid their contamination.

0.003 inch

TB #94 - High-rise buildings constructed prior to _______ used asbestos insulation on steel members.

1973

TB #94 - Commercial or habitational occupancies built from the mid 1930’s to the ______’s contain Asbestos Containing Materials (ACM’s) from insulation.

Mid 1930’s to 1970’s

TB #94 - A Division 5 Permit for asbestos abatement is good for ______ day(s) from the date of issue.

180 days

Permit good for only the specific project it was issued for.

TB #94 - (Asbestos) A ___ x ___ inch sign with minimum 3 x 1/2 inch lettering on a contrasting background, indicating which floors are involved in the abatement process shall be immediately adjacent to the fire alarm annunciator panel.

12 x 12 inch sign

TB #94 - Asbestos is a fibrous material which is a carcinogen. They are very small from ____ to ____ microns.

1 to 20 microns

TB #94 - Wet Asbestos Containing Material (ACM) presents _______ of a hazard.

Less hazard

TB #94 - Asbestos Containing Materials (ACM’s) have had a wide variety of uses. There are more than _________ products containg ACM’s.

3,000 products

TB #94 - What is the minimum width for the red duct tape that is used to identify alarm manual pull boxes that have been covered by plastic for asbestos abatement projects?

3 inches

TB #94 - On multiple story buildings (where more than 25 percent of the floor area is undergoing abatement, or under demolition in preparation for abatement), asbestos abatement is permitted on a ____________ basis.

Floor-by-floor

No two consectutive floors at any time may undergo active abatement simultaneously. A maximum of every other floor, up to a total of three floors out of five, is permitted.

TB #94 -The licensed contractor performing the abatement process shall notify the LAFD in writing a minimum of _____ day(s) prior to the start of any abatement project.

10 days

TB #94 - When obtaining a permit for asbestos abatement, how many copy(s) of the plot plan shall be provided by the contractor?

3 copies

TB #94 - A LAFD Inspector has been assigned in the FPB for enforcement of Fire Prevention Requirement No. _____ - “Asbestos Abatement.”

No. 68

TB #94 - Fire alarm pull boxes, FD communication jacks, signaling systems will remain active on asbestos abatement projects. They will be marked with signs containing lettering which is a minimum of ____” x ____” wide.

3” x 1/2” wide

On a contrasting background

TB #94 - What is the minimum of marked exits that shall be maintained from each floor during the abatement process?

2 exits

TB #94 - A fire watch shall be maintained by the on-site supervisor when the asbestos abatement project is _______ sq feet or more, and whenever the fire protective coating of the building’s structural members is removed.

1,000 sq feet

TB #94 - Where is the standard 20” x 14” black on yellow asbestos abatement warning sign placed in a building?

Fire Control Room (adjacent to fire alram panel)

No Fire Control Room - shall be placed adjacent to the building’s fire alarm annunciator panel, or in a location approved by the Fire Department.

TB #94 - Who are contractors required to notify prior to abestos abatement?

AQMD - Air Quality Management District

Failure to notify the AQMD will result in substantial fines imposed on the contractor.

TB #94 - When fire watch is required for asbestos projects, each area of the work site must be seen a minimum of once each ______ minutes.

30 minutes

This Fire Watch shall continue for a minimum of 30 minutes after the cessation of work.

TB #94 - What FPB Unit issues a Division 5 Permit for asbestos abatement?

Engineering Unit, FPB

TB #96 - The lightweight yellow Nomex brush overpants are to be worn over the station ___________.

Work uniform

TB #96 - The goal of the Department is to provide a protective clothing system for (Wildland) fires that will protect members for _________ exposure limits.

Normal exposure

TB #96 - There are many uses for the firefighter field pack on brush/grass fires (carrying equipment, etc.) How many field pack(s) are assigned to every fire apparatus?

1 field pack

TB #96- When wearing full structure PPE’s at a brush fire, this this system may lead to the number one firefighting injury, that of excessive ______________.

Internal heat stress

TB #97 - Experts have broken non-verbal communication into _____ category(s).

5 categories
Voice signals
Body signals
Object signals
Space signals
Time signals

TB #97 - The non-verbal messages or “body language” that we send to others is _____ to _____ percent.

50 to 60 percent

TB #97 - Regarding “space signals”, it has been shown that an intimate distance reserved for only loved ones is between _____ to _____ inch(s).

6 to 18 inches

TB #97 - The message that we send to others is often _____ to _____ percent content (or the words we use).

7 to 10 percent

TB #97 - The communication through the tone of our voice is _____ to _____ percent.

33 to 40 percent

TB #97 - Belittling, making a fool of, embarrassing, or challenging someone. What term is this describing?

Facing down

TB #97 - Regarding “space signals”, a personal distance for good friends is between _____ inch(s) to _____ feet.

18 inches to 4 feet

TB #97 - Victims deal with their feelings in a variety of ways. What is the most common way how they deal with their feelings?

Blame

TB #97 - Regarding “space signals”, a social distance for acquaintances is between _____ feet to _____ feet.

4 feet to 12 feet

TB #97 - What type of communication can be the most meaningful way in which we communicate with the public?

Non-verbal communicaiton

TB #97 - Regarding “space signals”, a public distance for strangers is ______ feet and more.

12 feet or more

TB #97 - When comparing violent criminals and non-violent convicts “body buffer zones”, how many more times larger do violent criminals require?

4 times larger

TB #98 - It has become the legal standard for courts to place greater credence on written documentation than on ________ testimony.

Oral testimony

TB #98 - What takes priority over documentation of incident information on an EMS call?

Patient care

TB #98 - As our EMS system evolves, it will become increasingly vital for members to frequently review the “Three P’s” to render proper patient care. What are the three “P’s?”

1. 3.

Policies
Procedures
Protocols

TB #99 - In swiftwater, who would be rescued as a second priorty?

Teammates

TB #99 - In swiftwater, what is the position called when you are floating on your back with your feet facing downstream?

Defensive body position

TB #99 - The tension diagonal is generally a rope which is tensioned across a channel at a downstream angle of no more than _____ degrees to the current flow or vector.

45 degrees

TB #99 - What is the most successfull way to deploy a throwbag when attempting to rescue a victim in the water?

Underhand throw

This will spool the line out across the victim’s chest and has proven to be most effective. Rather than aiming the throwbag directly at the victim, this affords the victim an increased chance to grab the rope if it falls either upstream or downstream of him.

TB #99 - When attempting to use the rescue net on a swift water incident, from the ready position, the net is dropped into the water when the victim is still ____ to ____ seconds upstream.

5 to 10 seconds

TB #99 - River ______ is looking down stream with the river bank to the left.

River left

TB #99 - A method of victim rescue from moving water is the use of inflated fire hose. The hose for this evolution is _____ to _____ feet (maximum) of 2-1/2 inch firefighting hose.

50 to 100 feet

TB #99 - On an annual basis in the United States, approximately _______ to _______ people die in water related emergencies.

6,000 to 9,000 people

TB #99 - The most alarming part of the annual statistics regarding drowning deaths, is that up to __/__ of these drownings are “would-be” rescuers.

1/3rd

TB #99 - Within Los Angeles County, on an annual basis, what is the average number of swiftwater incidents which are handled by first responders?

60 incidents

TB #99 - The ideal inflation pressure when using inflated fire hose for swift water rescue is _____ to _____ PSI.

50 to 60 PSI

This gives enough stability to prevent the line from kinking yet may be reached rapidly and safely.

TB #99 - A downstream “____” of water is caused by the convergence of a downstream water flow. This is considered a safe path of downstream travel.

Downstream “V” (safe)

An upstream “V” is a dangerous downstream path. This is caused by water flowing around an object.

TB #99 - When you are within _____ feet of the water on a swiftwater incident, you must be wearing your specialized protective gear.

10 feet

TB #99 - During a swift water incident, after you fill the fire hose with air for a rescue attempt, how high above the water is the hose suspended?

1 foot

TB #99 - Regarding swift water, what is the priority?

Self-rescue

TB #116 - (Metro Heavy Rail Lines) The emergency walkway is a footpath for pedestrian access/egress in the tunnel right of way. It is a minimum ____ inches in width.

30 inches in width

There is a walkway area on one side of the track, throughout the Red Line system on both bores of the tunnel to allow emergency personnel access to equipment and trains, and to off-load passengers in cases of extreme emergencies.

Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Training Bulletins 81 - 119 Flashcards

Brainscape's Knowledge Genome^TM